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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
 
Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 5th Edition by David H. Barlow – Test Bank
Sample  Questions

 

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1. What is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders?

a. a guide for training psychology students in assessment techniques
b. a textbook about the etiology of psychological disorders
c. a classification system for abnormal behaviour
d. an encyclopedia of treatment approaches for psychological disorders

 

2. Which of the following is a part of the intellectual functioning component of a mental status exam?

a. noting a person’s vocabulary
b. noting the appropriateness of a person’s attire
c. noting a person’s mood
d. noting the content of what a person is saying

 

3. What is the primary basis for a prognosis?

a. information about the course of the disorder in other individuals
b. clinical experience
c. the treatment options available to the patient
d. the client’s desire to reform

 

4. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI falsifies answers in order to look good. On which scale will he or she most likely have a high score?

a. Defensiveness (K)
b. Infrequency (F)
c. Inconsistency (I)
d. Lie (L)

 

5. What kind of test is the Stanford-Binet test?

a. a personality test
b. a projective test
c. an intelligence test
d. a mental status test

 

6. What does the classical categorical approach to diagnosis assume about each person with a particular disorder?

a. He or she will experience very few of the same symptoms.
b. He or she will respond to the same treatments equally.
c. He or she will be helped by recognizing the cause of the disorder.
d. He or she will experience the same symptoms with little or no variation.

 

7. If an assessment measures what it is intended to measure it is said to be considered to be which of the following?

a. valid
b. reliable
c. standardized
d. clinical

 

8. A clinician asks a child to sit at a desk in a simulated classroom situation to complete a difficult task. The clinician is using this technique to discover the reasons the child has been engaging in self-hitting (self-injurious) behaviour. In behavioural assessment terms, what type of behaviour has the self-hitting been identified as?

a. measurable behaviour
b. target behaviour
c. resultant behaviour
d. observable behaviour

 

9. One of the problems in using neuropsychological tests to detect organic damage and cognitive disorders involves the possibility of false negatives. Which of the following is most likely to result from a false negative?

a. A patients undergoes completely unnecessary and expensive procedures.
b. A clinician misses an important medical problem that needs to be treated.
c. A patient is diagnosed with a condition that does not exist.
d. Cell damage occurs due to repeated radiation exposure.

 

10. Why was the Comprehensive System for administering and scoring the Rorschach inkblot test developed?

a. because it was discovered that inter-rater reliability had increased significantly
b. because the previous scoring system was found to be difficult and time consuming
c. because Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his test was being administered
d. because there was a lack of standardized procedures, which can affect the way the test-taker responds to the questions

 

11. Why does the assessment concept known as reliability increase in the MMPI?

a. because the MMPI is often interpreted by computer
b. because the MMPI is non-sexist
c. because the MMPI is well researched
d. because the MMPI is made up of many scales

 

12. When Ms. Rath was seeking employment, a job consultant gave her a standard IQ test. The following year, the same consultant gave Ms. Rath the same IQ test. Ms. Rath’s score was similar on both occasions. What does this indicate?

a. The test has concurrent validity.
b. The test has long-term validity.
c. The test has inter-rater reliability.
d. The test has test-retest reliability.

 

13. Using a new diagnostic system, several clinicians interview a patient and independently provide the same diagnosis. The diagnosis may be different from the diagnosis that would be applied using an older diagnostic system. What can we assume about the new diagnostic system?

a. It appears to be standardized.
b. It appears to be reliable.
c. It appears to be normed.
d. It appears to be valid.

 

14. What are neuropsychological tests used to assess?

a. whether an individual might have had a psychotic episode
b. whether an individual might have a brain dysfunction
c. whether an individual might be intellectually disabled
d. whether an individual might be in a depressed state

 

15. Which of the following is a projective test?

a. the WAIS
b. the MMPI
c. the TAT
d. the MCMI

 

16. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI makes false claims about psychological problems. On which scale will he or she most likely obtain an elevated score?

a. Defensiveness (K)
b. Infrequency (F)
c. Inconsistency (I)
d. Lie (L)

 

17. Why is assessing psychophysiological responding very important in the assessment of many sexual dysfunctions and disorders?

a. because misdiagnosis of sexual disorders can be devastating for the patient
b. because it avoids having to ask patients direct and possibly embarrassing questions about their sexuality
c. because many people are unaware that they have a true sexual disorder
d. because sometimes the individual is unaware of his or her specific patterns of sexual arousal

 

18. What is one problem with projective tests?

a. They are often too rigid.
b. They make participants feel uncomfortable.
c. They are expensive to administer.
d. They are not standardized across clinicians.

 

19. In contrast to projective tests, personality inventories such as the MMPI are based on the collection and evaluation of data. What type of approach is this?

a. an analytic approach
b. a predictive approach
c. an empirical approach
d. a descriptive approach

 

20. Which neuroimaging device would be used to examine dopamine activity in individuals with bipolar disorder?

a. CAT
b. MRI
c. PET
d. TAT

 

21. Which of the following refers to an imaging technique that uses a radioactive tracer to measure the functioning of various parts of the brain?

a. a PET scan
b. a CT scan
c. a CAT scan
d. an MRI scan

 

22. What is considered the most significant difference between the DSM-IV-R to the DSM-5?

a. The axis system has been eliminated.
b. Several disorders, such as Asperger’s syndrome, have been eliminated.
c. Several disorders, such as gambling addiction, have been added.
d. The DSM 5 stipulates a treatment plan and not just a diagnosis.

 

23. Which of the following was a cause of problems with the original version of the MMPI?

a. the lack of standardized instructions for administration
b. clinicians’ subjective interpretations of scale scores
c. selective sampling for the standardization group and the biased wording of questions
d. low reliability and validity

 

24. Dr. Hall, a clinical psychologist, decides to conduct a behavioural assessment of five-year-old Sarah, instead of a clinical interview, after her parents report that she has had repeated and often physical conflicts with other children on the playground. Why is a behavioural assessment preferable in this case?

a. because the parents could be exaggerating the problem
b. because a structured interview might be too stressful for a young child
c. because young children are less able to verbally communicate their problems and experiences
d. because young children often deliberately withhold information from authority figures

 

25. Many popular magazines include “psychological” or “personality” tests to help readers better understand themselves or others. How does your textbook view most of these tests?

a. They are reliable.
b. They are for entertainment only.
c. They are informative and educational.
d. They are valid.

 

26. Which of the following is used to measure electrical activity in the brain?

a. an electroencephalograph
b. an electrocardiograph
c. an electromyogram
d. an electroencephalogram

 

27. What do we call the process of determining whether an individual’s symptoms meet the criteria for a specific psychological disorder?

a. prognosis
b. diagnosis
c. analysis
d. classification

 

28. In studies using fMRI, how did post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) participants who report primarily dissociative (numbing-type) responses to listening to scripts about their traumas compare to PTSD participants who experienced primarily hyperarousal patterns to trauma scripts?

a. They had more atrophied parts of the brain.
b. They had less electrical activity in the limbic system.
c. They had slower and more irregular delta waves.
d. They had very different patterns of brain activation.

 

29. How does the fMRI procedure differ from the traditional MRI?

a. The fMRI procedure uses X-rays to show the brain from different angles.
b. The fMRI procedure measures brain metabolism.
c. The fMRI procedure measures brain wave activity.
d. The fMRI procedure can take pictures of the brain at work, recording changes from one second to the next.

 

30. If an assessment is shown to measure what it is intended to measure, it can be said to be which of the following?

a. reliable
b. sensitive
c. standardized
d. valid

 

31. For what purpose does the process of clinical assessment result in narrowing the focus?

a. to consider a broad range of problems
b. to focus on “inter” and “intra” personal problems equally
c. to concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant
d. to uncover all possible causes of stress in the person’s life

 

32. On which scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) would you expect a remorseless, aggressive, and irresponsible person to get a high score?

a. paranoia scale
b. psychopathic deviation scale
c. psychasthenia scale
d. social deviation scale

 

33. How does the CAT scan neuroimaging technique work?

a. It uses X-rays to portray brain structures.
b. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain structures.
c. It follows tracer elements in the nervous system.
d. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain functions.

 

34. If two people are both diagnosed with the same disorder using the DSM 5, how will the two people be similar?

a. They will have experienced identical symptoms of the disorder.
b. They will have experienced similar distress as a result of the disorder.
c. They will have lost the ability to function in a similar way.
d. They will have some of the same symptoms as each other.

 

35. In a clinical interview, when does the law regarding privileged communication apply?

a. if the patient has mentioned thoughts of suicide
b. if the patient threatens to harm someone else
c. if the patient relates a history of sexual abuse
d. if the patient threatens to harm themselves

 

36. A patient who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of appetite received different diagnoses from several psychiatrists. In terms of assessment, what type of problem does this example illustrate?

a. a problem with classification
b. a problem with reliability
c. a problem with validity
d. a problem with standardization

 

37. A mother who is concerned about behavioural problems tells the clinician that her child has “an attitude.” Before diagnosing and treating the child, the psychologist would want to clarify what the mother means by “attitude.” What type of definition is the psychologist seeking?

a. a behavioural definition
b. an observational definition
c. an operational definition
d. a structured definition

 

38. What are the ABCs of behavioural observation?

a. antecedent, behaviour, consequences
b. affect, behaviour, consequences
c. antecedent, behaviour, causes
d. affect, behaviour, cognition

 

39. Which of the following medical conditions might also produce symptoms of behavioural disorders or symptoms that mimic psychological disorders?

a. hyperthyroidism
b. cocaine withdrawal
c. heart attack
d. fibromyalgia

 

40. When thinking about nosology, classical is to dimensional as:

a. symptoms is to prototypes
b. prototypes is to profiles
c. presence is to severity
d. individuals is to symptoms

 

41. Dr. Gallagher has decided to use a projective test on a client in order to explore the client’s unconscious. Why has Dr. Gallagher chosen a projective test in this case?

a. It is important to use tests that are structured, objective, and valid.
b. Many people are too embarrassed to reveal highly personal information openly.
c. By definition, unconscious processes can be measured only indirectly.
d. Clinical interviews are always insufficient to reveal a person’s problems.

 

42. An IQ test indicates a level of intelligence that closely corresponds with a student’s high school grades and with teachers’ ratings of the student’s intelligence. In this instance, what does this IQ test have?

a. concurrent validity
b. content validity
c. predictive validity
d. construct validity

 

43. Determining mood and affect is an important part of the mental status exam. Although both of these terms refer to feeling states of the individual, how does mood differ from affect?

a. Mood is more changeable than affect.
b. Mood is more frequent than affect.
c. Mood is more pervasive than affect.
d. Mood is more severe than affect.

 

44. Individuals who are conning and manipulative pathological liars would be unlikely to respond truthfully on a self-report measure of personality. Hare’s PCL-R is an instrument that measures the characteristics of psychopathy. What does Hare’s PCL-R use?

a. behavioural observation in the person’s natural environment
b. interviews with the client along with material from institutional files and people close to the person
c. projective tests to tap into unconscious processes
d. lie detector equipment along with a verbal form of the personality test

 

45. What is the primary purpose of structured and semi-structured interviews?

a. The standardized collection of necessary information allows for comparison with similar individuals.
b. They initiate treatment.
c. They increase confidentiality.
d. Engagement strategies are built in to help develop the therapist–client relationship.

 

46. Why might a mixed anxiety-depression diagnosis be considered for DSM inclusion?

a. because the disorder is theoretically sound
b. because the symptoms are often seen in primary-care settings
c. because the disorder is scientifically based
d. because the disorder has construct validity

 

47. What do the terms “taxonomy” and “nosology” refer to?

a. the classification of entities or disorders in a scientific context
b. the process of identifying specific psychological disorders
c. the process of testing the validity and reliability of a classification system
d. the measurement of changes in the nervous system

 

48. What have recent research studies used PET scans for?

a. to look at varying patterns of brain metabolism that might be associated with different disorders
b. to locate brain tumours and injuries
c. to detect tissue variations associated with different disorders
d. to locate abnormalities in the structure or shape of the brain

 

49. Dr. Gupta is a psychoanalytic therapist who wants to assess the unconscious thoughts and feelings of a patient. What type of test would Dr. Gupta most likely use?

a. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
b. the Rhythm Test
c. the MMPI
d. the Thematic Apperception Test

 

50. Dr. Harrison is conducting an mental status exam on Bradley. When he asks Bradley to talk about the death of his sister, Bradley begins to laugh uncontrollably. Based on this laughter, Dr. Harrison notes that Bradley is exhibiting inappropriate:

a. mood
b. affect
c. sensorium
d. behaviour

 

51. While taking the MMPI, James made an attempt to give himself an unrealistic positive image by falsifying answers and trying to appear as though he had no psychological problems. On which scale(s) would James most likely receive a high score?

a. L (Lie), K (Defensiveness, and F (Infrequency) scales only
b. F (Infrequency) scale only
c. K (Defensiveness) scale only
d. L (Lie) and K (Defensiveness) scales only

 

52. Which of the following is NOT part of a clinical assessment?

a. evaluation of financial factors
b. evaluation of biological factors
c. evaluation of social factors
d. evaluation of psychological factors

 

53. Sarah’s family doctor has suggested to her parents that they see a specialist to have a neuropsychological test completed. What is this type of test intended to do?

a. use imaging to assess brain structure and/or function
b. determine the possible contribution of brain damage to the person’s condition
c. ascertain the structure and patterns of cognition
d. assess long-standing patterns of behaviour

 

54. What have researchers found regarding the Weschler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) I and II?

a. There are significant gender differences on this test that are not observed on other IQ tests.
b. Scores on this test do not predict academic success well at all.
c. The WISC is fully “portable” across cultural boundaries.
d. A variety of factors can influence scores, including culture.

 

55. What important change was made in the DSM versions that followed DSM-III?

a. a change from a dimensional to a categorical system
b. the inclusion of the humanistic view of pathology
c. greater emphasis on validity and less concern for reliability
d. the lack of a presumed theoretical cause for each disorder

 

56. The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. What is the child’s score now compared to?

a. the scores of others who took the test at the same time
b. the scores of others in the same grade
c. the scores of others with the same level of intelligence
d. the scores of others of the same age

 

57. How is a mental status exam related to a clinical interview?

a. A mental status exam score is important information for hospitalizations.
b. A mental status exam is used to elicit spontaneous information that is not usually obtained in the interview.
c. A mental status exam is administered immediately following the interview.
d. A mental status exam is used to organize the information obtained during the interview.

 

58. What is the main difference between neuropsychological tests and neuroimaging techniques?

a. Neuropsychological tests help identify the location of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure and functioning of the brain.
b. Neuropsychological tests help identify the structure and functioning of the brain, whereas neuroimaging shows us the location of the brain dysfunction.
c. Neuropsychological tests help identify the nature of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the reasons for the brain dysfunction.
d. Neuropsychological tests help identify patterns of dysfunctional cognitions, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure of dysfunctional cognitions.

 

59. A clinician follows a general outline of questions designed to gather essential information but is free to ask the questions in any particular order and to branch off into other directions in order to follow up on clinically important information. What type of interview is being used in this example?

a. an unstructured interview
b. a structured interview
c. a behavioural interview
d. a semistructured interview

 

60. Which of the following is NOT a category covered in a mental status exam?

a. physical symptoms
b. behaviour
c. appearance
d. intellectual functioning

 

61. Dr. DuPont is researching an assessment instrument. Which of the following is she most likely conducting research on?

a. the MMPI
b. the TAT
c. the Rorschach inkblot test
d. the PCL-R

 

62. What has the “reactivity phenomenon” of self-monitoring procedures been shown to do?

a. increase desired behaviours
b. decrease undesired behaviours
c. increase emotional responses to external stressors
d. both increase desired behaviours and decrease undesired behaviours

 

63. What organization publishes the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders?

a. the International Medical Association
b. the American Psychological Association
c. the American Psychiatric Association
d. the National Institute of Mental Health

 

64. When an individual describes what he or she sees in the ambiguous stimuli of the Rorschach test, what is assumed to be revealed?

a. the person’s preconscious thoughts
b. the person’s unconscious thoughts
c. the person’s conscious thoughts
d. the person’s subconscious thoughts

 

65. Why are neuropsychological tests used?

a. to map blood flow and other metabolic activity in the brain
b. to help differentiate those who have a given cognitive disorder from those people who do not
c. to predict who will develop a specific cognitive disorder five or ten years later
d. to take accurate pictures of brain structure and function

 

66. What is used to assess results on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?

a. the correspondence between the individual’s pattern of answers and that of people diagnosed with a specific disorder
b. the frequency at which the individual refers to specific ideas, such as aggression or sexuality
c. the degree of emotionality associated with results
d. the frequency with which the individual responds to questions that reflect aggression or some other concept

 

67. You are attending a mental health lecture at your school when a heated debate erupts over the inclusion of premenstrual dysphoric disorder in the DSM. Why does this controversy exist?

a. because of issues related to religion
b. because of issues related to pregnancy and birth
c. because of issues related to stigmatization
d. because of issues related to racism

 

68. In contrast to projective tests, which rely heavily on theory for an interpretation, what are the MMPI and similar inventories based on?

a. skills a person needs to function in day-to-day life
b. clinical experience and intuition
c. the collection and evaluation of data
d. the person’s psychiatric and social history

 

69. What is a limitation of IQ tests?

a. They do not assess a person’s ability to adapt to the environment or generate new ideas.
b. They do not provide predictive validity with respect to academic success.
c. They do not measure abilities such as attention and memory.
d. They do not measure abilities such as reasoning and perception.

 

70. In a mental status exam, a clinician can make a rough estimate of the patient’s intellectual functioning. What does the clinician attempt to detect by listening to the patient’s speech?

a. the ability to talk about his or her problems logically and objectively
b. insight into his or her problems
c. the tendency to use abstractions and metaphors
d. the ability to speak slowly and clearly

 

71. If a clinician deviates from a structured interview, what type of assessment is he or she using?

a. a semistructured interview assessment
b. naturalistic observations
c. a conversational inventory assessment
d. an individual-engagement therapeutic assessment

 

72. Suppose a clinician creates criteria for a diagnosis that reflects what most experts in the field consider to be a particular prototypical patient. What is the clinician doing?

a. creating content validity
b. creating predictive validity
c. creating criteria validity
d. creating consensus validity

 

73. Dr. Klassen is a therapist who has chosen to employ the Thematic Apperception Test with one of his clients. What is the most likely reason for his decision?

a. He wants to encourage his client to talk more openly about their life during counseling sessions.
b. He wants to develop a comprehensive, empirically sound clinical intervention for his client.
c. He wants to allow his client to perform and score a private self-assessment.
d. He wants to use the test to diagnose the client.

 

74. Marguerite is tested for brain damage. Although her test results indicate that she has no brain damage, in reality she has a brain tumour. Her test results indicate a false negative. Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome?

a. Marguerite will become discouraged and put off following up on medical care.
b. Marguerite may end up paying for costly treatment that is not necessary.
c. Marguerite will not get the treatment she needs.
d. Marguerite may seek out an additional medical opinion.

 

75. Which of the following is a difficulty with diagnosing premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?

a. DiGuilio and Reissing (2006) found little evidence that PMDD is a distinct diagnostic entity.
b. Symptoms occur only during the late luteal phase and thus it does not qualify as a genuine endocrine disorder.
c. It is difficult to distinguish PMDD from premenstrual exacerbations of other disorders, such as binge eating disorder or mood disorders.
d. It has less severe symptomatology than premenstrual syndrome and thus does not warrant a DSM-IV diagnostic label.

 

76. What does the dimensional approach to classification of mental disorders provide that the categorical approach does not?

a. The dimensional system provides scales that indicate the degree to which patients are experiencing various cognitions, moods, and behaviours.
b. The dimensional system provides diagnostic labels based on the presence of specific symptoms.
c. The dimensional system provides lists of symptoms that are associated with all of the forms of psychopathology that are currently believed to exist.
d. The dimensional system provides information that is used to determine the cause and treatment of the disorder.

 

77. Which approach allows some variation in symptoms without changing classification?

a. a categorical approach
b. a dimensional approach
c. a multidimensional approach
d. a prototypical approach

 

78. Mr. Lopez, a 40-year-old recent immigrant to Canada, is learning to speak English. He applies for a job and is given a test. His score is compared to other test takers who are mostly college graduates whose native language is English. Mr. Lopez thinks this is unfair. What kind of problem does this situation illustrate?

a. a problem with classification
b. a problem with standardization
c. a problem with validity
d. a problem with reliability

 

79. What does the continuing controversy about the WAIS concern?

a. whether the WAIS tests have “portability” to people from other countries and cultures
b. whether the WAIS tests measure emotional intelligence
c. whether the WAIS tests measure distinct cognitive skills
d. whether the WAIS tests should be used with adults as well as children

 

80. Which technique would be appropriate if you wished to look for the location of possible damage in a client’s brain?

a. MMPI
b. PET scan
c. WAIS-III
d. a projective test

 

81. Dr. Evans conducts a study that showed his colleague’s “depression screener” doesn’t predict depressive symptoms. What is the problem with the depression screener?

a. validity
b. standardization
c. reliability
d. classification

 

82. Compared to informal observation, what is an advantage of formal observation?

a. Formal observations provide more perspective because they are written after an open-ended, out-of-office interview in a non-clinical setting.
b. Formal observations rarely require the use of naturalistic settings.
c. Formal observations are more reliable due to the focus on behaviours that are both observable and measurable.
d. Formal observations give more information about an individual because they require a three-hour minimum time commitment.

 

83. What type of disorder is the condition in the Inuit culture known as “kayak-angst”?

a. manic disorder
b. psychotic disorder
c. depressive disorder
d. anxiety disorder

 

84. Asking specific questions—such as “Who are you?” “Where are you?” and “What’s the weather like today?”—is an important part of a mental status exam. What component of the exam are such questions addressing?

a. the intellectual functioning component
b. the mood and affect component
c. the thought process component
d. the sensorium component

 

85. Your 70-year-old father is recounting a childhood story when he describes affectionately the boy down the street as an imbecile. You respond to your father by saying, in classifying mental disorders, we don’t use labels such as “moron,” “imbecile,” or “idiot” anymore. When he asks you why, how do you respond?

a. People will refuse treatment for mental disorders that have a negative connotation.
b. There were no effective treatments for these disorders in the past.
c. Mental health professionals are reluctant to assign a diagnosis that upsets people.
d. Labels can take on a negative meaning.

 

86. How do semistructured interviews differ from unstructured interviews?

a. In the semistructured format, clinicians develop their own methods of collecting necessary information; in the unstructured interview the clinician does not develop their own method of collecting unnecessary information.
b. In the semistructured format, clinicians try to keep the client from straying from specific issues identified by the therapist as essential; in the unstructured interview these rules are not in place.
c. In the semistructured format, clinicians rely on the organizational structure of a mental status exam; in the unstructured interview they do not use mental status exams.
d. In the semistructured format, clinicians use questions that have been tested to elicit useful information in a consistent manner; in the unstructured interview they do not.

 

87. With regard to a mental status exam, which of the following questions is NOT related to the concept of sensorium?

a. Who are you?
b. Where are you?
c. How old are you?
d. What is today’s date?

 

88. The Thematic Apperception Test differs from the Rorschach inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT is asked to use his or her imagination to do which of the following?

a. tell a complete story about a picture
b. tell how a descriptive sentence applies to him- or herself
c. identify the theme that is common to a set of pictures
d. speculate about the relationships between various people shown in a picture

 

89. With respect to monitoring procedures, which of the following is an example of the reactivity phenomenon?

a. On parents’ visiting day in a classroom, the previously well-behaved children continue to show good behaviour.
b. A man quits smoking after his father dies of lung cancer.
c. After joining a fitness club, a woman stops exercising in her home and instead walks two kilometres a day by herself.
d. A man begins to eat less after joining a clinic weight-loss program in which each participant’s weight is recorded weekly by a staff member.

 

90. Which of the following is a problem associated with a false positive result on a psychological test?

a. Damage that requires treatment is more likely to be overlooked.
b. Neurological damage may have been missed.
c. It may call for unnecessary and expensive further testing.
d. A person who should be concerned may have a false sense of well-being.

 

91. Accurate diagnoses are partly dependent on the reliability and validity of the diagnostic system being used (e.g., the DSM 5). What else does diagnostic accuracy depend on?

a. the patient’s ability to describe his or her symptoms clearly and honestly
b. the skills and training of the clinician
c. valid statistics regarding the prevalence of the disorder
d. the efficacy of treatments available for a given psychological disorder

 

92. On which MMPI scale would a pattern of responses indicating negative expectations about the motives of others and generalized distrust produce a high score?

a. Fears (FRS)
b. Psychopathic Deviation (Pd)
c. Bizarre Mentation (BIZ)
d. Cynicism (CYN)

 

93. What do we call the systematic evaluation of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person with a possible mental disorder?

a. clinical interpretation
b. clinical diagnosis
c. clinical assessment
d. clinical standardization

 

94. Dr. Ashton has assessed Mr. Tindale and sees that while Mr. Tindale knows his name and the date, he doesn’t know where he is. Dr. Ashton writes something in Mr. Tindale’s chart that the nurses are having trouble reading. What do you think Dr. Ashton wrote?

a. “patient oriented times one”
b. “patient oriented times two”
c. “patient oriented times three”
d. “patient sensorium clear”

 

95. James wants to examine brain wave patterns associated with psychological disorders, such as schizophrenia, and with physiological problems related to tumours and brain damage. What should James use?

a. a CAT scan
b. an EEG
c. a PET scan
d. an MRI

 

96. Which of the following is single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) most similar to in technique and purpose?

a. EEG
b. MRI
c. CAT
d. PET

 

97. The term “sensorium” refers to part of the mental status exam. What does sensorium mean?

a. a person’s impairment in visual or auditory functioning
b. a person’s general awareness of his or her surroundings
c. a person’s level of emotional sensitivity
d. a person’s ability to make reasonable judgments

 

98. If it were important to determine the exact location of brain impairment, which of the following would most likely be used?

a. the Gall Phrenological Brain Scan
b. the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
c. the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
d. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test

 

99. As part of a psychological assessment, a mental status exam is used to find out how a person thinks, feels, and behaves. However, what is the primary purpose of a mental status exam?

a. to determine what type of treatment should be used
b. to determine if a psychological disorder might be present
c. to determine whether the individual also has a medical condition
d. to determine which medication would be most effective

 

100. The DSM 5 is similar to the DSM –IV- R in which of the following ways?

a. It groups disorders by what causes them.
b. It specifies treatment for disorders.
c. The categories of disorders are very similar.
d. It uses a multiaxial approach to diagnosis.

 

 

101. Describe the concepts of reliability and validity. Why are the reliability and the validity of an assessment procedure important?

 

102. Describe the major objectives and procedures of clinical assessment. Be sure to include the typical activities of the assessor and the intended outcomes of the process.

 

103. Describe the influence of culture on the experience of psychopathology. Why is it important for the clinician to acknowledge and appreciate the patient’s culture before determining a diagnosis?

 

104. Describe the major objectives and typical procedures of the mental status exam. Be sure to include the typical activities of the examiner and the intended outcomes of the process.

 

105. Discuss the concept of confidentiality and the limits of confidentiality with regard to clinical assessment. Be sure to include the situations that would cause a clinician to break confidentiality.

 

106. Projective tests such as the Thematic Apperception Test and the original Rorschach inkblot test are often criticized with regard to their reliability. Explain why the reliability of these tests may not be as good as a personality measure such as the MMPI.

 

107. Discuss fully how behavioural assessment takes the clinical interview one step further. What kinds of clinical populations and clinical problems might be especially well suited for behavioural assessment? Explain how target behaviours are identified and observed, using an illustrative example.

 

108. A psychiatrist orders a series of tests including an IQ test, personality inventory (MMPI), neuropsychological test (Halstead-Reitan), and a brain scan (CT scan) for a ten-year-old boy who has recently been acting aggressively. Explain what each test measures and how the psychiatrist would use the results of each test to help diagnose or rule out potential causes of the boy’s behaviour.

 

109. Explain the difference between neuropsychological testing and neuroimaging. Describe the procedures involved in computerized axial tomography (CAT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and functional MRI (fMRI), and explain what each procedure allows us to examine.

 

110. Identify and describe the ABCs of observational assessment. Using illustrative examples, explain how informal observation differs from formal observation, and the strengths and weaknesses of each.

 

 

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1. What is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders?

a. a guide for training psychology students in assessment techniques
b. a textbook about the etiology of psychological disorders
c. a classification system for abnormal behaviour
d. an encyclopedia of treatment approaches for psychological disorders

 

2. Which of the following is a part of the intellectual functioning component of a mental status exam?

a. noting a person’s vocabulary
b. noting the appropriateness of a person’s attire
c. noting a person’s mood
d. noting the content of what a person is saying

 

3. What is the primary basis for a prognosis?

a. information about the course of the disorder in other individuals
b. clinical experience
c. the treatment options available to the patient
d. the client’s desire to reform

 

4. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI falsifies answers in order to look good. On which scale will he or she most likely have a high score?

a. Defensiveness (K)
b. Infrequency (F)
c. Inconsistency (I)
d. Lie (L)

 

5. What kind of test is the Stanford-Binet test?

a. a personality test
b. a projective test
c. an intelligence test
d. a mental status test

 

6. What does the classical categorical approach to diagnosis assume about each person with a particular disorder?

a. He or she will experience very few of the same symptoms.
b. He or she will respond to the same treatments equally.
c. He or she will be helped by recognizing the cause of the disorder.
d. He or she will experience the same symptoms with little or no variation.

 

7. If an assessment measures what it is intended to measure it is said to be considered to be which of the following?

a. valid
b. reliable
c. standardized
d. clinical

 

8. A clinician asks a child to sit at a desk in a simulated classroom situation to complete a difficult task. The clinician is using this technique to discover the reasons the child has been engaging in self-hitting (self-injurious) behaviour. In behavioural assessment terms, what type of behaviour has the self-hitting been identified as?

a. measurable behaviour
b. target behaviour
c. resultant behaviour
d. observable behaviour

 

9. One of the problems in using neuropsychological tests to detect organic damage and cognitive disorders involves the possibility of false negatives. Which of the following is most likely to result from a false negative?

a. A patients undergoes completely unnecessary and expensive procedures.
b. A clinician misses an important medical problem that needs to be treated.
c. A patient is diagnosed with a condition that does not exist.
d. Cell damage occurs due to repeated radiation exposure.

 

10. Why was the Comprehensive System for administering and scoring the Rorschach inkblot test developed?

a. because it was discovered that inter-rater reliability had increased significantly
b. because the previous scoring system was found to be difficult and time consuming
c. because Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his test was being administered
d. because there was a lack of standardized procedures, which can affect the way the test-taker responds to the questions

 

11. Why does the assessment concept known as reliability increase in the MMPI?

a. because the MMPI is often interpreted by computer
b. because the MMPI is non-sexist
c. because the MMPI is well researched
d. because the MMPI is made up of many scales

 

12. When Ms. Rath was seeking employment, a job consultant gave her a standard IQ test. The following year, the same consultant gave Ms. Rath the same IQ test. Ms. Rath’s score was similar on both occasions. What does this indicate?

a. The test has concurrent validity.
b. The test has long-term validity.
c. The test has inter-rater reliability.
d. The test has test-retest reliability.

 

13. Using a new diagnostic system, several clinicians interview a patient and independently provide the same diagnosis. The diagnosis may be different from the diagnosis that would be applied using an older diagnostic system. What can we assume about the new diagnostic system?

a. It appears to be standardized.
b. It appears to be reliable.
c. It appears to be normed.
d. It appears to be valid.

 

14. What are neuropsychological tests used to assess?

a. whether an individual might have had a psychotic episode
b. whether an individual might have a brain dysfunction
c. whether an individual might be intellectually disabled
d. whether an individual might be in a depressed state

 

15. Which of the following is a projective test?

a. the WAIS
b. the MMPI
c. the TAT
d. the MCMI

 

16. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI makes false claims about psychological problems. On which scale will he or she most likely obtain an elevated score?

a. Defensiveness (K)
b. Infrequency (F)
c. Inconsistency (I)
d. Lie (L)

 

17. Why is assessing psychophysiological responding very important in the assessment of many sexual dysfunctions and disorders?

a. because misdiagnosis of sexual disorders can be devastating for the patient
b. because it avoids having to ask patients direct and possibly embarrassing questions about their sexuality
c. because many people are unaware that they have a true sexual disorder
d. because sometimes the individual is unaware of his or her specific patterns of sexual arousal

 

18. What is one problem with projective tests?

a. They are often too rigid.
b. They make participants feel uncomfortable.
c. They are expensive to administer.
d. They are not standardized across clinicians.

 

19. In contrast to projective tests, personality inventories such as the MMPI are based on the collection and evaluation of data. What type of approach is this?

a. an analytic approach
b. a predictive approach
c. an empirical approach
d. a descriptive approach

 

20. Which neuroimaging device would be used to examine dopamine activity in individuals with bipolar disorder?

a. CAT
b. MRI
c. PET
d. TAT

 

21. Which of the following refers to an imaging technique that uses a radioactive tracer to measure the functioning of various parts of the brain?

a. a PET scan
b. a CT scan
c. a CAT scan
d. an MRI scan

 

22. What is considered the most significant difference between the DSM-IV-R to the DSM-5?

a. The axis system has been eliminated.
b. Several disorders, such as Asperger’s syndrome, have been eliminated.
c. Several disorders, such as gambling addiction, have been added.
d. The DSM 5 stipulates a treatment plan and not just a diagnosis.

 

23. Which of the following was a cause of problems with the original version of the MMPI?

a. the lack of standardized instructions for administration
b. clinicians’ subjective interpretations of scale scores
c. selective sampling for the standardization group and the biased wording of questions
d. low reliability and validity

 

24. Dr. Hall, a clinical psychologist, decides to conduct a behavioural assessment of five-year-old Sarah, instead of a clinical interview, after her parents report that she has had repeated and often physical conflicts with other children on the playground. Why is a behavioural assessment preferable in this case?

a. because the parents could be exaggerating the problem
b. because a structured interview might be too stressful for a young child
c. because young children are less able to verbally communicate their problems and experiences
d. because young children often deliberately withhold information from authority figures

 

25. Many popular magazines include “psychological” or “personality” tests to help readers better understand themselves or others. How does your textbook view most of these tests?

a. They are reliable.
b. They are for entertainment only.
c. They are informative and educational.
d. They are valid.

 

26. Which of the following is used to measure electrical activity in the brain?

a. an electroencephalograph
b. an electrocardiograph
c. an electromyogram
d. an electroencephalogram

 

27. What do we call the process of determining whether an individual’s symptoms meet the criteria for a specific psychological disorder?

a. prognosis
b. diagnosis
c. analysis
d. classification

 

28. In studies using fMRI, how did post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) participants who report primarily dissociative (numbing-type) responses to listening to scripts about their traumas compare to PTSD participants who experienced primarily hyperarousal patterns to trauma scripts?

a. They had more atrophied parts of the brain.
b. They had less electrical activity in the limbic system.
c. They had slower and more irregular delta waves.
d. They had very different patterns of brain activation.

 

29. How does the fMRI procedure differ from the traditional MRI?

a. The fMRI procedure uses X-rays to show the brain from different angles.
b. The fMRI procedure measures brain metabolism.
c. The fMRI procedure measures brain wave activity.
d. The fMRI procedure can take pictures of the brain at work, recording changes from one second to the next.

 

30. If an assessment is shown to measure what it is intended to measure, it can be said to be which of the following?

a. reliable
b. sensitive
c. standardized
d. valid

 

31. For what purpose does the process of clinical assessment result in narrowing the focus?

a. to consider a broad range of problems
b. to focus on “inter” and “intra” personal problems equally
c. to concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant
d. to uncover all possible causes of stress in the person’s life

 

32. On which scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) would you expect a remorseless, aggressive, and irresponsible person to get a high score?

a. paranoia scale
b. psychopathic deviation scale
c. psychasthenia scale
d. social deviation scale

 

33. How does the CAT scan neuroimaging technique work?

a. It uses X-rays to portray brain structures.
b. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain structures.
c. It follows tracer elements in the nervous system.
d. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain functions.

 

34. If two people are both diagnosed with the same disorder using the DSM 5, how will the two people be similar?

a. They will have experienced identical symptoms of the disorder.
b. They will have experienced similar distress as a result of the disorder.
c. They will have lost the ability to function in a similar way.
d. They will have some of the same symptoms as each other.

 

35. In a clinical interview, when does the law regarding privileged communication apply?

a. if the patient has mentioned thoughts of suicide
b. if the patient threatens to harm someone else
c. if the patient relates a history of sexual abuse
d. if the patient threatens to harm themselves

 

36. A patient who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of appetite received different diagnoses from several psychiatrists. In terms of assessment, what type of problem does this example illustrate?

a. a problem with classification
b. a problem with reliability
c. a problem with validity
d. a problem with standardization

 

37. A mother who is concerned about behavioural problems tells the clinician that her child has “an attitude.” Before diagnosing and treating the child, the psychologist would want to clarify what the mother means by “attitude.” What type of definition is the psychologist seeking?

a. a behavioural definition
b. an observational definition
c. an operational definition
d. a structured definition

 

38. What are the ABCs of behavioural observation?

a. antecedent, behaviour, consequences
b. affect, behaviour, consequences
c. antecedent, behaviour, causes
d. affect, behaviour, cognition

 

39. Which of the following medical conditions might also produce symptoms of behavioural disorders or symptoms that mimic psychological disorders?

a. hyperthyroidism
b. cocaine withdrawal
c. heart attack
d. fibromyalgia

 

40. When thinking about nosology, classical is to dimensional as:

a. symptoms is to prototypes
b. prototypes is to profiles
c. presence is to severity
d. individuals is to symptoms

 

41. Dr. Gallagher has decided to use a projective test on a client in order to explore the client’s unconscious. Why has Dr. Gallagher chosen a projective test in this case?

a. It is important to use tests that are structured, objective, and valid.
b. Many people are too embarrassed to reveal highly personal information openly.
c. By definition, unconscious processes can be measured only indirectly.
d. Clinical interviews are always insufficient to reveal a person’s problems.

 

42. An IQ test indicates a level of intelligence that closely corresponds with a student’s high school grades and with teachers’ ratings of the student’s intelligence. In this instance, what does this IQ test have?

a. concurrent validity
b. content validity
c. predictive validity
d. construct validity

 

43. Determining mood and affect is an important part of the mental status exam. Although both of these terms refer to feeling states of the individual, how does mood differ from affect?

a. Mood is more changeable than affect.
b. Mood is more frequent than affect.
c. Mood is more pervasive than affect.
d. Mood is more severe than affect.

 

44. Individuals who are conning and manipulative pathological liars would be unlikely to respond truthfully on a self-report measure of personality. Hare’s PCL-R is an instrument that measures the characteristics of psychopathy. What does Hare’s PCL-R use?

a. behavioural observation in the person’s natural environment
b. interviews with the client along with material from institutional files and people close to the person
c. projective tests to tap into unconscious processes
d. lie detector equipment along with a verbal form of the personality test

 

45. What is the primary purpose of structured and semi-structured interviews?

a. The standardized collection of necessary information allows for comparison with similar individuals.
b. They initiate treatment.
c. They increase confidentiality.
d. Engagement strategies are built in to help develop the therapist–client relationship.

 

46. Why might a mixed anxiety-depression diagnosis be considered for DSM inclusion?

a. because the disorder is theoretically sound
b. because the symptoms are often seen in primary-care settings
c. because the disorder is scientifically based
d. because the disorder has construct validity

 

47. What do the terms “taxonomy” and “nosology” refer to?

a. the classification of entities or disorders in a scientific context
b. the process of identifying specific psychological disorders
c. the process of testing the validity and reliability of a classification system
d. the measurement of changes in the nervous system

 

48. What have recent research studies used PET scans for?

a. to look at varying patterns of brain metabolism that might be associated with different disorders
b. to locate brain tumours and injuries
c. to detect tissue variations associated with different disorders
d. to locate abnormalities in the structure or shape of the brain

 

49. Dr. Gupta is a psychoanalytic therapist who wants to assess the unconscious thoughts and feelings of a patient. What type of test would Dr. Gupta most likely use?

a. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
b. the Rhythm Test
c. the MMPI
d. the Thematic Apperception Test

 

50. Dr. Harrison is conducting an mental status exam on Bradley. When he asks Bradley to talk about the death of his sister, Bradley begins to laugh uncontrollably. Based on this laughter, Dr. Harrison notes that Bradley is exhibiting inappropriate:

a. mood
b. affect
c. sensorium
d. behaviour

 

51. While taking the MMPI, James made an attempt to give himself an unrealistic positive image by falsifying answers and trying to appear as though he had no psychological problems. On which scale(s) would James most likely receive a high score?

a. L (Lie), K (Defensiveness, and F (Infrequency) scales only
b. F (Infrequency) scale only
c. K (Defensiveness) scale only
d. L (Lie) and K (Defensiveness) scales only

 

52. Which of the following is NOT part of a clinical assessment?

a. evaluation of financial factors
b. evaluation of biological factors
c. evaluation of social factors
d. evaluation of psychological factors

 

53. Sarah’s family doctor has suggested to her parents that they see a specialist to have a neuropsychological test completed. What is this type of test intended to do?

a. use imaging to assess brain structure and/or function
b. determine the possible contribution of brain damage to the person’s condition
c. ascertain the structure and patterns of cognition
d. assess long-standing patterns of behaviour

 

54. What have researchers found regarding the Weschler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) I and II?

a. There are significant gender differences on this test that are not observed on other IQ tests.
b. Scores on this test do not predict academic success well at all.
c. The WISC is fully “portable” across cultural boundaries.
d. A variety of factors can influence scores, including culture.

 

55. What important change was made in the DSM versions that followed DSM-III?

a. a change from a dimensional to a categorical system
b. the inclusion of the humanistic view of pathology
c. greater emphasis on validity and less concern for reliability
d. the lack of a presumed theoretical cause for each disorder

 

56. The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. What is the child’s score now compared to?

a. the scores of others who took the test at the same time
b. the scores of others in the same grade
c. the scores of others with the same level of intelligence
d. the scores of others of the same age

 

57. How is a mental status exam related to a clinical interview?

a. A mental status exam score is important information for hospitalizations.
b. A mental status exam is used to elicit spontaneous information that is not usually obtained in the interview.
c. A mental status exam is administered immediately following the interview.
d. A mental status exam is used to organize the information obtained during the interview.

 

58. What is the main difference between neuropsychological tests and neuroimaging techniques?

a. Neuropsychological tests help identify the location of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure and functioning of the brain.
b. Neuropsychological tests help identify the structure and functioning of the brain, whereas neuroimaging shows us the location of the brain dysfunction.
c. Neuropsychological tests help identify the nature of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the reasons for the brain dysfunction.
d. Neuropsychological tests help identify patterns of dysfunctional cognitions, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure of dysfunctional cognitions.

 

59. A clinician follows a general outline of questions designed to gather essential information but is free to ask the questions in any particular order and to branch off into other directions in order to follow up on clinically important information. What type of interview is being used in this example?

a. an unstructured interview
b. a structured interview
c. a behavioural interview
d. a semistructured interview

 

60. Which of the following is NOT a category covered in a mental status exam?

a. physical symptoms
b. behaviour
c. appearance
d. intellectual functioning

 

61. Dr. DuPont is researching an assessment instrument. Which of the following is she most likely conducting research on?

a. the MMPI
b. the TAT
c. the Rorschach inkblot test
d. the PCL-R

 

62. What has the “reactivity phenomenon” of self-monitoring procedures been shown to do?

a. increase desired behaviours
b. decrease undesired behaviours
c. increase emotional responses to external stressors
d. both increase desired behaviours and decrease undesired behaviours

 

63. What organization publishes the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders?

a. the International Medical Association
b. the American Psychological Association
c. the American Psychiatric Association
d. the National Institute of Mental Health

 

64. When an individual describes what he or she sees in the ambiguous stimuli of the Rorschach test, what is assumed to be revealed?

a. the person’s preconscious thoughts
b. the person’s unconscious thoughts
c. the person’s conscious thoughts
d. the person’s subconscious thoughts

 

65. Why are neuropsychological tests used?

a. to map blood flow and other metabolic activity in the brain
b. to help differentiate those who have a given cognitive disorder from those people who do not
c. to predict who will develop a specific cognitive disorder five or ten years later
d. to take accurate pictures of brain structure and function

 

66. What is used to assess results on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?

a. the correspondence between the individual’s pattern of answers and that of people diagnosed with a specific disorder
b. the frequency at which the individual refers to specific ideas, such as aggression or sexuality
c. the degree of emotionality associated with results
d. the frequency with which the individual responds to questions that reflect aggression or some other concept

 

67. You are attending a mental health lecture at your school when a heated debate erupts over the inclusion of premenstrual dysphoric disorder in the DSM. Why does this controversy exist?

a. because of issues related to religion
b. because of issues related to pregnancy and birth
c. because of issues related to stigmatization
d. because of issues related to racism

 

68. In contrast to projective tests, which rely heavily on theory for an interpretation, what are the MMPI and similar inventories based on?

a. skills a person needs to function in day-to-day life
b. clinical experience and intuition
c. the collection and evaluation of data
d. the person’s psychiatric and social history

 

69. What is a limitation of IQ tests?

a. They do not assess a person’s ability to adapt to the environment or generate new ideas.
b. They do not provide predictive validity with respect to academic success.
c. They do not measure abilities such as attention and memory.
d. They do not measure abilities such as reasoning and perception.

 

70. In a mental status exam, a clinician can make a rough estimate of the patient’s intellectual functioning. What does the clinician attempt to detect by listening to the patient’s speech?

a. the ability to talk about his or her problems logically and objectively
b. insight into his or her problems
c. the tendency to use abstractions and metaphors
d. the ability to speak slowly and clearly

 

71. If a clinician deviates from a structured interview, what type of assessment is he or she using?

a. a semistructured interview assessment
b. naturalistic observations
c. a conversational inventory assessment
d. an individual-engagement therapeutic assessment

 

72. Suppose a clinician creates criteria for a diagnosis that reflects what most experts in the field consider to be a particular prototypical patient. What is the clinician doing?

a. creating content validity
b. creating predictive validity
c. creating criteria validity
d. creating consensus validity

 

73. Dr. Klassen is a therapist who has chosen to employ the Thematic Apperception Test with one of his clients. What is the most likely reason for his decision?

a. He wants to encourage his client to talk more openly about their life during counseling sessions.
b. He wants to develop a comprehensive, empirically sound clinical intervention for his client.
c. He wants to allow his client to perform and score a private self-assessment.
d. He wants to use the test to diagnose the client.

 

74. Marguerite is tested for brain damage. Although her test results indicate that she has no brain damage, in reality she has a brain tumour. Her test results indicate a false negative. Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome?

a. Marguerite will become discouraged and put off following up on medical care.
b. Marguerite may end up paying for costly treatment that is not necessary.
c. Marguerite will not get the treatment she needs.
d. Marguerite may seek out an additional medical opinion.

 

75. Which of the following is a difficulty with diagnosing premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?

a. DiGuilio and Reissing (2006) found little evidence that PMDD is a distinct diagnostic entity.
b. Symptoms occur only during the late luteal phase and thus it does not qualify as a genuine endocrine disorder.
c. It is difficult to distinguish PMDD from premenstrual exacerbations of other disorders, such as binge eating disorder or mood disorders.
d. It has less severe symptomatology than premenstrual syndrome and thus does not warrant a DSM-IV diagnostic label.

 

76. What does the dimensional approach to classification of mental disorders provide that the categorical approach does not?

a. The dimensional system provides scales that indicate the degree to which patients are experiencing various cognitions, moods, and behaviours.
b. The dimensional system provides diagnostic labels based on the presence of specific symptoms.
c. The dimensional system provides lists of symptoms that are associated with all of the forms of psychopathology that are currently believed to exist.
d. The dimensional system provides information that is used to determine the cause and treatment of the disorder.

 

77. Which approach allows some variation in symptoms without changing classification?

a. a categorical approach
b. a dimensional approach
c. a multidimensional approach
d. a prototypical approach

 

78. Mr. Lopez, a 40-year-old recent immigrant to Canada, is learning to speak English. He applies for a job and is given a test. His score is compared to other test takers who are mostly college graduates whose native language is English. Mr. Lopez thinks this is unfair. What kind of problem does this situation illustrate?

a. a problem with classification
b. a problem with standardization
c. a problem with validity
d. a problem with reliability

 

79. What does the continuing controversy about the WAIS concern?

a. whether the WAIS tests have “portability” to people from other countries and cultures
b. whether the WAIS tests measure emotional intelligence
c. whether the WAIS tests measure distinct cognitive skills
d. whether the WAIS tests should be used with adults as well as children

 

80. Which technique would be appropriate if you wished to look for the location of possible damage in a client’s brain?

a. MMPI
b. PET scan
c. WAIS-III
d. a projective test

 

81. Dr. Evans conducts a study that showed his colleague’s “depression screener” doesn’t predict depressive symptoms. What is the problem with the depression screener?

a. validity
b. standardization
c. reliability
d. classification

 

82. Compared to informal observation, what is an advantage of formal observation?

a. Formal observations provide more perspective because they are written after an open-ended, out-of-office interview in a non-clinical setting.
b. Formal observations rarely require the use of naturalistic settings.
c. Formal observations are more reliable due to the focus on behaviours that are both observable and measurable.
d. Formal observations give more information about an individual because they require a three-hour minimum time commitment.

 

83. What type of disorder is the condition in the Inuit culture known as “kayak-angst”?

a. manic disorder
b. psychotic disorder
c. depressive disorder
d. anxiety disorder

 

84. Asking specific questions—such as “Who are you?” “Where are you?” and “What’s the weather like today?”—is an important part of a mental status exam. What component of the exam are such questions addressing?

a. the intellectual functioning component
b. the mood and affect component
c. the thought process component
d. the sensorium component

 

85. Your 70-year-old father is recounting a childhood story when he describes affectionately the boy down the street as an imbecile. You respond to your father by saying, in classifying mental disorders, we don’t use labels such as “moron,” “imbecile,” or “idiot” anymore. When he asks you why, how do you respond?

a. People will refuse treatment for mental disorders that have a negative connotation.
b. There were no effective treatments for these disorders in the past.
c. Mental health professionals are reluctant to assign a diagnosis that upsets people.
d. Labels can take on a negative meaning.

 

86. How do semistructured interviews differ from unstructured interviews?

a. In the semistructured format, clinicians develop their own methods of collecting necessary information; in the unstructured interview the clinician does not develop their own method of collecting unnecessary information.
b. In the semistructured format, clinicians try to keep the client from straying from specific issues identified by the therapist as essential; in the unstructured interview these rules are not in place.
c. In the semistructured format, clinicians rely on the organizational structure of a mental status exam; in the unstructured interview they do not use mental status exams.
d. In the semistructured format, clinicians use questions that have been tested to elicit useful information in a consistent manner; in the unstructured interview they do not.

 

87. With regard to a mental status exam, which of the following questions is NOT related to the concept of sensorium?

a. Who are you?
b. Where are you?
c. How old are you?
d. What is today’s date?

 

88. The Thematic Apperception Test differs from the Rorschach inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT is asked to use his or her imagination to do which of the following?

a. tell a complete story about a picture
b. tell how a descriptive sentence applies to him- or herself
c. identify the theme that is common to a set of pictures
d. speculate about the relationships between various people shown in a picture

 

89. With respect to monitoring procedures, which of the following is an example of the reactivity phenomenon?

a. On parents’ visiting day in a classroom, the previously well-behaved children continue to show good behaviour.
b. A man quits smoking after his father dies of lung cancer.
c. After joining a fitness club, a woman stops exercising in her home and instead walks two kilometres a day by herself.
d. A man begins to eat less after joining a clinic weight-loss program in which each participant’s weight is recorded weekly by a staff member.

 

90. Which of the following is a problem associated with a false positive result on a psychological test?

a. Damage that requires treatment is more likely to be overlooked.
b. Neurological damage may have been missed.
c. It may call for unnecessary and expensive further testing.
d. A person who should be concerned may have a false sense of well-being.

 

91. Accurate diagnoses are partly dependent on the reliability and validity of the diagnostic system being used (e.g., the DSM 5). What else does diagnostic accuracy depend on?

a. the patient’s ability to describe his or her symptoms clearly and honestly
b. the skills and training of the clinician
c. valid statistics regarding the prevalence of the disorder
d. the efficacy of treatments available for a given psychological disorder

 

92. On which MMPI scale would a pattern of responses indicating negative expectations about the motives of others and generalized distrust produce a high score?

a. Fears (FRS)
b. Psychopathic Deviation (Pd)
c. Bizarre Mentation (BIZ)
d. Cynicism (CYN)

 

93. What do we call the systematic evaluation of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person with a possible mental disorder?

a. clinical interpretation
b. clinical diagnosis
c. clinical assessment
d. clinical standardization

 

94. Dr. Ashton has assessed Mr. Tindale and sees that while Mr. Tindale knows his name and the date, he doesn’t know where he is. Dr. Ashton writes something in Mr. Tindale’s chart that the nurses are having trouble reading. What do you think Dr. Ashton wrote?

a. “patient oriented times one”
b. “patient oriented times two”
c. “patient oriented times three”
d. “patient sensorium clear”

 

95. James wants to examine brain wave patterns associated with psychological disorders, such as schizophrenia, and with physiological problems related to tumours and brain damage. What should James use?

a. a CAT scan
b. an EEG
c. a PET scan
d. an MRI

 

96. Which of the following is single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) most similar to in technique and purpose?

a. EEG
b. MRI
c. CAT
d. PET

 

97. The term “sensorium” refers to part of the mental status exam. What does sensorium mean?

a. a person’s impairment in visual or auditory functioning
b. a person’s general awareness of his or her surroundings
c. a person’s level of emotional sensitivity
d. a person’s ability to make reasonable judgments

 

98. If it were important to determine the exact location of brain impairment, which of the following would most likely be used?

a. the Gall Phrenological Brain Scan
b. the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
c. the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
d. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test

 

99. As part of a psychological assessment, a mental status exam is used to find out how a person thinks, feels, and behaves. However, what is the primary purpose of a mental status exam?

a. to determine what type of treatment should be used
b. to determine if a psychological disorder might be present
c. to determine whether the individual also has a medical condition
d. to determine which medication would be most effective

 

100. The DSM 5 is similar to the DSM –IV- R in which of the following ways?

a. It groups disorders by what causes them.
b. It specifies treatment for disorders.
c. The categories of disorders are very similar.
d. It uses a multiaxial approach to diagnosis.

 

 

101. Describe the concepts of reliability and validity. Why are the reliability and the validity of an assessment procedure important?

 

102. Describe the major objectives and procedures of clinical assessment. Be sure to include the typical activities of the assessor and the intended outcomes of the process.

 

103. Describe the influence of culture on the experience of psychopathology. Why is it important for the clinician to acknowledge and appreciate the patient’s culture before determining a diagnosis?

 

104. Describe the major objectives and typical procedures of the mental status exam. Be sure to include the typical activities of the examiner and the intended outcomes of the process.

 

105. Discuss the concept of confidentiality and the limits of confidentiality with regard to clinical assessment. Be sure to include the situations that would cause a clinician to break confidentiality.

 

106. Projective tests such as the Thematic Apperception Test and the original Rorschach inkblot test are often criticized with regard to their reliability. Explain why the reliability of these tests may not be as good as a personality measure such as the MMPI.

 

107. Discuss fully how behavioural assessment takes the clinical interview one step further. What kinds of clinical populations and clinical problems might be especially well suited for behavioural assessment? Explain how target behaviours are identified and observed, using an illustrative example.

 

108. A psychiatrist orders a series of tests including an IQ test, personality inventory (MMPI), neuropsychological test (Halstead-Reitan), and a brain scan (CT scan) for a ten-year-old boy who has recently been acting aggressively. Explain what each test measures and how the psychiatrist would use the results of each test to help diagnose or rule out potential causes of the boy’s behaviour.

 

109. Explain the difference between neuropsychological testing and neuroimaging. Describe the procedures involved in computerized axial tomography (CAT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and functional MRI (fMRI), and explain what each procedure allows us to examine.

 

110. Identify and describe the ABCs of observational assessment. Using illustrative examples, explain how informal observation differs from formal observation, and the strengths and weaknesses of each.

 

111. Labelling a patient with a diagnosis is often referred to as a “double-edged sword,” as the diagnostic label can both help and hurt the patient. Explain the advantages and disadvantages (to the patient) of a diagnostic label.

 

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1. Paula has chronic pain and does not want to rely on analgesics. Based on current research, what can Paula combine with biofeedback to effectively treat her pain?

a. medication
b. psychotherapy
c. a placebo
d. relaxation procedures

 

2. What did some experiments with rats reveal about postsurgical pain in rats?

a. It actually kills certain cancer cells.
b. It causes stress but is unrelated to the subsequent progress of the disease.
c. It doubles the rate at which a certain cancer spreads to the lungs.
d. It speeds recovery.

 

3. Carlson and colleagues (2004) conducted research on the use of “mindfulness-based therapy” with early-stage breast and prostate cancer patients. They found post-intervention improvements in several areas. Which of the following is NOT one of these areas?

a. beneficial changes in biological indices of immune system function
b. increases in problem-solving skills
c. increases in quality of life
d. decreases in stress

 

4. According to the principles of health psychology, what is the best protection against acquiring AIDS?

a. choosing sexual abstinence even after years of being sexually active
b. being treated for HIV before it develops into AIDS
c. changing risky behaviours that can lead to disease acquisition
d. getting an injection of the AIDS vaccine

 

5. Hannah is sitting quietly. She is focused on a mantra and softly repeats the sound “om” as her breathing slows and her body relaxes. What is Hannah engaging in?

a. progressive muscle relaxation
b. biofeedback
c. transcendental meditation
d. personal progressive relaxation

 

6. Which of the following may occur as a result of increased cortisol levels in response to chronic stress?

a. liver damage
b. decreased susceptibility to infectious disease
c. compromised hippocampal activity
d. a rise in humoral levels

 

7. In which of the following cases is six-year-old Madison most likely to maintain the safety skills she learned for riding her bicycle?

a. if assessments of her safety skills are continued
b. if the bicycle is equipped with the latest safety technology
c. if she rides her bicycle every day instead of just occasionally
d. if she is warned repeatedly by parents and teachers

 

8. In the mid-19th century, what disorder was thought to cause symptoms of fatigue, vague aches and pains, low-grade fever, and lack of energy?

a. somatic syndrome
b. neurasthenia
c. neurosis
d. hysteria

 

9. Changes in the sensory cortex of the brain are thought to contribute to phantom limb pain, in which people who have lost an arm or leg feel excruciating pain in the limb that is no longer there. Which of the following is most likely an additional factor in the intensity of pain and distress experienced?

a. the avoidance of activity that leads to muscular atrophy
b. the chronic experience of negative emotions
c. the belief that pain is disastrous, uncontrollable, or reflective of personal failure
d. the fear of additional injury or disease

 

10. In keeping daily records of the stressful events in their lives, patients in pain management programs are taught to be very specific about certain issues. Which of the following is one of these issues?

a. how they attempted to control the stress
b. how others reacted to the stress
c. body temperature changes as a result of the stress
d. what seems to trigger the stress

 

11. What did a review of the literature on the effectiveness of group therapy for HIV-positive individuals conclude?

a. Although further study is needed, psychosocial interventions are helpful for enhancing psychosocial functioning but have no effect on physical functioning such as immune system activity.
b. Although further study is needed, there seem to be positive effects in patients with advanced-stage disease, but no effects have been observed in those in a very early, asymptomatic stage of the disease.
c. Although further study is needed, group interventions have produced no noticeable improvements in either physical or psychological functioning of these patients.
d. Although further study is needed, there seem to be positive changes in immune and endocrine activity associated with structured group interventions.

 

12. Which of the following is a known connection between emotion and health?

a. People who are depressed have increased immune system functioning.
b. The evidence suggests that depression lowers immune system functioning.
c. People who are anxious have reduced immune system function.
d. Anger is associated with reduced immune system function.

 

13. Studies that have examined neurobiological causes of hypertension have focused on two factors that are central to the regulation of blood pressure. What are these factors?

a. autonomic nervous system activity and the cardiovascular response to stress
b. the cerebellum and the flight-or-flight response of the sympathetic nervous system
c. the limbic system and the fight-or-flight response of the sympathetic nervous system
d. autonomic nervous system activity and mechanisms regulating sodium in the kidneys

 

14. Jane is a frequent user of pain-relieving medications. Jill uses pain-relieving medications less frequently. How will the two women respond to pain-management programs?

a. both are equally likely to benefit.
b. Jane will be unable to benefit.
c. Jane is more likely to benefit.
d. Jane is less likely to benefit.

 

15. Justin has been under a lot of stress. His body is beginning to shows signs of having too much cortisol.  Which symptoms might Justin be showing?

a. impaired immune system functioning
b. muscle tension
c. damage to the amygdala
d. low blood pressure in the cardiovascular system

 

16. Marek’s parents have high blood pressure. How does Marek’s risk of developing high blood pressure compare to that of children whose parents don’t have high blood pressure?

a. his risk is marginally higher
b. he has twice the risk
c. he has three times the risk
d. he has four times the risk

 

17. In the 1989 massive antismoking campaign in China, the results indicated that 12 percent of the 10 000 fathers in the intervention group quit smoking for at least six months. In a control group of 10 000, how many quit smoking?

a. 0.1 percent
b. 0.2 percent
c. 2.2 percent
d. 4.0 percent

 

18. Mr. Tam is a pain catastrophizer. Which of the following would he NOT likely report when he is experiencing pain?

a. “There’s nothing I can do to stop this pain.”
b. “I can’t stop thinking of how much it hurts.”
c. “I’m worried that something serious might happen.”
d. “If I can’t deal with this, I’m not strong enough to deal with anything else in my life either.”

 

19. Various psychological factors have been implicated in chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS). For example, in examining the role of cognitive factors in the psychological adjustment to the illness of patients with CFS, researchers found that feelings of helplessness and depression were associated with another factor. What is this other factor?

a. perceiving the cause of CFS as external and believing that there is no cure for CFS
b. believing that CFS is just “in one’s head” and believing that there is no cure for CFS
c. perceiving the cause of CFS as external and believing that one has no control over the disorder
d. perceiving the cause of CFS as internal and believing that one has no control over the illness

 

20. Which of the following was NOT a feature of the HIV prevention intervention program implemented by Fisher and colleagues (2002) for high school students?

a. recommending sexual abstinence as the only way to prevent HIV transmission
b. changing students’ attitudes and social norms about HIV risk and prevention
c. factual information about HIV transmission and prevention
d. training in effectively communicating about safer sex

 

21. What change in public health led to the shift being referred to as the second revolution?

a. the focus from infectious disease shifted to life-threatening illnesses such as cancer
b. the focus from infectious disease shifted to sexually transmitted infections
c. the focus from infectious disease shifted to psychological and behavioural factors affecting health
d. the focus from infectious disease shifted to the cultural and political context of health issues

 

22. Dr. Beilfus is a researcher specializing in psycho-oncology. What is her area of interest?

a. the psychosocial causes of cancer
b. the psychosocial characteristics of cancer patients
c. the psychosocial treatments for cancer
d. the psychosocial influences on different varieties of cancer

 

23. Which of the following factors would make a person feel more pain according to the gate control theory of pain?

a. anxiety
b. drug use
c. relaxation
d. a type A personality

 

24. Fisher and colleagues (2002) conducted and assessed three school-based HIV prevention interventions with high school students, which focused on knowledge, motivation, behavioural skills, and actual behaviour. What did they determine to be of great importance in preventing HIV in youth?

a. presence of positive role models
b. interventions that emphasized total abstention from sex
c. purely educational interventions as opposed to psychologically oriented interventions
d. adding psychological techniques to educational efforts

 

25. When is a person infected with HIV most likely to receive an AIDS diagnosis?

a. after the infection is discovered
b. upon the development of AIDS-related complex
c. only after the development of one of several serious diseases (e.g., wasting syndrome)
d. when the physician decides that they are psychologically prepared for the diagnosis

 

26. Which of the following students is most likely to have a suppressed immune system?

a. Beth, who has many friends and is returning from a relaxing vacation
b. Karen, who has few friends and is returning from a relaxing vacation
c. Alison, who has few friends and is finishing final exams
d. Wendy, who has many friends and is finishing final exams

 

27. John and Lily, two young adults who live in different cities and do not know each other, have both learned recently that they are HIV positive, following sexual intercourse with an infected partner. What does research by Landis and colleagues (1992) suggest is the most likely to occur with respect to John’s and Lily’s behaviour in the future?

a. Both John and Lily will now abstain from sex.
b. Both John and Lily will be sure to tell future sexual partners that they are HIV positive.
c. Both John and Lily will continue to have unprotected sex.
d. John will abstain from sex, but Lily will continue to have sex.

 

28. What is the focus of psychoneuroimmunology?

a. the study of methods in which damaged or severed neurons can be stimulated to regrow
b. the study of the relationships among stressors, the endocrine system, the nervous system, and the immune system
c. the study of various biochemical approaches to protecting the central nervous system from the ravages of deterioration disorders
d. the study of the psychological side effects of physical illnesses

 

29. Hannah just had a rush of endorphins. What are the endorphins doing in her body?

a. They are shutting down the sensation of pain.
b. They are closing the “gate” of the spinal column, inhibiting the transmission of painful stimuli to the brain.
c. They are increasing positive feelings that make the pain seem less important.
d. They are causing a “natural” addiction to pain.

 

30. According to Scheier and colleagues (1989), how can a person who undergoes coronary artery bypass surgery recover more quickly and achieve a stronger quality of life six months after surgery?

a. by denying the severe pain connected with the condition and the surgery
b. by playing a more aggressive role in the management of the illness
c. by being optimistic
d. by avoiding traditional treatment regimens or rehabilitation programs

 

31. Some studies indicate that the value of denial as a coping mechanism for illness may depend on one thing more than anything else. What is it?

a. the gender of the patient
b. the type of illness
c. the severity of the illness
d. timing

 

32. According to your textbook, stressful events can make us feel irritable, excited, anxious, or depressed. Why are so many different reactions possible?

a. Responses to cortisol varies from person to person.
b. They are associated with distinct physiological characteristics.
c. They share a similar underlying physiology.
d. The response to stress depends on the emotional state before the stressful event.

 

33. Von Bayer and colleagues (2006) compared the effectiveness of two different strategies to help children manage pain. They found that for younger children, a strategy in which children were prompted to direct their attention toward their internal sensations was less effective than another strategy. What was this other strategy?

a. being directed to engage in progressive relaxation exercises
b. being directed to talk about their pain to a supportive adult
c. being directed to distract themselves and focus their attention externally
d. being directed to engage in slow, deep breathing

 

34. In Sharpe’s chronic fatigue syndrome model, key lifestyle attributes were identified. Which of the following was an identified lifestyle?

a. asks for help
b. prefers solitary work projects
c. puts on a brave face
d. poor work ethic

 

35. One of the most successful efforts to reduce risk factors for a medical condition involved three entire communities in California, in which residents received one of three different types of interventions or no intervention at all. What was the targeted condition in this effort?

a. heart disease
b. cancer
c. obesity
d. diabetes

 

36. In 1989, health professionals in China began a massive antismoking effort in several cities, which involved children whose fathers smoked. Which of the following did NOT occur as part of this effort?

a. Children wrote letters to their fathers asking them to quit smoking.
b. Children submitted monthly reports on their fathers’ smoking habits to their schools.
c. Photos of the fathers who continued smoking were published in the school newspapers.
d. Schoolchildren were given antismoking literature and questionnaires to take home to their fathers.

 

37. What happens when the HPA axis is activated?

a. The adrenal glands secrete the stress hormone cortisol.
b. The hippocampus secretes corticotropin releasing factor (CRF).
c. The pituitary gland (via the parasympathetic nervous system) activates the adrenal glands.
d. CRF stimulates the thyroid gland.

 

38. Which of the following is one of the important items in the comprehensive pain management programs’ daily stress record?

a. parasympathetic reactions
b. empathetic reactions
c. angry reactions
d. triggers

 

39. Dr. Thick is observing a troop of baboons and taking regular blood samples from them. The dominant male baboon Dr. Thick calls “Rafiki” has just shown a much greater increase in cortisol than any of the other males in the troop. Dr. Thick is not surprised because of something that happened about half an hour earlier. What might Dr. Thick have seen?

a. Rafiki was challenged.
b. The troop was given less food at their regular feeding that usual.
c. Lightening struck a tree in the habitat and one baboon was injured.
d. Rafiki was bullied by a group of subordinate males.

 

40. You and your friend Bob are both in your late 30s. Bob informs you that he has been diagnosed with the silent killer. What health-related issue does he have?

a. HIV
b. lung cancer
c. diabetes
d. hypertension

 

41. In the 1960s, Neal Miller produced the first experimental evidence suggesting physiological functions were subject to voluntary control. What did he use?

a. obedience training with animals
b. operant conditioning with animals
c. physical retraining with animals
d. classical conditioning with animals

 

42. How many causes of death in children in Canada are more common than injuries?

a. none
b. one
c. three
d. five

 

43. Eric has a very stressful job. What part of his body may be damaged by increased cortisol released because of the stress?

a. his lungs
b. his stomach
c. his brain
d. his intestines

 

44. In 1936, Canadian researcher Hans Selye discovered that giving injections to laboratory rats caused them to develop ulcers. His finding led to a new area of study. What is it called?

a. psychosomatic pathology
b. stress physiology
c. animal psychology
d. stress psychology

 

45. Meyer and colleagues (1980) conducted a community study in California to reduce the risk factors for coronary heart disease. What did the results indicate as the most effective aspect of intervention?

a. hiring research assistants to monitor each participant’s daily behaviours
b. a media education campaign aimed at the children of parents at risk for heart disease
c. paying individuals to change their risky behaviours
d. individual counselling in addition to a media campaign about heart disease

 

46. In the 1970s, Herbert Benson developed a brief relaxation procedure. What did this procedure involve?

a. focusing on a word
b. focusing on an image of a face
c. focusing on a musical note
d. focusing on an image of nature

 

47. Which of the following is NOT likely to bring about changes in “risky” behaviours for individuals who are at risk for HIV/AIDS?

a. distribution of educational and informational pamphlets about the disease
b. cognitive-behavioural self-management training
c. the development of an effective social support network
d. a comprehensive behaviour change program

 

48. What is biofeedback?

a. It is a process of stress reduction requiring subjects to tense muscles in order to facilitate better relaxation.
b. It is a physiological monitoring device made to respond to changes in heart rate.
c. It is a process through which patients monitor their own physiological functions.
d. It is the process through which neurotransmitters are released into synaptic clefts.

 

49. Jim is asked to volunteer for a study to determine whether or not he is a “type A personality.” He is a keen academic. Based on his knowledge regarding personality types, he already knows he is the least likely man to be classified as type A. Which of the following profiles most likely describes Jim?

a. He is a white European man living in North America and practising the profession he has academically pursued for seven years.
b. He is a North American Japanese man, who speaks Japanese at home and retains traditional Japanese values and behaviours.
c. He is a black North American man, well established in his professional job and university education.
d. He is a married white North American man, well established in his professional job and university education.

 

50. Harold dies at age six. What is the most likely cause of his death?

a. cancer
b. injury
c. genetic defect
d. infectious disease

 

51. A patient has a stress-related physical disorder. How should a health psychologist who uses behaviour modification procedures begin when treating the patient?

a. by helping the patient enhance motivation to change unhealthy behaviours
b. by relieving the patient’s depression enough that the patient can fully attend to the therapy
c. by medicating the patient to relieve immediate symptoms
d. by educating the patient about the causes of the disorder and the factors that maintain it

 

52. In an effort to reduce sexual infections among inner-city black females, a program called SIHLE (Sistas Informing, Healing, Living, Empowering) was developed. Unlike other prevention programs, what was the focus of this program?

a. cognitive decision-making skills
b. building motivation through instilling pride
c. providing condoms
d. developing relationships with community health-care providers

 

53. Dr. Frode is studying how nerve endings may be involved in the immune system. What type of tissue could Dr. Frode be studying?

a. blood vessels
b. mucous membranes
c. hair follicles
d. bone marrow

 

54. Every year during the finals week in December, Judy would come down with a severe cold. It was the only cold she would get each year. What is the most likely explanation for this pattern of colds?

a. Cold viruses are most prevalent in December.
b. The stress of final exams left Judy more susceptible to colds.
c. Judy’s roommate caught a cold every December and gave it to Judy.
d. It is just a random pattern of colds.

 

55. What theory of pain accommodates both psychological and physical factors?

a. gate control theory of pain
b. psychophysiological pain theory
c. behavioural medicine theory
d. operant maintenance theory

 

56. Which of the following relationships is NOT reflected in the new medical specialty called “psychoneuroimmunology”?

a. the cardiovascular system
b. the nervous system
c. psychological factors including stress
d. the immune system

 

57. While Mr. Jones is participating in a clinical research study, he is instructed to imagine a situation in which he is very angry. What will the sensors monitoring his heart most likely reveal?

a. His heart is pumping less efficiently.
b. He is experiencing a mild, undetectable version of a heart attack.
c. His heart is beating faster but pumping more efficiently.
d. The area around his heart is becoming swollen and inflamed.

 

58. What appears to be the only effective prevention strategy currently available for reducing the spread of AIDS?

a. a vaccine
b. educating people about the risk of the disease
c. medications
d. changing high-risk behaviour

 

59. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways psychosocial interventions, such as stress-reduction techniques for chronically ill individuals, are thought to affect the disease process via the immune system?

a. giving patients a greater sense of control
b. changing patients’ negative cognitions
c. increasing patients’ self-esteem
d. helping patients utilize social support networks

 

60. Females may have an “extra” pain-regulating pathway focused on relieving pain associated with the reproductive system. What is one implication of this biological gender difference?

a. The psychological experience of pain is different for men and women.
b. Men need more pain relief than women following surgical procedures.
c. Males and females may benefit from different kinds of medications and different kinds of pain management.
d. Men experience more generalized pain than women do.

 

61. What type of stress may be more problematic for the immune system than acute stress, because the effects are longer lasting?

a. chronic stress
b. work-related stress
c. psychological stress
d. relationship stress

 

62. According to Antoni and colleagues (1991), when men who thought they might be HIV positive became involved in a stress-reduction program, what was the result?

a. no change in the progression of the disease
b. a significantly lower death rate as compared to those in the control group
c. an increase in immune system functioning
d. an increase in antibodies to herpes viruses

 

63. Jess is working hard on some informational pamphlets about reducing risks of acquiring HIV. She has studied the demographics at risk and has a flashy, appealing design to her pamphlet. What impact will her pamphlets likely have?

a. They will not cause a reduction in high-risk behaviours.
b. They will cause her target audience to abstain from unprotected sex.
c. They will cause a change in high-risk behaviours.
d. They will make it more likely for HIV-positive individuals to notify previous sex partners of their HIV condition.

 

64. Tara’s HPA axis was activated. Which chemical level just increased in her body?

a. corticotropin releasing factor (CRF)
b. high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
c. adrenal cortisol hormone (ACH)
d. cortisol

 

65. Paul is worried about cardiovascular disease because of a strong family history of heart problems.  Paul is already trying a stress-reduction intervention. His friend Mike, a doctor, suggests that something else may be just as effective. What does Mike recommend?

a. a cognitive-behavioural intervention
b. a mindfulness-based intervention
c. a dietary intervention
d. an exercise intervention

 

66. In trying to determine if the type A/type B classifications are reliable and valid as predictors of heart disease, which of the following becomes apparent?

a. Interviews to assess people’s personality characteristics are more reliable than questionnaires.
b. Medical tests remain the most valid predictors of heart disease.
c. Not every individual shows distinctively type A or type B characteristics.
d. Women are usually type A, and men are usually type B.

 

67. Why do clinicians use physiological monitoring equipment in biofeedback procedures?

a. to help the clinicians track changes in muscular tension
b. to make the responses visible and/or audible to the patient
c. to make the responses tactile to the patient
d. to ensure patients properly interpret the clinician’s instructions

 

68. What do we call the physiological response of an individual to a stressor?

a. stress
b. fight-or-flight reaction
c. resistance
d. adaptation

 

69. With regard to the epidemic of AIDS in Africa, when is an individual most likely to become HIV positive?

a. following homosexual sex with an infected partner
b. following repeated injections with unsterilized needles
c. following heterosexual sex with an infected partner
d. following close nonsexual contact with an infected person

 

70. Jamal is receiving biofeedback. Which of the following physiological functions will biofeedback enable him to monitor?

a. digestion
b. EEG rhythms (“brainwaves”)
c. sweating of the hands
d. blood pressure

 

71. In the behavioural change program to address the high rate of smoking in China, what was the most innovative aspect of that program?

a. It was the parents of smokers who intervened with their children to stop smoking.
b. It was the spouses of smokers who intervened with their partners to stop smoking.
c. It was the children of smokers who intervened with their fathers to stop smoking.
d. The government paid people to stop smoking.

 

72. Researchers studying baboons found that subordinate animals, unlike dominant animals, continually secrete cortisol, probably because their lives are so stressful. What did the researchers discover about the subordinate males’ HPA axis?

a. It is less sensitive to the effects of cortisol and therefore less efficient in turning off the stress response.
b. It is more sensitive to the effects of cortisol and therefore less efficient in turning off the stress response.
c. It is associated with an increased sensitivity of the pituitary gland.
d. It is associated with a decreased sensitivity of the pituitary gland.

 

73. According to Bongaarts and Over (2010), when did adult and child deaths from AIDS begin to level off because of aggressive treatment and prevention efforts in some parts of the world?

a. 2000
b. 2004
c. 2006
d. 2008

 

74. Cognitive therapy is used in stress management programs to help clients learn several techniques. Which of the following is one of these techniques?

a. assessing the role of their current relationships in their experience of stress
b. developing subjective descriptions of experiences
c. recording nonstressful situations
d. identifying unrealistic positive thoughts

 

75. Which type of pain is MORE common in men?

a. migraine headaches
b. arthritic pain
c. wrist and hand pain
d. back pain

 

76. What is the final process in the activation of the HPA axis?

a. stimulation of the pituitary gland by corticotropin releasing factor (CRF)
b. secretion of corticotropin releasing factor (CRF) by the hypothalamus
c. secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland
d. activation of the adrenal gland by the pituitary gland

 

77. What new field of study reflects the shift in focus from infectious disease to psychological/behavioural factors as causes of illness and death?

a. behavioural medicine
b. medical psychology
c. epidemiology
d. community psychology

 

78. Alan has cancer and is in pain. What treatment is Alan likely receiving?

a. more painkillers than can be safely taken
b. the safe dose of painkillers
c. insufficient amounts of painkillers to eliminate the pain
d. the safe dose of painkillers and mindfulness training

 

79. Garrett has HIV and participated in a study of “highly active antiretroviral therapy” (HAART) in 2003 but dropped out of the program. What is the most likely reason he dropped out of the study?

a. because of the expense of the medications
b. because improvement in symptoms was minimal, so he loss interest
c. because of the side effects of the medications
d. because he lacked adequate social support

 

80. If you were to look at the deaths of 100 people who died the same day, how many of those peoples’ deaths would be associated with lifestyle factors?

a. 10
b. 35
c. 50
d. 80

 

81. What is the closest estimate of the total number of people worldwide afflicted with HIV in 2011?

a. more than 14 million
b. more than 24 million
c. more than 34 million
d. more than 44 million

 

82. Which of the following is an example of the phenomenon known as “operant control” of pain behaviour?

a. Kim is recovering from a broken leg. Although she is walking on crutches, she has been trying to be as independent as possible.
b. Janet had to have a finger amputated after it was partially severed in a slicing accident. Since she feels discomfort in the missing finger, she has been diagnosed with phantom limb pain.
c. Kate’s family has always been critical and demanding. However, since her accident, family members have become caring and sympathetic.
d. Mary suffers from chronic back pain. However, she rarely complains to others about the pain and tries to keep her facial expressions from showing that she is in pain. Recently, her doctor reduced her pain medication.

 

83. In the phenomenon known as “operant control” of pain, what determines the pain behaviours manifested by an individual?

a. the patient’s reaction to treatment
b. the association of pain with a conditioned stimulus
c. social consequences
d. a sense of uncontrollability

 

84. What does research suggest is a common characteristic of both mental disorders and physical disorders?

a. Both types of disorders are primarily biological in nature.
b. Most mental and physical disorders involve the perception of pain.
c. Psychological, biological, and social factors all are implicated in the cause and maintenance of each type of disorder.
d. Both types of disorders are best treated with biological interventions.

 

85. Dr. Kwok runs a pain clinic. He notes that men are much more likely than women to visit his clinic because of:

a. arthritis
b. backache
c. migraine headaches
d. carpal-tunnel syndrome

 

86. What is biofeedback?

a. a process by which a person is helped to become aware of his or her negative thoughts
b. a process by which a person is helped to become aware of his or her physiological functions
c. a process by which a person is helped to become aware of his or her physiological and psychological states
d. a process by which a person is helped to become aware of his or her psychological states

 

87. Ping lives in China and recently helped with a massive antismoking campaign. What did she likely do?

a. Threatened to divorce her husband if he didn’t stop smoking.
b. Made an agreement with her spouse to stop smoking.
c. Received a bonus at work to employees because she quit smoking.
d. Reported her father’s smoking habits to her school principal.

 

88. One of the ways in which the immune system is weakened in AIDS patients is that the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) directly attacks certain lymphocytes. Which lymphocytes are these?

a. T4 (helper cells)
b. killer T cells
c. suppressor T cells
d. B cells

 

89. Hans Selye described the sequence of stages the body goes through in response to sustained stress. What is this sequence called?

a. the fight-or-flight syndrome
b. the general adaptation syndrome
c. the feedback loop syndrome
d. the mobilized coping syndrome

 

90. According to a Health Canada (1999) report on HIV prevention, what should Canadian schools focus on regarding sexual diseases?

a. Schools should continue to remain separate from community partners, leaving the health care experts to do their job.
b. The curriculum should be discontinued because it has had little overall effect on the attitudes, motivation, and sexual behaviour of young people.
c. Schools should expand the existing school sexual disease curriculum; it should be designed to be more broadly based and involve parents.
d. Schools should decrease or eliminate school curriculum covering sexual diseases; it has been negatively and erroneously taught to youth.

 

91. What is the long-term impact of denying an illness when you are first diagnosed?

a. It results in higher levels of corticosteroids (stress hormones) in the long term.
b. It is results in higher levels of opioids in the long term.
c. It enables the development of better coping mechanisms later.
d. It has a negative long-term impact on prognosis.

 

92. Psychologist Kim Lavoie and her colleagues (2004) noted that coronary heart disease (CHD) and another disorder often co-occur, and CHD patients with this additional disorder suffer greater morbidity and mortality rates than do CHD patients without it. What is the other disorder?

a. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. paranoid delusional disorder
d. panic disorder

 

93. Using the word “psychosomatic” to describe a disorder that has an obvious physical component is considered misleading. Why is this so?

a. It gives the impression that biological disorders are not influenced by psychological factors.
b. It emphasizes the physical symptoms of a disorder instead of the psychological symptoms.
c. It gives the impression that psychological disorders like anxiety or depression do not have a biological component.
d. It emphasizes the psychological symptoms of a disorder instead of the physical symptoms.

 

94. What did a longitudinal research study of 200 men (Vaillant, 1979) discover about individuals who developed psychological disorders or who were highly stressed?

a. They suffered a significantly higher incidence of strokes than those who remained relatively well adjusted.
b. They did not become chronically ill, despite their psychological disorder, if they had a sense of control in their life.
c. They suffered a significantly higher incidence of heart attacks than those who remained relatively well adjusted.
d. They became chronically ill at a higher rate than those who remained relatively well adjusted.

 

95. Jacobson developed the procedure of progressive muscle relaxation in 1938. Compared to today, what is the difference in the time frame for a patient to acquire the skills to master the art of relaxation?

a. Jacobson’s original procedure took weeks; today the procedure is taught in a matter of weeks.
b. Jacobson’s original procedure took a matter of weeks; today the procedure takes months or even years.
c. Jacobson’s original procedure took months or even years; today the procedure is taught in a matter of weeks.
d. Jacobson’s original procedure took months or even years; today the procedure is taught in roughly the same time frame.

 

96. According to Spielberger and Frank (1992), what is crucial criterion in mediating virtually all factors that lead to injury?

a. making the home environment safer
b. making the workplace safer
c. acknowledging and limiting risky activities
d. addressing psychological variables

 

97. Which of the following terms suggests the idea that psychological factors affect physical functioning?

a. psychobiological
b. somatoform
c. psychosomatic
d. psychosocial

 

98. Endogenous opioids have been implicated in a variety of psychopathological conditions. Which of the following is one of these conditions?

a. eating disorders
b. personality disorders
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. phobias

 

99. How does the original progressive muscle relaxation technique devised by Edmund Jacobson in 1938 differ from the way the procedure is usually taught in clinics today?

a. The procedure is now used in conjunction with muscle relaxant drugs.
b. The person is now taught to monitor his or her stressful thoughts before, during, and after the relaxation procedure.
c. The focus is now on exercising and thus stimulating the muscles, instead of simply relaxing them.
d. The procedure is usually taught in a much shorter period of time now and is rarely the sole treatment.

 

100. It has been suggested that biofeedback relieves the pain of tension headaches because it “teaches people to relax.” What is the more likely reason?

a. The apparent relief of the patient’s pain is the result of the sensory adaptation process occurring in the therapeutic session.
b. The biofeedback training gives patients a sense of control over their headache pain.
c. Biofeedback has a “numbing effect” because it affects the nerve endings in the somatic nervous system.
d. Patients experience a placebo effect because the headache pain returns once the biofeedback sessions are completed.

 

 

101. Discuss why stress is often implicated as a factor in cardiovascular disease. Define type A personality; discuss research regarding its validity.

 

102. Discuss prevention and intervention programs related to medical conditions. What medical conditions and/or behaviours are targeted? Compare injury prevention programs with the more typical information and warnings.

 

103. Describe the use of biofeedback, meditation, and relaxation techniques in the management of stress-related disorders. Discuss the relative effectiveness of these treatments for stress management and pain relief.

 

104. The field of stress physiology began with the research of Hans Selye. Explain how his findings developed into an understanding of the physical impact of stress.

 

105. Explore the relationship between stress and the immune system. What is the HPA axis? What are stress hormones? Is there a “lab” test to measure stress levels in human beings?

 

106. Define and describe the new fields of behavioural medicine and health psychology. What are the differences between them? Why did these specialties not exist previously?

 

107. Discuss the role that stress plays in the progression of AIDS and cancer. Give examples of research studies that demonstrate the positive impact of reduced stress levels on these very serious conditions.

 

108. Explore how changes in attitudes and lifestyle behaviours contribute to illness and death. Give examples of behaviours that are known to have a negative impact on health. Why are individuals resistant to behavioural change?

 

109. Discuss how psychological factors, including negative cognitions, affect immune system functioning. Give examples of physical conditions that are considered stress related.

 

110. Discuss chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) and chronic pain. Relate CFS to the condition known as neurasthenia. What psychological factors are thought to maintain chronic pain?
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1. Joan consumes alcohol alone in her residence room when she has trouble sleeping. What level of involvement with alcohol would best apply to Joan?

a. substance use
b. substance abuse
c. substance dependence
d. intoxication

 

2. Max runs a group therapy session for people with alcohol disorders. What else do some members of the group likely have?

a. schizophrenia
b. mood and anxiety disorders
c. a sociopathic personality disturbance
d. abuse of marijuana

 

3. What are the noted research differences between how Canadian college and university students use alcohol compared to American students?

a. More American female students drink alcohol than Canadian female students, but male students in both countries drink at about the same rate.
b. More American than Canadian students drink alcohol, but more Canadian students are binge drinkers.
c. More Canadian than American students drink alcohol, but more American students are binge drinkers.
d. More Canadian female students drink alcohol than American female students, but male students in both countries drink at about the same rate.

 

4. The most common of the psychoactive substances is used by 90 percent of North Americans. What is it?

a. nicotine
b. caffeine
c. alcohol
d. marijuana

 

5. What is the purpose of abstinence in a harm reduction approach to substance abuse?

a. Abstinence is assumed to be the natural result of improved cognitive and behavioural coping skills after therapy.
b. Abstinence can be the final goal but it does not have to be.
c. Abstinence is an unrealistic goal for a person with a history of dependence problems.
d. Abstinence is a key requirement for the user.

 

6. Approximately what percentage of Canadians who consume alcohol can be categorized as problem drinkers?

a. 3 percent
b. 9 percent
c. 14 percent
d. 18 percent

 

7. What might be the common factor among abused psychoactive drugs?

a. their identical effect on neurotransmitters at the synapse
b. the suppression of the nervous system
c. the similar way in which they are metabolized in the body
d. their ability to activate the “pleasure pathways” of the brain

 

8. Jason uses mescaline repeatedly over several days. Which of the following is most likely?

a. He will overdose and may die.
b. The drug will completely lose its effectiveness.
c. He will experience severe withdrawal symptoms when he stops.
d. He will experience at least one “bad trip.”

 

9. Dr. Gomez is concerned with a recent report showing high rates of benzodiazepine use in his community. Why might Dr. Gomez find this problematic?

a. Their use is positively correlated with violent behaviour.
b. It has long been known that they are not appropriate for reducing tension and anxiety from everyday stresses and strains.
c. They are more dangerous than barbiturates.
d. They are largely ineffective at relieving symptoms of anxiety.

 

10. Ellery and colleagues (2005) showed that ingestion of alcohol led to increased risk-taking tendencies among regular gamblers when they were using a video lottery terminal, relative to gamblers ingesting a non-alcoholic control beverage. What does this finding suggest?

a. People addicted to alcohol may also be prone to engage in other risk-taking behaviours.
b. Gamblers addicted to alcohol may be more likely to engage in aggressive behaviours when they are drinking.
c. Risk-taking tendencies may contribute to alcohol addiction.
d. Alcohol may contribute to the high co-occurrence of alcohol and gambling disorders.

 

11. Jack has been showing hallucinations, panic, and paranoid delusions. What type of substance has he most likely taken too much of?

a. amphetamine
b. alcohol
c. Seconal
d. Xanax

 

12. Which of the following does the diagnosis of substance intoxication NOT depend on?

a. physiological dependence on the drug
b. the specific drug that is used
c. the drug user’s individual biological reaction
d. how much of a drug is used or ingested

 

13. Karrie uses an illicit “designer drug” that is a dissociative anesthetic. It produces in her a sense of detachment along with a reduced awareness of pain. What drug is it?

a. “K” or “Special K”
b. Ecstasy (MDMA)
c. Eve
d. Nexus

 

14. Which of the following describes the risks associated with opioid withdrawal?

a. No one should stop taking any opioid ‘cold turkey’.
b. Opioid withdrawal is only dangerous if a person has been taking the substance for more than six months.
c. Opioid withdrawal is uncomfortable but not dangerous when the opioid is not in its pure form.
d. Opioid withdrawal is more dangerous than alcohol withdrawal.

 

15. From a physiological perspective, a nicotine addict smokes cigarettes frequently throughout the day in order to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following is one of these symptoms?

a. difficulty concentrating
b. nausea
c. headache
d. tiredness

 

16. Heroin and methadone are cross-tolerant. What does this mean?

a. They act on the same neurotransmitter receptors and, thus, a person addicted to one drug may become addicted to the other.
b. They each produce the same level of high in users.
c. They each produce a significantly different type and level of high in users.
d. They do not act on the same neurotransmitter receptors; however, the level of tolerance developed will automatically cause a generalization to the other drug.

 

17. Which of the following theories uses both positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement to explain why the “crash” that follows the initial euphoria of drug use is not a deterrent to further drug use?

a. amotivational theory
b. substance-related self-schema theory
c. opponent-process theory
d. expectancy theory

 

18. An alcoholic who is highly motivated to stop drinking and who understands the possible consequences of treatment may be prescribed the medication Antabuse. What is this medication an example of?

a. an abstinent
b. an antagonist
c. an agonist
d. an aversive

 

19. Manuel has gambling disorder. Tests have shown he has poor executive control. What impact will this have on the course of Manuel’s disorder?

a. better response to treatment and a lower chance of relapse
b. better response to treatment and a higher chance of relapse
c. worse response to treatment and a lower chance of relapse
d. worse response to treatment and a higher chance of relapse

 

20. When a person is physiologically dependent on a drug, what will he or she most likely experience?

a. an increased likelihood that use will resume after a period of abstinence
b. both tolerance and withdrawal
c. withdrawal symptoms if the drug is withdrawn
d. tolerance to the effects of the drug

 

21. Which of the following neurotransmitters are stimulated in the “pleasure pathway,” thus causing the high associated with cocaine use?

a. adrenaline
b. serotonin and dopamine
c. dopamine
d. endorphin

 

22. What are alcohol and the drugs Seconal, Halcion, and Valium classified as?

a. intoxicants
b. stimulants
c. depressants
d. narcotics

 

23. Why do some drugs produce an anxiolytic (anxiety-relieving) effect?

a. because they act directly on the dopamine system
b. because they increase the activity of GABA in the septal-hippocampal region
c. because they stimulate the “pleasure pathways” of the brain
d. because they negatively reinforce drug-taking behaviour

 

24. What does the term “anxiolytic” mean?

a. anti-seizure
b. anxiety-reducing
c. calming
d. sleep-inducing

 

25. In behaviourist terms, when is a drug considered a negative reinforcer?

a. when it “punishes” the user with aversive withdrawal symptoms
b. when it stops a person from feeling bad
c. when it makes a person feel good
d. when it has a high risk of physiological dependency

 

26. What did DeWit and colleagues (2000) find to be predictive of later alcohol disorders?

a. being in the presence of adults who drink a lot
b. aggressive behaviour in early adolescence
c. drinking at an early age (from ages 11–14)
d. extreme shyness and social anxiety in childhood

 

27. In the 1950s, Dr. Humphrey Osmond experimented with the hallucinogenic drug LSD as a treatment. What was it intended to treat?

a. sleep disorders
b. pain
c. anxiety disorders
d. alcoholism

 

28. How does the use of the testosterone-derived, anabolic-androgenic steroids differ from the use of other illicit drugs?

a. There is no desirable high with steroid use.
b. Steroids can be taken orally or by injection.
c. Twice as many young males abuse steroids for body size and performance as those who abuse drugs that produce a high.
d. The high produced from steroid use is more intense than that experienced with other drugs.

 

29. Which of the following approaches is MOST likely to help people with gambling disorder?

a. a brief treatment program
b. an inexpensive treatment
c. a psychodynamic treatment
d. a long treatment program

 

30. When Ed drinks alcohol, he initially experiences a feeling of well-being and more outgoing behaviour. Why is this?

a. Alcohol stimulates the autonomic nervous system.
b. Alcohol activates the inhibitory centres in the brain.
c. Alcohol depresses the inhibitory centres in the brain.
d. Alcohol depresses the autonomic nervous system.

 

31. Dylan has been using and abusing marijuana for more than ten years. He is considering quitting because he has begun to experience which of the following?

a. psychological dependence even with occasional use
b. rapid development of tolerance
c. physiological addiction to tobacco smoke
d. paranoia and hallucinations

 

32. How do both amphetamines and cocaine produce their desired effects?

a. by indirectly stimulating the internal reward centre or pleasure pathway of the brain
b. by directly stimulating the internal reward centre or pleasure pathway of the brain
c. by enhancing the activity of GABA in the septal-hippocampal system
d. by increasing beta-endorphin release

 

33. “Ice” is a particularly dangerous drug for a number of reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of those reasons?

a. Extremely high doses can result in death by suffocation.
b. It causes marked aggressive tendencies.
c. It stays in the system longer than cocaine.
d. It has an extremely high risk of physiological dependence.

 

34. Candace rarely drinks alcohol, but she became very intoxicated at the office party. She began to drive herself home, but on the way she was arrested for driving under the influence. Jason has had his driver’s licence suspended three times over the past two years for driving while intoxicated, yet he never drinks on the job. Which of the following levels of involvement with alcohol would best apply to Candace and Jason?

a. Candace, abuse; Jason, use
b. Candace, use; Jason, use
c. Candace, use; Jason, abuse
d. Candace, abuse; Jason, abuse

 

35. Jean-Pierre has gambling disorder. Which of the following has Jean-Pierre MOST likely experienced?

a. job loss
b. bankruptcy
c. incarceration
d. being arrested

 

36. What is the “reverse tolerance” phenomenon reported by some regular users of marijuana?

a. wanting to use the drug less often after repeated use
b. experiencing more pleasure from the same amount of the drug after repeated use
c. experiencing less pleasure from smaller amounts of the drug after repeated use
d. experiencing more pleasure from greater amounts of the drug after repeated use

 

37. Why did early editions of the DSM classify alcoholism and drug abuse as sociopathic personality disorders?

a. They were considered to be signs of mental illness.
b. They were considered to be a sign of moral weakness.
c. They were considered to be criminal behaviours.
d. They were considered to be symptoms of psychosis.

 

38. Every once in a while, Jared acts on aggressive impulses by assaulting others or destroying property. Jared likely meets the criteria for which disorder?

a. kleptomania
b. gambling disorder
c. intermittent explosive disorder
d. bipolar I disorder

 

39. What do inhalants cause?

a. symptoms of withdrawal that can last up to two or more weeks
b. antisocial and aggressive behaviour
c. heightened auditory and visual perception
d. damage to bone marrow, the kidneys, the liver, and the brain

 

40. In their controlled study of the effects of cocaine exposure on the developing fetus, what kind of deficits did Potter and colleagues (2000) find in the cocaine-exposed infants?

a. subtle deficits in cardiac regulatory processes
b. subtle deficits in reflexive responding
c. subtle deficits in visual information processing
d. subtle deficits in auditory information processing

 

41. Which of the following substances distort sensory experiences, feelings, and perceptions?

a. “benzos”
b. opiates
c. “roofies”
d. hallucinogens

 

42. Nick has been an alcoholic for many years. He has also experienced major depression and manic episodes. Approximately what percentage of alcoholics also have an additional psychiatric disorder?

a. 10 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 99 percent

 

43. What did DeWit and colleagues (2000) find regarding their study of 6000 lifetime drinkers who drank at an early age (ages 11–14)?

a. Drinking at an early age resulted in more severe withdrawal symptoms than drinking at later ages.
b. Drinking at an early age seemed to lead to more responsible drinking habits at later ages.
c. Drinking at an early age caused more frequent blackouts than drinking at later ages.
d. Drinking at an early age was predictive of later alcohol-related disorders.

 

44. Your shy and introverted friend tells you that she has discovered a wonder drug that produces feelings of euphoria and it is not addictive. When you realize that she is talking about cocaine, what should you tell her?

a. In the long term, she will want to be reclusive and antisocial.
b. If she continues to use it, she will exhibit extreme symptoms of depression, which are common to two-thirds or more of cocaine abusers.
c. If she continues to use it, she will gradually develop an inability to resist taking more over time.
d. Unlike other recreational drugs, the mellowing and calming effect she achieves will not last over repeated use.

 

45. What does the term “hypnotic” mean?

a. sleep-inducing
b. calming
c. anxiety-reducing
d. anti-seizure

 

46. Why are both morphine and codeine considered analgesics?

a. They both have a sedative effect.
b. They both relieve pain and produce euphoria.
c. They both cause hallucinations and dissociative experiences.
d. They both activate the central nervous system.

 

47. Why was the use of Rohypnol popular among adolescents in the 1990s?

a. It has the same effect as alcohol without the telltale odour.
b. It is a sexual stimulant.
c. It can be taken in fairly high doses without any withdrawal symptoms.
d. It produces a longer and more intense “high” than marijuana.

 

48. In trying to understand why some individuals become addicted to drugs and others do not, it is important to consider the negative reinforcement that is associated with the anxiolytic effect. What is the anxiolytic effect?

a. a drug’s ability to metabolize slowly, extending its effects
b. a drug’s ability to reduce anxiety
c. a drug’s ability to relieve pain
d. a drug’s ability to produce a high

 

49. In some individuals, chronic alcohol use causes physical damage to the body. Whether this occurs depends on a number of factors. Which of the following is NOT one of these factors?

a. type of alcohol consumed
b. how frequently and how long drinking binges occur, and how much time elapses between binges
c. genetic vulnerability
d. blood alcohol levels during drinking periods

 

50. Which of the following is an example of agonist types of treatment for substance abuse?

a. the use of methadone to treat heroin addiction
b. moral condemnation of the behaviours as sins
c. encouraging users to focus on the pain and suffering their substance use inflicts on themselves and others
d. the use of naltrexone to treat heroin addiction

 

51. Dr. Palmer is developing a treatment program for people with kleptomania. In order to best serve his patient population, he is planning a treatment program that will help with the impulse control component of kleptomania. What else could it potentially help treat?

a. mood disorders
b. personality disorders
c. cognitive disorders
d. substance abuse disorders

 

52. What does research data show is the relationship between gene(s) and substance abuse?

a. No one gene causes substance abuse or dependence.
b. One dominant gene is found in 90% of people with substance abuse disorders.
c. One recessive gene is found in 90% of people with alcohol or nicotine dependency.
d. No genes have been found to be linked to substance abuse.

 

53. Sedative, hypnotic, and anxiolytic drugs affect the brain by acting on one of the neurotransmitter systems. Which neurotransmitter system is it?

a. serotonin system
b. GABA system
c. dopamine system
d. norepinephrine system

 

54. Which of the following analgesic substances is NOT classified as an opiate?

a. morphine
b. cocaine
c. heroin
d. codeine

 

55. You are sitting on an airplane with 100 adult men and 100 adult women. About how many of the men are likely to be classified as heavy drinkers?

a. 4
b. 12
c. 16
d. 20

 

56. In trying to understand why some people continue to use alcohol until they become dependent on it and others are able to stop before this happens, what is important to consider?

a. how sensitive a person is to both the negative effects of alcohol when it is first ingested and to the negative effects of alcohol after a few hours
b. how sensitive a person is to the negative effects of alcohol when it is first ingested and to the positive effects a few hours later
c. how sensitive a person is to the positive effects of alcohol when it is first ingested and to the positive effects a few hours later
d. how sensitive a person is to the positive effects of alcohol when it is first ingested and to the negative effects after a few hours

 

57. According to the American Psychiatric Association, what does the term “dependence” refer to?

a. physiological dependence on a drug
b. drug-seeking behaviours such as repeated use and the desperate need to ingest more of the drug
c. a combination of the physiological as well as behavioural and psychological responses to drugs
d. repeated use and reliance on street drugs

 

58. Liam has just taken an amphetamine. His entire central nervous system is stimulated because of increased activity of which of the following?

a. norepinephrine and dopamine
b. dopamine and GABA
c. serotonin and dopamine
d. GABA

 

59. Which of the following does NOT correctly identify the specific effect of alcohol on a particular neurotransmitter system?

a. dopamine system—slurred speech
b. glutamate system—alcoholic blackouts
c. serotonin system—alcoholic cravings
d. GABA system—anti-anxiety effect

 

60. At low doses, barbiturates relax the muscles and can produce feelings of well-being. However, large doses can have results similar to which of the following?

a. heavy drinking
b. opiates
c. stimulants
d. hallucinogens

 

61. Which of the following pairs an organic brain syndrome associated with long-term alcohol abuse and its symptoms and causes?

a. dementia—loss of intellectual abilities caused by a deficiency of the vitamin called thiamine
b. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome—loss of intellectual abilities caused by the toxic effects of alcohol on the brain
c. dementia—confusion, loss of muscle coordination, and unintelligible speech caused by the toxic effects of alcohol on the brain
d. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome—confusion, loss of muscle coordination, and unintelligible speech caused by a deficiency of the vitamin called thiamine

 

62. Yesterday, you took a couple of aspirin tablets. In behaviourist terms, what is aspirin?

a. a positive reinforcer
b. a neutral reinforcer
c. a negative reinforcer
d. a variable reinforcer

 

63. Where are the natural opioids, enkephalins, and endorphins found?

a. in DNA
b. in the adrenal glands
c. in the pituitary gland
d. in the brain

 

64. George decided to abruptly quit using alcohol. He is now experiencing sweating, mental confusion, incoherent speech, disorientation, terrifying hallucinations, and extreme restlessness. What are George’s symptoms typical of?

a. alcohol poisoning
b. hypnagogic shock
c. delirium tremens
d. drug withdrawal

 

65. Which of the following explains the cognitive phenomenon called “alcohol myopia”?

a. An individual continues to drink and denies that there are any negative consequences associated with alcohol.
b. An individual properly evaluates the risks associated with continued abuse of alcohol and decides to enter a treatment program.
c. An individual finally sees that drinking alcohol has only negative consequences and stops drinking.
d. An individual continues to drink even when he or she knows that excessive drinking has severe negative consequences.

 

66. Carol has been addicted to narcotics for many years. Recently, she has been trying to quit and has not used any drugs for the last week. As part of her withdrawal from narcotics, Carol will likely experience several effects. Which of the following is she NOT likely to experience?

a. fever and chills
b. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
c. aches and pains
d. increase in blood pressure

 

67. The drug opiate-antagonist naltrexone is a treatment for substance abuse. How does it work?

a. by substituting a chemically similar drug for the addictive drug
b. by producing a cross-tolerance effect in a drug user
c. by producing only a temporary euphoric effect if opiates continue to be used
d. by both counteracting the effects of opiates and producing withdrawal symptoms

 

68. Which of the following is classified as a benzodiazepine?

a. Halcion
b. Seconal
c. Amytal
d. Rohypnol

 

69. Depressants decrease central nervous system activity and help us relax. Which of the following substances is classified as a depressant?

a. heroin
b. cigarettes
c. marijuana
d. alcohol

 

70. A 46-year-old man has terminal cancer and has been receiving fairly high doses of morphine for pain relief around the clock for several months. What level of substance involvement would best apply to this individual?

a. abuse
b. dependence
c. use
d. tolerance

 

71. What did laboratory research involving “drug addiction” in animals demonstrate about the positive reinforcing effect of drugs?

a. It occurs regardless of biological influences.
b. It occurs with fewer social and cultural influences than humans.
c. It occurs independently of social and cultural influences.
d. It occurs with as much social influence as with humans.

 

72. Barrett and colleagues (2006) found that administering nicotine (through tobacco smoke) leads most smokers to increase their alcohol consumption. According to the researchers, which of the following reasons may explain the cause?

a. Using both substances simultaneously may maximize the effects of both smoking and alcohol on the dopamine reward system.
b. Smoking becomes a conditioned stimulus for the alcohol and increases cravings for alcohol.
c. Alcohol maximizes the pleasurable effects of smoking on the dopamine reward system.
d. Nicotine may make drinking alcohol more rewarding in terms of its effect on the dopamine reward system.

 

73. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a combination of problems that can occur in a child whose mother drank alcohol while pregnant. Which of the following is a symptom of FAS?

a. autism spectrum disorder
b. congenital deafness
c. cognitive deficits and behaviour problems
d. excessive fetal growth

 

74. Substance dependence often involves drug-seeking behaviours. Which of the following is NOT one of these behaviours?

a. resuming drug use after a period of abstinence
b. physical symptoms when the drug is no longer used
c. repeated use of the drug
d. a desperate need to ingest more of the drug

 

75. According to the results of a 24-year follow-up study of more than 500 opioid addicts, approximately 28 percent of them had died. What was the mean age at death?

a. 35 years
b. 40 years
c. 45 years
d. 50 years

 

76. Suganthy has intermittent explosive disorder. Which of the following treatment options will MOST likely help Suganthy?

a. cognitive behavioural therapy
b. psychoanalysis
c. systematic desensitization
d. a token economy

 

77. Alcohol use and aggression are positively correlated. Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines aggressive behaviour?

a. the person’s previous history of violence
b. the person’s IQ (measured intelligence)
c. quantity and timing of alcohol consumed
d. the person’s expectations about drinking

 

78. Mark has been using crack for two years. His whole life is now oriented around trying to get more crack to feed his habit. He even sells drugs to get crack money. Although he has tried repeatedly to give it up, the crash is so intense and his cravings for the rush are so strong he just can’t quit. What is Mark’s level of involvement with the drug?

a. use
b. dependence
c. abuse
d. misuse

 

79. What is the danger of using a definition of dependence that uses drug-seeking behaviours as a measure of dependence?

a. It may exclude alcohol, which is freely available in our society.
b. It may include activities such as sex, work, or even eating chocolate.
c. It makes it seem as though addicted individuals actively choose to be addicted.
d. It may exclude instances where the drug in question is prescribed by a doctor.

 

80. How is the opponent-process explanation of drug addiction best explained?

a. An increase in negative feelings will be followed by further negative feelings, and this mechanism is both strengthened with use and weakened by disuse.
b. An increase in positive feelings will be followed by an increase in negative feelings, and this mechanism is strengthened with disuse.
c. An increase in positive feelings will be followed by an increase in negative feelings, and this mechanism is strengthened with use.
d. An increase in negative feelings will be followed by an increase in positive feelings, and this mechanism is weakened by use.

 

81. Dr. Reid is studying the efficacy of Gamblers Anonymous. What has she found to be necessary in order for the program to work?

a. The group leader must be a former gambler.
b. The gambler must have a desire to quit gambling before they start treatment.
c. The gambler must be financially stable
d. The treatment must occur in an psychiatric facility.

 

82. Lisa has been using crack for about two months now. Although she knows it is destroying her job performance and she has been reprimanded for missing work, she refuses to give it up. She says she can quit whenever she wants to and just uses crack because she enjoys it. She tells others who question her drug use to mind their own business and leave her alone. What is Lisa’s level of involvement with the drug?

a. dependence
b. use
c. abuse
d. misuse

 

83. Jan has used crack to the point where she has impaired control over her use of it. While she experiences no withdrawal symptoms when she stops using it, she wants it so badly she cannot stop herself from taking it. What does Jan’s reliance on crack illustrate?

a. biological abuse
b. psychological dependence
c. physiological dependence
d. physiological abuse

 

84. The integrative approach to substance abuse reflects the concept of equifinality. Which of the following best explains this concept?

a. Neurobiological factors determine whether substance abuse will develop.
b. A genetic factor alone is the cause of substance abuse.
c. For any particular individual, substance abuse may arise from multiple and different causes.
d. Psychological factors are the primary determinants of whether or not a person becomes a drug addict.

 

85. What are the “pleasure pathways,” or internal reward centres, in the human brain primarily composed of?

a. both dopamine-sensitive and serotonin-sensitive neurons
b. serotonin-sensitive neurons
c. dopamine-sensitive neurons
d. GABA-sensitive neurons

 

86. What does the term “sensitization” mean?

a. an increased high when taking the drug
b. an increased dopamine release when taking the drug
c. a decreased dopamine release when taking the drug
d. a decreased high when taking the drug

 

87. How effective are controlled drinking approaches to alcohol abuse?

a. It works long term for about 30 percent of alcoholics.
b. People using this method stick to treatment at higher rates than those who attempt to abstain from alcohol entirely.
c. The program does not work long term.
d. The program is as effective as Alcoholic Anonymous.

 

88. Yan has kleptomania. She feels a sense of tension before she shoplifts. After she shoplifts, what does she feel?

a. paranoia
b. relief
c. more tension
d. anger

 

89. Which the following is NOT a symptom of withdrawal from alcohol?

a. delirium tremens
b. hallucinations
c. hypersomnia
d. nausea and/or vomiting

 

90. Linea has gambling disorder. When she undergoes an fMRI as part of a research study, what parts of her brain are MOST likely to be functioning in an abnormal way?

a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex and orbitofrontal cortex
b. orbitofrontal cortex and medial temporal cortex
c. medial temporal cortex and parahippocampal gyrus
d. parahippocampal gyrus and ventromedial prefrontal cortex

 

91. What did Pihl and colleagues (1992) discover about individuals at high familial genetic risk for alcoholism?

a. They may be more sensitive to the positive effects of alcohol when it is first ingested.
b. They may be less sensitive to the positive effects of alcohol when it is first ingested.
c. They may be more sensitive to the negative effects of alcohol after a few hours.
d. They may be more sensitive to the positive effects of alcohol and less sensitive to the negative effects of alcohol after a few hours.

 

92. What physiological reaction appears to prevent some persons from becoming alcohol dependent?

a. ADA response
b. skin-flushing response
c. red cell syndrome
d. meta-alcohol syndrome

 

93. Although most psychoactive substances interact with specific substances in the brain cells, the effects of some substances are much more complex because several different neurotransmitter systems are affected. What substance affects several neurotransmitter systems?

a. alcohol
b. marijuana
c. opiates
d. tranquilizers

 

94. It seems that a valuable part of therapy for substance use may be contingency management. In contingency management, what do the clinician and the client do together?

a. They develop a skills-training program to resist social, media, and peer pressure to use drugs.
b. They identify and correct aspects of the client’s life that might contribute to substance use or interfere with efforts to abstain.
c. They focus on the learned aspects of dependence—that is, the failure of cognitive and behavioural coping skills.
d. They select specific behaviours for change and reinforcers that will reward success.

 

95. What is the primary use for legally available narcotic medications, such as morphine and codeine?

a. as antagonists
b. as antidotes
c. as antibiotics
d. as analgesics

 

96. Which of the following is the outcome of mild to moderate alcohol use across the lifespan?

a. It can result in mild dementia.
b. It can result in moderate dementia.
c. It has no effect on cognitive functioning.
d. It can have a protective effect on cognitive functioning.

 

97. Which of the following drugs act directly on the dopamine system?

a. cocaine and alcohol
b. LSD and alcohol
c. inhalants and benzodiazepines
d. amphetamines and cocaine

 

98. The hallucinogenic drug LSD is produced synthetically in laboratories. However, a naturally occurring derivative has caused outbreaks of illness throughout history. What is this naturally occurring derivative?

a. lysergic acid amide
b. ergot
c. psilocybin
d. mescaline

 

99. Which of the following is classified as a barbiturate?

a. Xanax
b. Nembutal
c. Rohypnol
d. alcohol

 

100. In the 1950s, James Olds used electrical stimulation on the brains of rats. What did he discover?

a. that rats lost memory of previously learned skills
b. that rats have completely different neurotransmitter systems from humans
c. the aggressive centre of the brain
d. the pleasure centre of the brain

 

101. What does the term “sedative” mean?

a. anti-seizure
b. anxiety-reducing
c. calming
d. sleep-inducing

 

102. A 2003 study by Galambos and colleagues examined the influence of parenting behaviours and of peers on children’s adjustment in early adolescence. What did the results of this study suggest?

a. Positive peer counselling can overcome negative peer influences on alcohol and drug use in adolescents.
b. Parenting can exert an important influence on adolescents’ use of alcohol and drugs, despite negative peer influences.
c. If negative peer influences are strong enough, parenting style is unrelated to alcohol and drug use.
d. Parenting can exert an important influence on adolescents’ use of alcohol and drugs provided that positive peer influences are in place.

 

103. What percentage of the adult Canadian population has attended an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting at one time or another?

a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 10%

 

104. Zach is experiencing “delirium tremens,” which means Zach is withdrawing from which substance?

a. alcohol
b. marijuana
c. cocaine
d. heroin

 

105. A newer prescription drug for pain is oxycodone. Why has it been featured prominently in the news?

a. because of its potential for the treatment for cancer
b. because of its potential for the treatment of AIDS
c. because of its potential for the treatment of withdrawal symptoms of heroin
d. because of its potential for abuse and lethal overdose

 

106. You have just heard about a situation in which someone who was drunk vandalized a building and assaulted a security guard. You are aware that although alcohol does not cause aggressive behaviour, it can increase the likelihood of engaging in violent behaviour. For whom is this most likely so?

a. people who have Wernicke’s disease, caused by long-term chronic alcohol abuse
b. people who have fetal alcohol syndrome
c. people who have poor executive functions, such as planning and organizing abilities
d. people who possess a combination of low IQ and poor impulse control

 

107. Shannon has been using heroin for two years. Lately, she has found she must inject higher and higher dosages of the drug to get the same high she has come to expect from her drug use. What is the term for this need for higher dosages?

a. dependence
b. potentiation
c. addiction
d. tolerance

 

108. Approximately what percentage of Canadians can be said to be alcohol dependent in any given year?

a. 3 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 15 percent
d. 18 percent

 

109. What were amphetamines originally used to treat?

a. neurasthenia
b. irregular heart rhythms
c. hysteria
d. asthma and as a nasal decongestant

 

 

110. Explain the basic assumptions and tenets of the Alcoholics Anonymous model of treatment for alcoholism versus the controlled drinking approach. Referring to recent research into long-term relapse prevention, what conclusions can be drawn about both approaches?

 

111. Compare and contrast the depressant drugs, including benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and anxiolytics. Discuss medical uses for these substances and the potential for abuse and/or addiction.

 

112. Discuss the current research and theories regarding the progression of alcohol-use disorders. How do current ideas contrast with Jellinek’s model?

 

113. Discuss current research on the genetic/biological, social, and cultural factors related to alcoholism. Which factors appear most strongly related to the development and progression of the disorder?

 

114. Describe the psychological and behavioural effects of alcohol. Discuss both the short-term and long-term consequences of alcohol abuse.

 

115. Discuss the problems of both steroid and inhalant abuse, noting psychological and physical effects. How do steroid and inhalant abuses differ from abuse of other substances?

 

116. Compare and contrast the stimulant drugs. Discuss the history of cocaine as well as its atypical type of addictive process.

 

117. Explain the basic assumptions and examples of the harm reduction approach to drug abuse. Discuss fully the controversy surrounding this approach, explaining the positions of both its proponents and critics.

 

118. Compare and contrast the levels of involvement in substance-related disorders: use, intoxication, abuse, and dependence. Define the meaning of the word “addiction.”

 

119. Define “psychoactive substance” and give examples of the different categories of psychoactive drugs. Discuss whether these drugs are psychologically or physiologically addictive.
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1. What causes the delusions, depression, agitation, aggression, and apathy that often occur with neurocognitive disorder?

a. the frustration and fear experienced by patients as they lose their cognitive abilities
b. the progressive deterioration of brain functioning
c. medication side effects
d. either the progressive brain deterioration of the disorder or the frustration experienced by patients

 

2. What effect has today’s neurocognitive disorder treatments had on this disease?

a. They have reversed neurocognitive disorder.
b. They have cured neurocognitive disorder.
c. Neurocognitive disorder has not been very responsive to treatment.
d. Neurocognitive disorder has been controlled but not cured.

 

3. What is the predominant cognitive deficit displayed by individuals with Alzheimer’s disease?

a. facial agnosia
b. memory impairment
c. aphasia
d. apraxia

 

4. The symptoms of neurocognitive disorder associated with substance dependence are generally caused by the prolonged drug use itself, especially in combination with another factor. What is the other factor?

a. poor diet
b. an inactive lifestyle
c. cigarette smoking
d. a family history of neurocognitive disorder

 

5. Why are cognitive disorders included in a textbook on abnormal psychology?

a. because they are statistically rare
b. because they all represent some form of brain dysfunction
c. because they often include profound changes in behaviour and personality
d. because they used to be considered forms of insanity

 

6. What is one major difference between neurocognitive disorder caused by Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder caused by depression?

a. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease is generally reversible.
b. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease leads to a rapid decline in abilities.
c. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease involves a slow increase in symptoms.
d. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease is not reversible.

 

7. Which of following is NOT a common cause of delirium?

a. dietary factors
b. medical conditions
c. intoxication by drugs
d. head trauma

 

8. What is one possible reason women have a higher prevalence rate for Alzheimer’s disease than men do?

a. Women lack amyloid proteins.
b. Women lack testosterone.
c. Women are given estrogen replacement.
d. Women do not seek treatment.

 

9. What do autopsies performed on the brains of deceased persons both with and without Alzheimer’s disease show regarding amyloid plaques?

a. They are present only in the brains of people who died of Alzheimer’s disease.
b. Those in patients with Alzheimer’s disease are of a different type than those in patients without Alzheimer’s.
c. They accumulate in aging brains over time, regardless of whether symptoms of neurocognitive disorder are apparent, but to a much greater degree in the brains of Alzheimer’s patients.
d. They accumulate in aging brains over time, regardless of whether symptoms of neurocognitive disorder are apparent, but are located in different parts of the brain in patients with and without Alzheimer’s disease.

 

10. Because older adults in a given cultural group are relieved of the demands of work and care after a certain age, which of the following is most likely to happen?

a. The early stages of confusion and memory loss may go undetected for years.
b. They may be less vulnerable to developing neurocognitive disorder because of the lessened stress.
c. The early stages of confusion and memory loss may be detected because they are more frequently engaged with family.
d. They may be more vulnerable to developing neurocognitive disorder because of physical and mental inactivity.

 

11. Which of the following disorders begins with involuntary movements referred to as “chorea”?

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Huntington’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Monger-Rolland syndrome

 

12. What causes the differing patterns of impairment associated with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and HIV-caused neurocognitive disorder?

a. the viral origins of HIV
b. unexplained causes
c. the different areas of the brain affected
d. the immune response to the virus in HIV patients

 

13. The disorder that causes a form of neurocognitive disorder called “bovine spongiform encephalopathy” (BSE) or “mad cow disease” is a variant of a specific illness. What is the illness?

a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
b. Pick’s disease
c. Huntington’s disease
d. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

 

14. Jim is being treated for delirium in the hospital. The doctor asks Jim’s son how the symptoms developed. What will Jim’s son say?

a. “The symptoms came on gradually over the past two weeks.”
b. “The symptoms came on gradually over the last two months.”
c. “The symptoms came on quickly over the last few days.”
d. “The symptoms came on very slowly, over the course of several years.”

 

15. One theory about the development of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease suggests that the formation of solid waxy proteins in the brain causes the disorder. Which of the following is this process similar to?

a. the formation of scar tissue following an injury
b. vascular spasms causing migraines
c. cholesterol buildup in blood vessels, causing cardiovascular disease
d. head trauma causing neuronal death

 

16. Mary is caring for her father who has advanced Alzheimer’s disease. Mary comments to her sister Julie on the phone that she has to go, it’s “that time of day,” implying that her father’s cognitive disturbance is particularly severe at the moment. What time of day is it?

a. morning
b. early afternoon
c. evening
d. the middle of the night

 

17. How does delirium differ from neurocognitive disorder?

a. People with delirium are not disoriented or confused in the early stages; people with neurocognitive disorder are.
b. Neurocognitive disorder comes on more suddenly than does delirium.
c. Delirium is reversible, whereas neurocognitive disorder is not.
d. People with neurocognitive disorder are not disoriented or confused in the early stages; people with delirium are.

 

18. William has Alzheimer’s disease and is receiving a medication regimen. What is that medication regimen most likely to be?

a. an antidepressant and antipsychotic medications
b. Cognex or Aricept
c. vitamin B12 supplements
d. benzodiazepines with antidepressants

 

19. Compared to younger people, what are those over age 65 more likely to experience difficulty with?

a. speech
b. anxiety
c. psychological difficulties
d. emotional affect

 

20. Which of the following is NOT a psychological or social factor influencing the risk for developing neurocognitive disorder?

a. level of formal education
b. diet
c. personality traits, such as hostility
d. participation in sports such as boxing

 

21. In addition to its use in detecting neurocognitive disorder and Alzheimer’s disease, what can the Clock Test be useful for?

a. identifying the specific form of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
b. identifying which elderly individuals will develop neurocognitive disorder in the future
c. identifying family members who may be carrying the gene for Alzheimer’s disease
d. assessing the levels of cognitive functioning associated with various areas of the brain

 

22. What is the best way to think about the psychological and social influences involved in neurocognitive disorder?

a. They can help compare and contrast cultural influences.
b. They help determine the onset and course.
c. They are direct causes.
d. They have a minimal impact.

 

23. What appears to be the cause of HIV-related neurocognitive disorder?

a. side effects of medications used to treat HIV
b. opportunistic infections that impact HIV patients
c. chemical imbalances in the brain
d. the HIV infection itself

 

24. Karl is in the hospital for delirium. What can Karl’s family do to help his recovery?

a. exclude Karl from any medical decision to avoid increased anxiety
b. reassure Karl and surround him with familiar belongings
c. move Karl to a new hospital room to increase cognitive activity
d. restrain Karl to prevent self-harm and allow the delirium to wear off

 

25. What causes most cognitive disorders?

a. prescription drug interactions
b. brain dysfunction
c. a frontal lobe head injury
d. the normal process of aging

 

26. How do the symptoms of neurocognitive disorder differ from those of delirium?

a. The initial symptoms of neurocognitive disorder are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium.
b. The symptoms of neurocognitive disorder involve memory, while the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language.
c. Neurocognitive disorder symptoms develop from underlying medical conditions, while delirium symptoms are a result of other factors.
d. Neurocognitive disorder symptoms develop slowly over time, while delirium symptoms develop quickly.

 

27. Which of the following is a known characteristic of more than half of caregivers of people with major neurocognitive disorder?

a. They become clinically depressed.
b. They develop substance abuse problems as a result of the caregiving responsibilities.
c. They develop the same neurocognitive disorder as the person they are caring for.
d. They are physically abusive.

 

28. What disorder is associated with the formation of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques?

a. Pick’s disease
b. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
c. Huntington’s disease
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

 

29. Only some patients go on to develop neurocognitive disorder after being diagnosed with which of the following diseases?

a. Parkinson’s disease and Pick’s disease
b. Pick’s disease and Huntington’s disease
c. Alzheimer’s disease and Huntington’s disease
d. Huntington’s disease and Parkinson’s disease

 

30. On the basis of research findings, what do most scientists now conclude about the relationship between aluminum and neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. It is almost indisputable.
b. It exists, but the typical levels of aluminum in our environment are so low as to pose a minimal risk.
c. It is very weak if it exists at all.
d. It is fairly strong.

 

31. According to genetic research, how is neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease caused?

a. There are many forms of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and each form may have somewhat different features and different genetic influences.
b. There are too many complex interactions to ever understand the causes of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.
c. There are one or two forms of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and each form may have a different genetic cause.
d. There are three identifiable forms of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, each with its own specific genetic influences.

 

32. Which of the following is a known characteristic of more than half of caregivers of people with major neurocognitive disorder?

a. They become clinically depressed.
b. They develop substance abuse problem as a result of the caregiving responsibilities.
c. They develop the same neurocognitive disorder as the person they are caring for.
d. They are physically abusive.

 

33. In contrast to patients with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, what symptoms are patients with vascular neurocognitive disorder more likely to have?

a. memory impairment during the late stages
b. abnormalities in walking or muscle weakness during the early stages
c. memory impairment during the early stages
d. abnormalities in walking or muscle weakness during the late stages

 

34. What does an episode of delirium often indicate?

a. the presence of a medical condition that is causing the brain to dysfunction
b. that the individual is about to experience a progressive decline in cognitive functioning
c. that the individual is suffering from another psychological disorder
d. a significant chance of death within the next eight years

 

35. Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. His son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith was confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He did not know his own name and could not recognize his son. His son reports that he had been completely fine, with no symptoms, prior to that morning. What does Mr. Smith appear to be suffering from?

a. amnestic disorder
b. delirium
c. neurocognitive disorder
d. Alzheimer’s disease

 

36. Why is the term “organic mental disorder” no longer used to describe cognitive disorders?

a. because the term implies that there is no effective treatment
b. because cognitive disorders are actually thought disorders
c. because research has found that most psychological disorders have an “organic” component
d. because the term implies that there are no psychosocial influences on their onset and course

 

37. If the findings from the study regarding the writings of a group of Catholic nuns (Massie et al., 1996) are correct, which of the following individuals is most likely to eventually develop neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. Mary, whose writing has many religious themes
b. Cashmira, whose writing is mostly about animals
c. Marius, whose writing is very descriptive and a bit bizarre
d. Lisa, whose writing describes events in very brief terms

 

38. Which of the following environmental stressors appears to be a significant factor in the later development of neurocognitive disorder (including the Alzheimer’s disease)?

a. smoking
b. repeated head trauma
c. poverty
d. exposure to high levels of aluminum

 

39. Which of the following is more likely to be caused by neurocognitive disorder due to HIV than neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. short-term memory loss
b. death
c. severe depression
d. long-term memory loss

 

40. What is the biological version of the theory that states that formal education helps insulate people from the effects of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. cortical activity theory
b. cerebral reserve hypothesis
c. neuronal network theory
d. mind-body hypothesis

 

41. Based on known facts about the genetic influences on Alzheimer’s disease, it appears that there may be several genetic causes, which may influence the course and age of onset for the disorder. For example, genetic research has found an association between chromosome 14 and chromosome 19 and specific types of Alzheimer’s disease. What are these types, respectively?

a. late onset and early onset
b. early onset and late onset
c. irreversible and reversible
d. reversible and irreversible

 

42. How are the amyloid plaques that accumulate in the brains of Alzheimer’s patients best described?

a. as gummy protein deposits
b. as plaques of dead nerve cells
c. as tangled, strand-like filaments
d. as mineral deposits

 

43. If you had 100 Canadians over the age of 85, how many would have neurocognitive disorder?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30

 

44. Which of the following is NOT a known cause of neurocognitive disorder?

a. HIV
b. diabetes
c. vitamin B12 deficiency
d. head trauma

 

45. Although the sample size is small, the results of a study (Massie et al., 1996) that looked at the writings of a group of Catholic nuns suggest that the development of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease might be predicted in early life by analyzing an individual’s writing. What aspect of the writing is analyzed?

a. emotional tone
b. idea density
c. word usage
d. errors

 

46. Why are biological treatments for major neurocognitive disorder usually ineffective?

a. There are no biological treatments to regenerate neurons.
b. Medications that improve cognitive functioning have unpleasant physical side effects so patients refuse to take them.
c. Medications to treat major neurocognitive disorder only work on a small segment of sufferers with a very specific type of tissue damage.
d. Treatments are very expensive and thousands of treatments are needed for any effect to be seen.

 

47. Which chromosome was first linked to the onset of Alzheimer’s disease?

a. 2
b. 14
c. 19
d. 21

 

48. What were major and minor neurocognitive disorders called in the DSM-IV-R?

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. delirium
c. axon-depleting cytosis
d. dementia

 

49. Which of the following hypotheses explains the observed differences in the rate of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease for individuals of varying educational levels?

a. The abilities acquired through formal education help compensate for some of the deficits of the disorder for a longer period.
b. Higher levels of formal education are associated with higher levels of income and better access to quality health care.
c. Higher levels of formal education are associated with lifestyles that include improved diet and higher levels of regular exercise.
d. Occupations associated with lower as compared to higher levels of formal education expose individuals to a greater range of environmental toxins and physical stressors.

 

50. What is the typical response to medication that can be expected for a neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease patient?

a. relief of physical but not cognitive symptoms
b. about one year without symptoms
c. temporary improvement in abilities
d. increasing life expectancy

 

51. The greatest likelihood of significant improvement in treatment occurs in neurocognitive disorder that is the result of which of the following?

a. stroke
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. infectious disease

 

52. Ted has been admitted to the hospital with delirium. Ted’s doctor thinks the delirium was caused by a medication Ted takes. Ted takes several medications, which ones is the doctor probably most concerned about?

a. those with neuroleptic effects
b. those with cholinergic effects
c. those with extra-pyramidal effects
d. those with anticholinergic effects

 

53. How is neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease best characterized?

a. by a few severe cognitive deficits that develop quickly
b. by a few severe cognitive deficits that develop gradually and steadily
c. by multiple cognitive deficits that develop gradually and steadily
d. by multiple cognitive deficits that develop quickly

 

54. Which of the following is a psychosocial treatment strategy for people with neurocognitive disorder?

a. weekly family story time (narratives)
b. combining storytelling and photo album viewing
c. frequently reviewing family photo albums
d. creating memory wallets

 

55. It is thought that similar genes are involved in Alzheimer’s disease and another illness. What is the other illness?

a. Huntingdon’s disease
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Down syndrome
d. delirium

 

56. What are the two most frequent causes of neurocognitive disorder?

a. biochemical processes and head trauma
b. Alzheimer’s disease and vascular neurocognitive disorder
c. Alzheimer’s disease and biochemical processes
d. head trauma and vascular neurocognitive disorder

 

57. Now that genetic screening tests for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease are available, what is one of the ethical questions facing professionals?

a. whether to give genetic information when there is a chance that prospective parents may choose to abort a fetus
b. whether this information would be helpful to high-risk individuals
c. whether to provide genetic information on the basis of whether they themselves would want to have that information
d. what, how, and when to give genetic information

 

58. What is the main reason that people who test positive for the genes associated with Alzheimer’s disease do not always develop the disease?

a. Psychological and biological stressors interact with physiological processes to produce Alzheimer’s disease.
b. The screening tests are often inaccurate.
c. Some forms of the disease are subclinical, in that they never manifest themselves in overt behaviour.
d. We still know so little about the brain processes involved.

 

59. Ivan is suffering from “agnosia.” What task will Ivan NOT be able to do?

a. recognize and name objects
b. process incoming sensory information
c. produce or understand language
d. find his way around in familiar surroundings

 

60. Shizana is showing early signs of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. Her family asks her doctor how the disease will likely progress. What will the doctor say about the typical progression of the disease?

a. It is rapid during the early and late stages and slow during the middle stages.
b. It is slow during the early stages and late stages and rapid during the middle stages.
c. It is slow and progressive throughout the individual’s life.
d. It is slow in the early stages and rapid during the late stages.

 

61. Alice is being discharged from the hospital after being treated for delirium. How long did it take to treat her symptoms?

a. probably about a day
b. probably about a week
c. probably about a month
d. probably about six weeks

 

62. What is the outcome for patients with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. variable depending on the individual response to treatment
b. stabilization at some level of greatly reduced cognitive ability
c. slow recovery
d. death

 

63. Barrie has neurocognitive disorder. What is the MOST likely cause of this disorder?

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. syphilis
c. improper use of prescription drugs
d. a history of substance abuse

 

64. What does glial cell–derived neurotrophic factor (GDNF) do?

a. It preserves and possibly restores neurons.
b. It breaks down amyloid plaques.
c. It regulates dopamine production.
d. It cures hypothyroidism.

 

65. How does the rate of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease differ when comparing different demographic groups?

a. No differences in the rate of the disorder by race or gender have been noted.
b. Males and certain racial groups appear to have lower rates of the disorder.
c. No differences are found in the rate of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease by race, but women appear to have a slightly higher rate of the disorder than men.
d. No differences are found in the rate of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease by gender, but some racial differences have been noted.

 

66. What is the main reason we do NOT have an effective treatment for neurocognitive disorder?

a. The disorder mostly affects the elderly who generally have many other health problems.
b. We do not have a way to replace damaged neurons.
c. The cause is genetic.
d. By the time neurocognitive disorder is accurately diagnosed, the damage is too widespread.

 

67. What gender is at greater risk of developing vascular neurocognitive disorder?

a. It is greater for women than men.
b. It is equal for men and women.
c. It is greater for men in Western cultures, but equal for men and women in other cultures.
d. It is greater for men than women.

 

68. A program coordinator is trying to estimate how many of the ten neurocognitive patients in her day group have Alzheimer’s. How many can she estimate will be found to have Alzheimer’s?

a. one
b. three
c. five
d. seven

 

69. Which of the following factors can trigger delirium?

a. food deprivation
b. excessive stress
c. cardiovascular difficulties
d. isolation

 

70. Ms. Martin, an 89-year-old hospital inpatient, has had six room changes in the last two weeks. Considering the results of research into the effects of environmental factors on the cognitive functioning of the hospitalized elderly, what disorder would Ms. Martin likely begin to demonstrate?

a. delirium
b. amnestic disorder
c. neurocognitive disorder
d. Alzheimer’s disease

 

71. Dr. Farber published a journal article about the first symptom reported by people who are in the initial stages of neurocognitive disorder. What was the topic of the paper?

a. facial recognition
b. disorientation
c. loss of memory for how to do things
d. loss of memory for recent events

 

72. How does death ultimately occur in victims of neurocognitive disorder?

a. as the result of inactivity combined with the onset of other illnesses such as pneumonia
b. as the result of interactions between and complications from medications used to treat the disorder
c. as the result of ever-decreasing levels of neurotransmitter activity
d. as the result of an ever-increasing loss of brain mass

 

73. Bill has HIV and has developed a neurocognitive disorder. What part of Bill’s brain is likely the source of Bill’s neurocognitive problems?

a. the cortex
b. the hindbrain
c. the brain stem
d. the subcortex

 

74. Helen has had impaired consciousness over the last two days. She had not had symptoms of illness before this. What condition does Helen most likely have?

a. neurocognitive disorder
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. delirium
d. amnestic disorder

 

75. Which of the following individuals has the greatest risk of developing neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. Rena, who completed university, although she has an average IQ
b. Paul, who is wealthy and well educated
c. Carrie, who dropped out of school when she was very young
d. Jack, who is extremely bright but never finished university

 

76. What is one of the distinguishing characteristics between disability due to cognitive functions and disability due to psychological conditions?

a. There is a much greater genetic contribution to disability due to cognitive functions than there is for disability due to psychological conditions.
b. Disability due to cognitive functions is more frequent after age 65; disability due to psychological conditions is less frequent after age 65.
c. Disability due to psychological conditions is more frequent after age 65; disability due to cognitive functions is less frequent after age 65.
d. Disability due to cognitive functions is mostly organic in origin; disability due to psychological conditions is mostly psychosocial in origin.

 

77. What is the status regarding gene testing for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. It is impossible to screen for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease because there are so many genes involved.
b. Some tests are available to the public for screening for the early-onset and late-onset forms of the disease.
c. There are currently no valid tests to screen for Alzheimer’s disease.
d. Some screening tests have been developed for research purposes, but they are not yet available to the public.

 

78. When do symptoms of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease typically appear?

a. when a person is in their 40s or 50s
b. when a person is in their 50s or 60s
c. when a person is in their 60s or 70s
d. when a person is in their 70s or 80s

 

79. After turning 50, Sabrina began to be teased a lot from her family about being “absentminded.” In truth, she has been hiding the fact that each week she seems to remember less and less. Last month, she got lost while driving home from work and had relied on a hand-drawn map. Sabrina also has trouble recognizing the faces of people she knows and forgets why she started to do something. What disorder does Sabrina appear to be developing?

a. amnestic disorder
b. delirium
c. neurocognitive disorder
d. Alzheimer’s disease

 

80. One test that is often used to help detect neurocognitive disorder and Alzheimer’s disease asks the patient to complete a test involving a clock. What might a patient be asked to do?

a. Tell the time as well as the date and year.
b. Explain the difference between 8:30 a.m. and 8:30 p.m.
c. Make up a story about the clock being in someone’s home.
d. Put the numbers on the clock and place the clock’s hands in the position to show the time as 11:10.

 

81. A major study in Sweden was conducted to consider possible preventative strategies for neurocognitive disorder. It included 1810 participates who were older than 65 at the time, and followed them for about 13 years. Through medical histories and interviews, what did the study conclude?

a. You should lean toward a vegetarian diet and maintain a life of physical activity.
b. Earlier genetic counselling is critical.
c. It is important to control your blood pressure and lead a physical and social life.
d. It is important to eat well and stay engaged in academically stimulating activities.

 

82. What is the approximate average survival time of a patient diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a. 4 years
b. 8 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years

 

83. If neurocognitive disorder is caused by a process that has damaged the dopamine pathways in Jane’s brain, what can we assume is the cause of her neurocognitive disorder?

a. head trauma
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Huntington’s disease
d. Alzheimer’s disease

 

84. How are the neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques associated with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease observed?

a. only during an EEG examination
b. only during an autopsy
c. only on functional brain scans (fMRI)
d. only on MRI or CT brain scans

 

85. Dr. Thomas tell Gary’s family he is fairly certain that Gary has neurocognitive disorder. Gary’s family asks Dr. Thomas how he came to his conclusion. What does Dr. Thomas say?

a. “I ruled out alternative explanations for his symptoms.”
b. “I looked at the results of a functional brain scan.”
c. “I reviewed psychological and neurological test results.”
d. “I looked at the results from an MRI.”

 

86. Patients with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease benefit from certain medications. What do these medications do?

a. prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine
b. repair neuronal damage
c. enhance the level of dopamine
d. prevent the reuptake of serotonin

 

87. What is the primary goal of most psychosocial treatments for neurocognitive disorder?

a. to help the patient compensate for lost abilities
b. to treat the anxiety associated with knowing that the disorder is progressive
c. to enhance family functioning
d. to relieve depression

 

88. Paul’s father has delirium. Paul has two choices, admit his father to the hospital or try to wait out the delirium at home. Which option should Paul choose and why?

a. the hospital option because in hospital recovery is associated with better long-term outcomes
b. the hospital option to help reduce the risk of self-harm by the patient
c. at home because the risk of developing other neurocognitive problems during a hospital stay is too high
d. at home because all Paul’s father needs is rest

 

89. How is recent research regarding the biological processes and genetic factors associated with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease best viewed?

a. as significant findings that build upon an already extensive body of research
b. as preliminary findings that need to be studied further
c. as interesting theories regarding influences, though of little potential use for finding a way to predict and treat neurocognitive disorder
d. as hypotheses that have yet to be tested

 

90. When do most instances of delirium, neurocognitive disorder, and amnestic disorders develop?

a. following brainstem injuries that occur with equal frequency at all ages
b. in late adulthood when cognition is not functioning normally
c. in late adulthood as part of the normal aging process
d. following complications at birth

 

91. Dr. Lloyd is certain that one of his patients had Alzheimer’s disease.  How can he be certain?

a. His family members report all the symptoms.
b. The mental status exam indicated Alzheimer’s disease.
c. Psychological testing indicated Alzheimer’s disease.
d. An autopsy indicated Alzheimer’s disease.

 

92. If you had 100 Canadians over the age of 65, how many would have neurocognitive disorder?

a. 3
b. 8
c. 10
d. 20

 

93. Serge has been admitted to the hospital with delirium brought on by withdrawal from alcohol. What medication will his doctor likely prescribe to help treat the delirium?

a. an antibiotic medication
b. an antidepressant medication
c. a benzodiazepine medication
d. an antipsychotic medication

 

94. Compared to most disorders, what is so unusual about Huntington’s disease?

a. It is the result of one gene.
b. It is associated with subcortical impairment.
c. It is a cause of neurocognitive disorder.
d. It is influenced by many genes.

 

95. The symptoms of neurocognitive disorder associated with substance dependence are similar to the symptoms observed in a specific illness. What is the illness?

a. Huntington’s disease
b. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
c. vascular neurocognitive disorder
d. HIV-induced neurocognitive disorder

 

96. How are the different types of neurocognitive disorder identified?

a. Vascular neurocognitive disorder has a more rapid onset and patients suffer a much more rapid demise than with the other forms of neurocognitive disorder.
b. Vascular neurocognitive disorder has a more rapid onset than neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, although the course and outcome are similar.
c. Vascular neurocognitive disorder has a much slower onset than neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, but patients suffer a much more rapid demise than with the other forms of neurocognitive disorder.
d. Vascular neurocognitive disorder has a more rapid onset and results in fewer deficits than neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.

 

97. Why are the symptoms of vascular neurocognitive disorder so different in each patient?

a. The symptoms relate to the patient’s individual biochemical processes.
b. The symptoms relate to the area of the brain damaged.
c. The symptoms relate to the vascular health.
d. The symptoms depend upon the person’s other medical conditions.

 

98. Sixty-year-old Fred has the typical early symptoms of neurocognitive disorder. What does the fact that he has abnormalities in walking and weakness in his limbs suggest?

a. His neurocognitive disorder is caused by a vascular neurocognitive disorder.
b. His neurocognitive disorder is influenced by a medication.
c. His neurocognitive disorder is due to multiple influences.
d. His neurocognitive disorder is caused by Alzheimer’s disease.

 

 

99. Describe some research findings regarding the possible influences on the development of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. Make sure that your description covers genetic findings as well as information regarding the degenerative process that occurs in the brain.

 

100. Describe the differences and similarities of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and vascular neurocognitive disorder. Explain ways of determining if neurocognitive disorder is due to Alzheimer’s disease or vascular problems. Why it is not always possible to determine the actual cause of neurocognitive disorder while the patient is alive?

 

101. Based on our current understanding of the biological, psychological, and social influences on the development of neurocognitive disorder, provide two examples of how the prevalence of some forms of neurocognitive disorder might be expected to differ between preindustrial rural societies and industrial urban societies. As well, provide a cross-cultural example in an explanation of how neurocognitive disorder might be less likely to be diagnosed in a society very different from mainstream Canadian society.

 

102. Describe the typical causes of delirium and how it is treated.

 

103. What are some of the issues that caregivers must face when dealing with a patient with Alzheimer’s disease?

 

104. Explain the relationship that has been observed between formal education and the development of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. What psychosocial and neurological explanations have been offered for this observation?

 

105. Explain how neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease is usually treated. Include information about medication and psychosocial therapies. How would you characterize the success of the currently available treatment options for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease?

 

106. Describe the symptoms of neurocognitive disorder and delirium, noting similarities and differences. What do the symptoms of each of these disorders have in common? What features are unique to each disorder?

 

107. Assume that you had a relative who was beginning to develop significant deficits associated with early neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. Describe several compensating strategies that you could help develop to aid the individual’s functioning. What kinds of tools could the patient use to keep from getting lost, to remember important information, and to stay safe? Be creative!

 

 

111. Labelling a patient with a diagnosis is often referred to as a “double-edged sword,” as the diagnostic label can both help and hurt the patient. Explain the advantages and disadvantages (to the patient) of a diagnostic label.