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 Essential Biochemistry 3rd Edition by Pratt – Test Bank

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Chapter Number: 2

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) In a water molecule, hydrogens are partially _____;  oxygens are partially _____.

 

  1. A) negative; negative
  2. B) negative; positive
  3. C) positive; positive
  4. D) positive; negative
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

2) At any given moment, a single water molecule participates in _____ strong hydrogen bond(s).  The role played by the water molecule is best characterized as _____.

 

  1. A) two ; one H-bond donor, one H-bond acceptor
  2. B) two ; two H-bond donor
  3. C) two ; two H-bond acceptor
  4. D) one; H-bond donor
  5. E) one; H-bond acceptor

 

 

 

3) Which of the following is a physical property of water that results from hydrogen bonding?

 

  1. A) high boiling point relative to molecular weight
  2. B) a solid state that is less dense than the liquid state
  3. C) high surface tension
  4. D) ability to solubilize polar molecules
  5. E) all of the above

 

 

 

 

4) In a hydrogen bond between a water molecule and another biomolecule, _____.

 

  1. A) a hydrogen ion on the water molecule forms an ionic bond with a hydride ion on the other molecule
  2. B) the hydrogen bond will typically form between a hydrogen atom and either a nitrogen, sulfur, or oxygen atom
  3. C) the partial charge on a hydrogen of the water interacts with the partial charge on a hydrogen of the other molecule
  4. D) a hydrogen on the water molecule forms a covalent bond to an oxygen or nitrogen atom on the other molecule
  5. E) the hydrogen atom is located between an oxygen atom of the water and a carbon atom of the other molecule

 

 

 

5) The strongest non-covalent interactions are _____.

 

  1. A) van der Waals interactions
  2. B) London dispersion forces
  3. C) hydrogen bonds
  4. D) dipole-dipole interactions
  5. E) ionic interactions

 

 

 

6) Hydrogen bonds are approximately _____% of the bond strength of covalent C-C or C-H bonds.

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 20
  4. D) 50
  5. E) 95

 

 

7) Due to the formation of hydrogen bonds, _____ is highly soluble in water.

 

  1. A) carbon dioxide
  2. B) sodium chloride
  3. C) methanol
  4. D) octane
  5. E) cholesterol

 

 

 

8) Which of the following explains the interactions that occur between the atoms of water molecules and the ions that form when sodium chloride dissolves in water?

 

  1. A) hydrogens interact with the sodium ion, oxygens interact with the chloride ion
  2. B) hydrogens interact with the chloride ion, oxygens interact with the sodium ion
  3. C) hydrogens interact with the sodium ion and the chloride ion
  4. D) oxygens interact with the sodium ion and the chloride ion
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

9) Which of the following functional groups has two hydrogen bond donors and one hydrogen bond acceptor?

 

  1. A) alcohol
  2. B) ester
  3. C) thiol
  4. D) amine
  5. E) amide

 

 

 

10) Hydrogen bonds within liquid water are _________.

 

  1. A) attractions between the protons of the oxygen nuclei
  2. B) ion-induced dipole interactions
  3. C) dipole-dipole interactions
  4. D) attractions between two oxygen atoms
  5. E) attractions between the H+ and OH ions of the liquid

 

 

 

11) When a non-polar substance is added to water, how do the molecules of water behave?

 

  1. A) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in a decrease of entropy
  2. B) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in an increase of entropy
  3. C) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in a decrease of enthalpy
  4. D) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in an increase of enthalpy
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

12) What term is used to describe the exclusion of nonpolar substances from an aqueous solution?

 

  1. A) nonpolar effect
  2. B) lipid effect
  3. C) hydrophobic effect
  4. D) oil droplet effect
  5. E) amphiphilic effect

 

 

13) Which of the following is an example of the hydrophobic effect?

 

  1. A) the lipid membrane of cells and organelles
  2. B) protein folding that places hydrophobic amino acids in the interior of the protein
  3. C) the separation of salad dressing
  4. D) oil sheens seen on the ocean following an oil spill
  5. E) all of the above

 

 

 

14) Which of the following explains the attractive forces between hydrophobic molecules in an aqueous solution?

 

  1. A) in an aqueous environment, London dispersion forces between hydrophobic molecules become stronger
  2. B) in an aqueous environment, London dispersion forces between hydrophobic molecules and water become stronger
  3. C) since nonpolar molecules do not form hydrogen bonds with hydrogen bonds with water, they can form hydrogen bonds with other nonpolar molecules
  4. D) there is no increase in attractive forces between nonpolar molecules in an aqueous environment
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

15) Considering the energetics of transferring nonpolar molecules from water to a nonpolar solvent, the factor TDS is generally _____, causing DG to be _____.

 

  1. A) positive; negative
  2. B) negative; negative
  3. C) positive; positive
  4. D) positive; positive
  5. E) negligible; either positive or negative

 

 

16) A molecule that has both a polar and nonpolar region is called _____________.

 

  1. A) micelleic
  2. B) amphiphilic
  3. C) endergonic
  4. D) a membrane
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

17) Which of the following is an example of an amphipathic molecule?

 

  1. A) adenine, a base found in nucleic acids
  2. B) glucose, a monosaccharide
  3. C) serine, an amino acid
  4. D) palmitic acid, a fatty acid
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

18) In aqueous solution, globules of up to several thousand amphiphilic molecules arranged with the hydrophilic groups on the surface and the hydrophobic groups buried in the center are called _____.

 

  1. A) micelles
  2. B) vacuoles
  3. C) liposomes
  4. D) bilayers
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

19) Fatty acid anions most commonly assemble into _____ in aqueous solution.

 

  1. A) lipid bilayers
  2. B) solvent-filled vesicles
  3. C) micelles
  4. D) liposomes
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

20) Which of the following molecules would be prevented from readily crossing a lipid bilayer?

 

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) sodium ions
  3. C) potassium ions
  4. D) water
  5. E) all of the above

 

 

 

21) Which of the following is true regarding hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar molecules or groups?

 

  1. A) they result from the tendency to maximize water’s contact with nonpolar molecules
  2. B) they require the presence of surrounding water molecules
  3. C) they are the result of strong attractions between nonpolar regions
  4. D) they are the result of strong repulsion between water and nonpolar regions
  5. E) they depend on strong permanent dipoles in the nonpolar molecules

 

 

 

22) In an aqueous solution, if the [OH] is 3.0´10-5 M, what is the [H+]?

 

  1. A) 7.0´10-9
  2. B) 7.0´10-2
  3. C) 3.3´10-3
  4. D) 3.3´10-10
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

23) What is the [H+] of an aqueous solution with a pH of 6.2?

 

  1. A) 6.2´10-6
  2. B) 1.6´10-8
  3. C) 6.3´10-7
  4. D) 3. 3´10-5
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

24) What would be the resulting pH if one drop (0.05 ml) of 1.0 M HCl was added to one liter of pure water (assume pH 7.0)?

 

  1. A) 2.7
  2. B) 4.3
  3. C) 5.0
  4. D) 0 (there would be no significant change)
  5. E) 9.7

 

 

 

25) What would be the resulting pH if one ml of 1.0 M NaOH was added to one liter of pure water (assume pH 7.0)?

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 7.3
  4. D) 11
  5. E) 13

 

 

 

26) Which of the following would be the strongest acid?

 

  1. A) formic acid, pK=3.75
  2. B) succinic acid, a diprotic acid with pK=4.21 and 5.64
  3. C) acetic acid, pK=4.76
  4. D) ammonium ion, pK=9.25
  5. E) cannot be determined from the given information

 

 

 

27) What is the pH of a solution that contains three parts of acetic acid and one part sodium acetate?  The pK for acetic acid is 4.76.

 

  1. A) 5.24
  2. B) 5.06
  3. C) 4.46
  4. D) 4.28
  5. E) cannot be determined from the given information

 

 

28) If the pK values for phosphoric acid are 2.15, 6.82 and 12.38, at what pH would one observe equal amounts of H2PO4 and HPO42-?

 

  1. A) 2.15
  2. B) 4.49
  3. C) 6.82
  4. D) 9.60
  5. E) 12.38

 

 

29) If 1.0 mL of 1.0 M acetic acid (pK = 4.76, K = 1.74 x 10–5) was added to one liter of pure water, what is the resulting pH?

 

  1. A) 1.0
  2. B) 1.3
  3. C) 3.0
  4. D) 3.9
  5. E) 10.1

 

 

 

30)    If the pK values for phosphoric acid are 2.15, 6.82 and 12.38, _____ would predominate at pH 5 while _____ would predominate at pH 10.

 

  1. A) H3PO4; H2PO4
  2. B) H3PO4; HPO42-
  3. C) H3PO4; PO43-
  4. D) H2PO4; PO43-
  5. E) H2PO4; HPO42-

 

 

 

31) What is the conjugate acid of H2PO4?

 

  1. A) HPO42-
  2. B) H2PO4
  3. C) H3PO4
  4. D) PO43-
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

32) Considering a 0.1 M formic acid buffer, what is the concentration of formic acid present in a solution of pH 4.25 if the pK of formic acid is 3.75?

 

  1. A) 0.024 M
  2. B) 0.033 M
  3. C) 0.067 M
  4. D) 0.076 M
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

33) Which of the following shows the buffer that is found in the blood stream?

 

  1. A) H3PO4 H2PO42- + H+
  2. B) H2PO4 HPO42- + H+
  3. C) HPO42- PO43- + H+
  4. D) H2CO3 HCO3+ H+
  5. E) HCO3CO32-  + H+

 

 

 

34) Which of the following shows the intracellular buffer?

 

  1. A) H3PO4 H2PO42- + H+
  2. B) H2PO4 HPO42- + H+
  3. C) HPO42- PO43- + H+
  4. D) H2CO3 HCO3+ H+
  5. E) HCO3CO32-  + H+

 

 

35) If a phosphate buffer (pK=6.82) was formulated such that its pH was 7.3, it would be best suited to buffer against _____.  If instead, it was formulated such that its pH was 6.3, it would be best suited to buffer against _____.

 

  1. A) acid; base
  2. B) acid; acid
  3. C) base; acid
  4. D) base; base
  5. E) a buffer with a pH that far from the pK would not be an effective buffer

 

 

 

36) Which of the following could be used to formulate 100 mls of a 0.10 M acetate buffer (pK=4.76) at pH 5 if you start with 64 mls of 0.10 M sodium acetate?

 

  1. A) 3.6 mls of 1 M HCl
  2. B) 3.6 mls of 1 M NaOH
  3. C) 34 mls of 0.10 M HCl
  4. D) 34 mls of 0.10 M NaOH
  5. E) 34 mls of 0.10 M acetic acid

 

 

 

37) Which of the following could be used to formulate 100 mls of a 0.10 M phosphate buffer (pK=6.82) at pH 7.2?

 

  1. A) 2.9 mmoles of Na2HPO4 and 7.1 mmoles of NaHPO4
  2. B) 10 mmoles of Na2HPO4 and 7.1 mmoles of NaOH
  3. C) 10 mmoles of NaHPO4 and 7.1 mmoles of HCl
  4. D) 10 mmoles of H3PO4 and 17.1 mmoles of NaOH
  5. E) all of the above

 

 

 

38) Metabolic acidosis often causes increased respiratory rates.  What portion of the bloodstream buffer is lost through increased respiration?

 

  1. A) H+
  2. B) HCO3
  3. C) H2CO3
  4. D) CO2
  5. E) H2O

 

 

 

39) What is the resulting pH if 10 millimoles of HCl is added to 1 liter of a 0.1 M phosphate buffer at pH 7.00 (pK=6.82)?

 

  1. A) 6.82
  2. B) 6.98
  3. C) 7.01
  4. D) 7.19
  5. E) cannot be determined

 

 

 

40) During vigorous exercise, hydrogen ions are produced within cells as a result of increased metabolism.  What component of the intracellular buffer would increase as a result of the increased H+ production?

 

  1. A) H3PO4
  2. B) H2PO4
  3. C) HPO42-
  4. D) PO43-
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Chapter Number: 3

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which of the following is a characteristic of Chargaff’s rules?

 

  1. A) A + T = C + G
  2. B) A + G = C + T
  3. C) A + G = C + U
  4. D) all organisms have identical amounts of all four nucleotides
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

2) A base found exclusively in DNA is _____ while _____ is found only in RNA.

 

  1. A) adenine; cytosine
  2. B) guanine; thymine
  3. C) uracil; adenine
  4. D) cytosine; guanine
  5. E) thymine; uracil

 

 

3) The purines found in nucleic acids are _____ and _____.

 

  1. A) adenine; cytosine
  2. B) guanine; thymine
  3. C) uracil; adenine
  4. D) adenine; guanine
  5. E) thymine; uracil

 

 

 

4) In DNA, the ribose derivative lacks an _____ on carbon _____.

 

  1. A) alcohol; 2
  2. B) alcohol; 3
  3. C) amine; 2
  4. D) amine; 3
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

5) Which of the following is correctly paired with its nucleoside?

 

  1. A) adenine: adenylate
  2. B) cytosine: cytidine diphosphate
  3. C) guanine: guanosine
  4. D) thymine: thymidylate
  5. E) uridine: uridine triphosphate

 

 

 

6) The coenzymes known as NAD+, FAD and coenzyme A all contain a derivative of _____.

 

  1. A) adenosine
  2. B) cytidine
  3. C) guanosine
  4. D) thymidine
  5. E) uridine

 

 

 

7) What type of bond is made between nucleotides?

 

  1. A) ester
  2. B) phosphate ester
  3. C) phosphodiester
  4. D) glycosidic
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

8) The 5¢ end of a polynucleotide contains _____ while the 3¢ end contains _____.

 

  1. A) a hydroxyl group; a phosphate group
  2. B) a phosphate group; a hydroxyl group
  3. C) a phosphate group; a phosphate group
  4. D) a hydroxyl group; a hydroxyl group
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

9) The most common base pairs in DNA are _____ and _____.

 

  1. A) A-T; A-G
  2. B) G-C; C-A
  3. C) T-A; A-U
  4. D) C-G; T-A
  5. E) G-U; A-T

 

 

 

10) An A-T base pair consists of _____ H-bond(s);  a C-G base pair consists of _____ H-bond(s).

 

  1. A) 1; 2
  2. B) 2; 1
  3. C) 2; 2
  4. D) 3; 2
  5. E) 2; 3

 

 

 

11) Which of the following correctly describes the B-DNA double helix?

 

  1. A) antiparallel strands
  2. B) right-handed helix
  3. C) base pairs are located in the center of the helix
  4. D) one helical rotation has a rise of 3.4 nm
  5. E) all of the above

 

 

 

12) Differences in structure between a DNA helix and an RNA helix can predominantly be attributed to the presence of _____ in RNA.

 

  1. A) uracil
  2. B) 2¢ hydroxyl group
  3. C) 3¢ hydroxyl group
  4. D) smaller sizes of RNA molecules
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

13) Which of the following non-covalent interactions is the most important in maintaining the structure of the double helix?

 

  1. A) phosphodiester bonds
  2. B) hydrogen bonds
  3. C) London dispersion forces
  4. D) van der Waals interactions
  5. E) ionic interactions

 

 

 

14) What term describes the process of converting the information found in DNA into the sequence of a protein?

 

  1. A) replication
  2. B) transcription
  3. C) translation
  4. D) expression
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

15) The DNA strand that serves as the template for the synthesis of RNA is often called the _____.

 

  1. A) coding strand
  2. B) noncoding strand
  3. C) messenger strand
  4. D) transfer strand
  5. E) transcription strand

 

 

 

16) If instead of four different bases in DNA and RNA, there were six, what is the minimum size of a codon to encode the 20 amino acids commonly found in proteins?

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) cannot be determined

 

 

 

17) The replication of DNA is made possible by the presence of _____ strands in the double helix of DNA.

 

  1. A) antiparallel
  2. B) hydrogen bonded
  3. C) complementary
  4. D) genomic
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

18) Which of the following represents a DNA mutation in the template strand that would convert serine to cysteine?

 

  1. A) 5¢-GCT-3¢ to 5¢-GCA-3¢
  2. B) 5¢-AGC-3¢ to 5¢-TGC-3¢
  3. C) 5¢-AGC-3¢ to 5¢-UGC-3¢
  4. D) 5¢-AGU-3¢ to 5¢-UGU-3¢
  5. E) 5¢-TCG-3¢ to 5¢-TCC-3¢

 

 

 

19) The triplet code allows many amino acids to be specified by more than one codon.  Such a code is said to be _____.

 

  1. A) conclusive
  2. B) elusive
  3. C) replicative
  4. D) recursive
  5. E) degenerate

 

 

20) Bacteria and archaea typically have fewer than _____ genes while plants and animals typically have greater than _____ genes.

 

  1. A) 200; 1,000
  2. B) 500; 2,500
  3. C) 1,000; 5,000
  4. D) 5,000; 10,000
  5. E) 10,000; 100,000

 

 

 

21) What term is used to describe short segments of DNA that are copied many times and inserted randomly in chromosomes?

 

  1. A) moderately repetitive sequences
  2. B) highly repetitive sequences
  3. C) transposable elements
  4. D) spliced sequences
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

22) An open reading frame is defined by _____.

 

  1. A) a start and stop codon
  2. B) homology with other species
  3. C) placement on a genome map
  4. D) presence of transposable elements
  5. E) absence of highly repetitive sequences

 

 

 

23) The presence of _____ approximately once in every 1000 base pairs is what makes each individual human genetically unique.

 

  1. A) orphan genes
  2. B) horizontal genes
  3. C) homologous genes
  4. D) transposable elements
  5. E) single nucleotide polymorphisms

 

 

 

24) A genomic library _____.

 

  1. A) contains only protein-coding DNA sequences
  2. B) is built from mRNA by reverse transcription
  3. C) is a storehouse of protein structures for a specific organism
  4. D) contains all of an organism’s DNA
  5. E) is best constructed from very short DNA fragments

 

 

 

25) In humans, approximately _____ % of the genome encodes proteins.

 

  1. A) 78
  2. B) 45
  3. C) 33
  4. D) 11
  5. E) 1.5

 

 

26) Incorporation of which of the following would result in chain termination during sequencing of DNA?

 

  1. A) dATP
  2. B) dCTP
  3. C) ddTTP
  4. D) dGTP
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

27) The results of DNA sequencing are obtained by first separating different sized pieces of DNA using _____ followed by detection of the particular dideoxynucleotide using _____.

 

  1. A) HPLC; NMR
  2. B) HPLC; absorbance spectroscopy
  3. C) electrophoresis; fluorescence spectroscopy
  4. D) electrophoresis; x-ray crystallography
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

28) What reagents are required for the Sanger sequencing method?

 

  1. A) template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs, ddNTP
  2. B) template, primer, DNA polymerase, dNTPs, ddNTP
  3. C) template, primer, DNA polymerase, rRNA, dNTPs, ddNTP
  4. D) template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

29) The most commonly used technique for making large numbers of copies of DNA is _____.

 

  1. A) polymerase chain reaction
  2. B) dideoxy sequencing
  3. C) restriction digestion
  4. D) genetic engineering
  5. E) site-directed mutagenesis

 

 

30) Because of the high temperature _____ step during a PCR reaction, the DNA polymerase from _____ is used.

 

  1. A) primer extension; coli
  2. B) strand separation; Thermus aquaticus
  3. C) primer annealing; Thermus aquaticus
  4. D) primer extension; bacteriophage l
  5. E) strand separation; coli