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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
 
Anatomy And Physiology 6th Edition By Elaine N. Marieb – Test Bank
 
Sample  Questions

 

Exam

 

Name___________________________________

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine 1)

allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein, and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. Which of the following would stop transport of glucose through this transport protein?

  1. A) Increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell.
  2. B) Increasing the number of digestive enzymes in the digestive tract.
  3. C) Lowering the energy of activation.
  4. D) Stopping the activity of the sodium potassium pump.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

2) A gene can best be defined as ________. 2)
  1. noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long
  2. an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide
  3. a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
  4. a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA? 3)
  1. Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.
  2. rRNA is always attached to the rough ER.
  3. There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid.
  4. If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCCAGU.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

4) Which of the following is not a function of lysosomes? 4)
  1. breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood
  2. degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles
  3. help in the formation of cell membranes
  4. digesting particles taken in by endocytosis

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

5) The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is 5)
________.
A) ssRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6) If active transport establishes a concentration gradient with the use of ATP, then the concentration 6)
gradient can be looked at as ________.
  1. a byproduct of active transport that will be alleviated by pinocytosis
  2. unwanted pressure that will be alleviated by channel mediated facilitated diffusion
  3. an unusable byproduct of active transport that will simply diffuse away
  4. potential energy that can be harnessed when molecules passively diffuse down the concentration gradient

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

7) Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals 7)

known as “second messengers”?

  1. A) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.
  2. B) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell.
  3. C) Second messengers act through receptors called K-
  4. D) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2

 

8) Some hormones enter cells via ________. 8)
A) pinocytosis B) primary active transport
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9) Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages? 9)
A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis
C) exocytosis D) intracellular vesicular trafficking
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
10) Which of the following will not speed up the net rate of diffusion for glucose into a cell? 10)
  1. Decreasing the concentration of glucose within the cell.
  2. Increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell.
  3. Decreasing the number of phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
  4. Increasing the number of glucose transport proteins within the plasma membrane.

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

11) If a human cell were to increase the amount of cholesterol embedded within its plasma membrane 11)
which of the following would most likely happen?
  1. The plasma membrane would become more fluid and the phospholipids less stable.
  2. The plasma membrane would become more stable, less fluid and less permeable.
  3. The plasma membrane would become more permeable to ions and less permeable to lipids.
  4. The cell would form a plaque that could potential block a blood vessel.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

12) The main component of the cytosol is ________.                                                                                                        12)

  1. A) salts B) water C) proteins                            D) sugars

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3

 

13) Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion? 13)
A) The lower the temperature, the faster the rate.
B) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate.
C) The rate is independent of temperature.
D) The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
14) If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA 14)
synthesis is ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA?
A) TGCAA B) UGCAA C) GUACC D) ACGTT
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
15) Passive membrane transport processes include ________. 15)
  1. consumption of ATP
  2. the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
  3. movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
  4. movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

16) If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is 16)
impermeable, what could happen?
  1. The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.
  2. The cells will lose water and shrink.
  3. The cells will swell and ultimately burst.
  4. The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4

 

17) Bone is a connective tissue that provides support for the body with its strength and rigidity. Which 17)
of the following provides the best explanation for how this is so?
  1. Bone cells are very dense and therefore resist physical stress.
  2. The bone cell’s plasma membrane contains a high degree of cholesterol that stabilizes the cell membrane, giving it strength.
  3. Bones cells secrete an extracellular matrix that when combined with minerals becomes rock hard.

 

  1. Bone cells have extensive cytoskeleton that makes them ridged.

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

18) Colchicine is a drug that can prevent the formation of microtubules. Which is the most likely affect 18)
colchicine would have on cell division?
A) It would have little no effect on mitosis.
B) It will arrest mitosis by preventing the formation of spindle microtubules.
C) It would delay mitosis by preventing S phase.
D) It will enhance mitosis by moving chromosome toward the spindle equator.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
19) Beta cells in the pancreas produce and secrete the protein hormone insulin. You would expect to 19)
see a relatively large amount of which organelles in these cells?
A) mitochondria, and cilia
B) cytoskeleton, and peroxisomes
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and lysosomes
D) Golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)

C)

D)

 

20) Cancerous cells can divide so rapidly that they will often produce a glycocalyx that is different than 20) the other cells in the body. This may result in ________.

 

  1. allowing the cancer cells to bind to their healthy, neighboring cells
  2. cells of the immune system recognizing the tumorous cells as foreign and destroying them
  3. the cancer cells conserving energy for more growth
  4. a decrease in the permeability of the tumor cell’s plasma membrane preventing the uptake of chemotherapy drugs

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

5

 

21) Which of the following is not a factor that binds cells together? 21)
  1. A) glycoproteins in the glycocalyx
  2. B) glycolipids in the glycocalyx
  3. C) special membrane junctions
  4. D) wavy contours of the membranes of adjacent cells

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

22) Which of the following structures would aid a cell in allowing more nutrients to be absorbed by the 22)
cell?
A) microvilli B) stereocilia C) primary cilia D) flagella
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
23) Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? 23)
A) steroid-based hormone synthesis
B) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes
C) lipid metabolism and cholesterol synthesis
D) breakdown of stored glycogen to form free glucose
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
24) Peroxisomes ________. 24)
  1. sometimes function as secretory vesicles
  2. are functionally the same as lysosomes
  3. function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis
  4. are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6

 

25) A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine 25)
allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the
transport protein, and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the
diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. This transport protein would best be
described as ________.
A) a symporter B) a channel
C) a carrier protein D) a pump
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
26) The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of 26)
pinwheel array of 9 triplets of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a
________.
A) centrosome B) ribosome C) chromosome D) centriole
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
27) Which of these is an inclusion, not an organelle? 27)
A) microtubule B) cilia C) melanin D) lysosome
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
28) In a tissue type that undergoes a relatively great deal of mechanical stress, like the tissue that lines 28)
the intestine, you would expect to see an abundance of ________ between the individual cells of the
tissue.
A) connexons B) desmosomes C) gap junctions D) tight junctions
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
29) Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a 29)
considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high
amount of which organelle in these cells?
A) cytoskeleton B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) mitochondria D) lysosomes
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

7

 

30) A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________. 30)
  1. swell and burst
  2. swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
  3. shrink
  4. neither shrink nor swell

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

31) The myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) undergoes a significant amount of physical stress due to 31)
its contractions. You would expect to see relatively large numbers of which of the following
embedded within their plasma membrane?
A) glycolipids B) transport proteins
C) tight junctions D) desmosomes
Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

32) Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure? 32)
  1. Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.
  2. The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell.
  3. All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the outside of the cell.
  4. Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

33) Mitochondria ________. 33)
  1. contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
  2. contain digestive enzymes called acid hydrolyses
  3. are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP
  4. synthesize proteins for use outside the cell

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8

 

34) The lungs deliver a regular supply of oxygen to the blood, which is in turn circulated to most all the 34) cells of the body. At the same time oxygen is consumed during aerobic cellular respiration within

 

these cells. This implies that ________.

  1. the rate of oxygen diffusion is independent of concentration
  2. oxygen requires active transport to enter most cells
  3. the concentration gradient for oxygen is steepness inside of the cell
  4. oxygen will passively diffuse into the cells

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

35) Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to 35)

 

________.

  1. the presence or absence of ubiquitins

 

  1. specific tRNAs
  1. specific codes from the DNA

 

  1. changes in the environment

 

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

36) When tissues are injured or infected, chemical signals can be releases that affect the plasma 36)
membrane of cells that line the nearby blood vessels. These blood vessels cells (endothelial cells)
respond to the chemical signals by displaying a type of glycoproteins on their surface. These
proteins will attach to circulating white blood cells bringing them to the site of injury or infection.
These glycoproteins would best be described as ________.
A) Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs) B) desmosomes
C) transport proteins D) G-proteins
Answer: A
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)
37) Which of the following would not assist in establishing a resting membrane potential? 37)
  1. Selective diffusion allowing more positively charged ions to diffuse out of the cell.
  2. Selective diffusion allowing fewer positively charged ions to diffuse into the cell.
  3. Having greater concentration of glycolipids on the outside surface of the membrane.
  4. Selective diffusion allowing more uncharged particles into the cell.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9

 

38) Which of the following describes the plasma membrane? 38)
  1. a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
  2. a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
  3. a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
  4. a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

39) Mitosis ________. 39)
  1. creates diversity in genetic potential
  2. is division of the genetic material within the nucleus
  3. is always a part of the cell cycle
  4. is the formation of sex cells

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

40) Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein? 40)
A) molecular transport through the membrane
B) forms a lipid bilayer
C) oxygen transport
D) circulating antibody
Answer: A
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)

 

41) In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________. 41)
A) the smooth ER B) the rough ER
C) the cytoplasm D) both smooth and rough ER

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10

 

42) The functions of centrioles include ________. 42)
  1. organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
  2. serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis
  3. providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces
  4. producing ATP

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

43) A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize ________. 43)
A) receptor-mediated endocytosis B) pinocytosis
C) phagocytosis D) exocytosis
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
44) In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes uncoil and resume their chromatin 44)
form?
A) telophase B) prophase C) anaphase D) metaphase
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
45) If a cell is selectively reducing the concentration of a particular enzyme in the extracellular fluid it 45)
will likely utilize ________.
A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis
C) exocytosis D) receptor-mediated endocytosis
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
46) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the membrane potential? 46)
  1. The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes.
  2. The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+

 

  1. The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump.
  2. In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

11

 

47) Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ________. 47)
A) a hypertonic solution B) an isotonic solution
C) a hypotonic solution D) blood plasma
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
48) The movement of water across the plasma membrane can be described by all of the following except 48)
________.
A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion through aquaporins
C) carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion D) passive membrane transport
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
49) Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane? 49)
A) glycoproteins B) glycolipids
C) messenger RNA D) phospholipids
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
50) If a cell is non-selectively engulfing samples of extracellular fluid, for example to absorb nutrients, 50)
it will likely utilize ________.
A) receptor-mediated endocytosis B) phagocytosis
C) pinocytosis D) exocytosis
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
51) If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon. 51)
A) AUG B) UGA C) TCG D) UCG
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

12

 

52) Which transport process is the main mechanism for the movement of most macromolecules by 52)
body cells?
A) pinocytosis B) phagocytosis
C) secondary active transport D) receptor-mediated endocytosis
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
53) Which of the following would not be restricted (limited) by low levels of ATP? 53)
A) pinocytosis B) osmosis C) exocytosis D) phagocytosis
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.2

 

Using Figure 3.2, match the following:

 

54) Unique glycoproteins and glycolipids involved in cell recognition. 54)

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

13

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.1

 

Using Figure 3.1, match the following:

 

55) Site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material. 55)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

14

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.2

 

Using Figure 3.2, match the following:

 

56) Integral protein. 56)

 

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.1

 

Using Figure 3.1, match the following:

 

57) When ruptured it releases the enzymes responsible for autolysis. 57)
Answer: C
Explanation:
58) Site of synthesis of lipid and steroid molecules. 58)
Answer: A
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

16

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.2

 

Using Figure 3.2, match the following:

 

59) Nonpolar region of phospholipid. 59)
Answer: C
Explanation:
60) Hydrophilic portion of phospholipid. 60)
Answer: B
Explanation:
61) Peripheral protein. 61)
Answer: E
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

17

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.1

 

Using Figure 3.1, match the following:

 

62) Replicate for cell division. 62)
Answer: D
Explanation:
63) Packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis. 63)
Answer: E
Explanation:
64) Forms the mitotic spindle. 64)
Answer: D
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

18

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.2

 

Using Figure 3.2, match the following:

 

65) Polar region of phospholipid. 65)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

19

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.1

 

Using Figure 3.1, match the following:

 

66) Produces ATP aerobically. 66)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

20

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 3.2

 

Using Figure 3.2, match the following:

 

67) Glycocalyx. 67)

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

 

68) Dividing cells must pass through the phases of mitosis the following order: Prophase, Metaphase, 68)
Anaphase, and Telophase.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
69) Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has the exactly same genetic composition. 69)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
70) Interstitial fluid represents one type of extracellular material. 70)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
71) The genetic information encoded in DNA by the regular alternation of sugar and phosphate 71)
molecules.
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

 

21

 

72) Integral proteins can form channels through the plasma membrane. 72)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
73) The glycocalyx is composed of glycolipids, glycoproteins and cholesterol molecules that are 73)
displayed on the outside surface of the plasma membrane.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
74) Osmosis is the passive movement of water but it follows almost completely opposite laws of 74)
physics when compared to the diffusion of ions or other small particles.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
75) Concentration differences cause ionic imbalances that polarize the cell membrane, and active 75)
transport processes.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
76) The speed of individual particle diffusion is influenced by temperature and particle size, not by 76)
concentration.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
77) Apoptosis is programmed cell suicide and involves the mitochondrial membrane. 77)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
78) Microtubules are hollow tubes made of subunits of the protein tubulin. 78)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
79) Introns represent a genome scrap yard that provides DNA segments for genome evolution and a 79)
variety of small RNA molecules.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
80) The protein ubiquitin tags healthy cells in the body. 80)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
81) Microfilaments are thin strands of the contractile protein composed of myosin. 81)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
82) DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication. 82)
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

22

 

83) Enzymes and proteins needed for cell division are synthesizes and put into place during G2 phase. 83)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
84) Aquaporins are believed to be present in red blood cells and kidney tubules, but not in any other 84)
cells in the body.
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

 

Match the following:

 

85) Provides the energy needed for                                   A) ATP

synthesis reactions.

 

Answer: A                                                                          B) Messenger RNA

 

  • Produced in the nucleus, this molecule specifies the exact sequence of amino acids of the protein to be made. Answer: B

 

Match the following:

 

87) Chromosomes align on the spindle A) Telophase
equator.
Answer: B B) Metaphase
88) Chromosomes uncoil to form
chromatin.

 

 

 

 

 

85)

 

 

 

 

86)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

87)

 

 

 

 

88)

 

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Help prevent molecules from passing through the extracellular space between adjacent cells.

 

Answer: A

 

  • Present in electrically excitable tissues. Answer: B

 

Match the following:

 

  • Forms part of the subunits for the protein synthesizing organelle. Answer: A

 

 

 

 

  1. Tight junctions

 

  1. Gap junctions

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Ribosomal RNA

 

 

 

 

89)

 

 

 

 

 

90)

 

 

 

 

 

91)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

23

 

Match the following:
92) Abundant in tissues subjected to great A) Desmosomes
mechanical stress.
Answer: A
Match the following:
93) The organelle that facilitates peptic A) Ribosomes
bond formation between amino acids.
Answer: A
Match the following:
94) Type of anchoring junction. A) Desmosomes
Answer: A
Match the following:
95) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus A) Late prophase
disintegrate.
Answer: A
Match the following:
96) The vast majority of the cell’s genetic A) Nucleus
material is housed here.

 

 

92)

 

 

 

 

 

 

93)

 

 

 

 

 

 

94)

 

 

 

 

 

95)

 

 

 

 

 

 

96)

 

 

Answer: A

 

  • Play a critical role in forming spindle fibers for cell division, organize and move organelles as well as giving shape to the cell.

 

Answer: B

 

  • Dense spherical bodies in the nucleus that are the synthesis site for ribosomal RNA.

 

Answer: C

 

Match the following:

 

  • Attaches the correct amino acid to its transfer RNA.

 

Answer: A

  1. Microtubules

 

  1. Nucleoli

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Synthetase enzymes

 

 

97)

 

 

 

 

 

 

98)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

99)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

24

 

Match the following:

 

  • Plays a role in the synthesis of steroid-based hormones and proteins. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Allows ions and small molecules to pass through from one cell to another. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • A molecule that binds to a specific codon and specific amino acid simultaneously.

 

Answer: B

 

  • May be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Chromosomal centromeres split and chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell.

 

Answer: B

 

  • Centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell.

 

Answer: A

 

  1. A) Endoplasmic reticulum

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Gap junctions

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Ribosomal RNA

 

  1. Transfer RNA

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Early prophase

 

  1. Anaphase

 

 

100)

 

 

 

 

 

 

101)

 

 

 

 

 

 

102)

 

 

 

 

 

103)

 

 

 

 

 

 

104)

 

 

 

 

 

105)

 

 

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

 

  • In all living cells hydrostatic and osmotic pressures exist. Define these pressures and explain how they are used in the concept of tonicity of the cell.

 

Answer: Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of water exerted on the cell membrane. Osmotic pressure is created by different concentrations of molecules in a solution separated by the cell membrane. Because these pressures are exerted on the membrane they can be used by the cell to change the shape of the cell, regulate substances entering and exiting the cell, and change the osmolarity of the cell.

 

  • Why can we say that a cell without a nucleus will ultimately die?

 

Answer: Without a nucleus, a cell cannot make proteins, nor can it replace any enzymes or other cell structures (which are continuously recycled). Additionally, such a cell could not replicate.

 

  • The most common extracellular ion is ________. Answer: sodium

 

 

 

 

25

 

  • What are nucleolar organizer regions?

 

Answer: nuclear regions containing the DNA that issues genetic instructions for synthesizing ribosomal RNA

 

  • At the age of 6 months, Caleb was diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. As his primary care physician, what would you tell his parents about this disease?

 

Answer: It is an inherited condition where various chemicals are broken down in the brain by a cell organelle called the lysosome. Unfortunately, because of the buildup of undigested nerve cell lipids, the symptoms of listlessness and motor weakness will progress to mental retardation, seizures, blindness, and ultimately death.

 

  • Your patient has the flu and reports 5-6 loose stools a day. He has experienced an isotonic fluid volume loss. Explain what an isotonic fluid loss means.

 

Answer: An isotonic fluid volume loss occurs when water and electrolytes are lost in equal proportion.

 

  • Compare a gap junction to a channel protein, how are they alike and how are the different?

 

Answer: Both allow ions and small molecules to pass through by diffusion. However, gap junctions are embedded within in the plasma membranes of two neighboring cells. The alignment and connection of the gap junctions between the neighboring cells allows the passage of ions and small molecules directly from one cell into another.

 

  • What factors contribute to the fragility of the lysosome and subsequent cell autolysis?

 

Answer: cell injury, cell oxygen deprivation, presence of excessive amounts of vitamin A in the cell

 

  • Other than the nucleus, which organelle has its own DNA? Answer: Mitochondria.

 

  • How are peroxisomes different from lysosomes?

 

Answer: Peroxisomes contain oxidases that use oxygen to detoxify harmful substances. They are very good at neutralizing free radicals. Peroxisomes directly bud from the ER. Lysosomes contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes that will pretty much destroy anything they come in contact with. They are manufactured by the Golgi apparatus.

 

  • Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in the ________. Answer: mitochondria

 

  • Briefly name the subphases of interphase and tell what they do.

 

Answer: G1 – growth phase. The cell is metabolically active and the centriole begins to divide at the end of this phase.

 

S – DNA replicates itself. New histones are made and assembled into chromatin.

G2 – Enzymes and proteins are synthesized and centriole replication is completed. This is the final phase of interphase.

 

  • What are cell exons and introns?

 

Answer: Exons are amino acid-specifying informational sequences in genes. Introns are noncoding gene segments that provide a reservoir of ready-to-use DNA segments for genome evolution and a source of a large variety of RNA molecules.

 

  • The RNA that has an anticodon and attaches to a specific amino acid is ________ RNA. Answer: transfer

 

 

 

26

 

  • Research shows that neurofibrillary tangles associated with the disintegration of microtubules are the primary cause of Alzheimer’s disease. If microtubules disintegrate, what then might happen to brain cells?

 

Answer: Microtubules determine cell shape and intracellular movement. They are dynamic organelles constantly growing from the centrosome, dissembling, and then reassembling. Without microtubules, the elongated brain cell might either lose shape or lose its ability to move materials from end to end and keep its distant parts well-supplied and alive. Loss of signal followed by cell death result.

 

  • Are random moments of particles, diffusion, and osmosis seen only in living tissue?

 

Answer: No. Because they are passive processes that do not require energy, they can occur in the absence of any cellular processes.

 

  • Why can we say that cells are protein factories?

 

Answer: Most of the metabolic machinery of the cell is involved in protein synthesis since structural proteins

constitute most of the dry cell material and functional proteins direct all cellular activities.

 

  • ________ is the division of the cytoplasmic mass into two parts. Answer: Cytokinesis

 

  • The metabolic or growth phase of a cell life cycle is called ________. Answer: interphase

 

  • The process of discharging particles from inside a cell to the outside is called ________. Answer: exocytosis

 

  • List possible causes of aging.

 

Answer: 1. chemical insults and free radical formation (wear and tear theory)

  1. diminished energy production by free radical-damaged mitochondria
  2. progressive disorders in the immune system
  3. genetic programming

 

  • Follow the pathway that a typical protein, destined for exocytosis will make as it passes from the ribosome, into the rough endoplasmic reticulum. In your answer be sure to describe role that ribosomes play, and the events that take place in the Rough Endoplasmic reticulum.

 

Answer: A new polypeptide is translated at the ribosome and is threaded into the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). Within the RER the protein is aided in folding by chaperone proteins and modifications, like the addition of carbohydrates can be made to the protein here. The protein will be placed into a vesicle that will migrate from the RER to the cis-face of the Golgi apparatus.

 

  • Describe the events that take place within the Golgi apparatus to a protein that is destined for secretion by the cell into the extracellular fluid.

 

Answer: Within the Golgi apparatus, further modifications of the protein can take place, like the addition of phosphate groups. The folded and processes protein will then be “tagged” and sent by vesicle from the trans-face of the Golgi apparatus to the plasma membrane for exocytosis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

27

 

  • A patient was admitted to the hospital for severe dehydration. Explain what changes occur in extracellular and intracellular fluid compartments during dehydration.

 

Answer: Fluid volume deficit occurs when the body loses both water and electrolytes from the extracellular fluid compartment. Fluid is initially lost from the intravascular compartment (blood). Then fluid is drawn from the interstitial compartment into the intravascular compartment, depleting the interstitial compartment. To compensate for the decreased volume, the body then draws intracellular fluid out of the cells. This could lead to collapse and death.

 

  • Describe the difference in cell division between normal cells and cancer cells.

 

Answer: Normal cells divide in two distinct events – mitosis and cytokinesis which are well-controlled. Cancer cells divide wildly, with uncontrollable mechanisms and defective mitosis, sometimes ending in unequal chromosome sets, which makes them dangerous to their host.

 

  • Your patient has a respiratory disease that has literally paralyzed the cilia. Explain why this patient would be at an increased risk for a respiratory infection.

 

Answer: Ciliated cells that live in the respiratory tract propel mucus, laden with dust particles and bacteria, upward and away from the lungs. If the cilia are paralyzed, bacteria remain in the lungs and may cause infection.

 

  • What processes maintain a steady state “resting” membrane potential?

 

Answer: Both diffusion and active transport mechanisms operate within the cell membrane to maintain a resting membrane potential.

 

  • Explain the term genetic code. What does it code for? What are the letters of the code?

 

Answer: The genetic code is the information encoded in the nucleotide base sequence of DNA. A sequence of three bases, called a triplet, specifies an amino acid in a protein. The letters of the code are the four nucleotide bases of DNA designated as A, T, C, and G.

 

  • Water may move through membrane pores constructed by transmembrane proteins called ________. Answer: aquaporins

 

  • Describe two important functions of the Golgi apparatus. Answer: To modify, sort, and package proteins.

 

  • What are lipid rafts? What are their functions?

 

Answer: They are assemblies of saturated phospholipids associated with sphingolipids and cholesterol. They are concentrating platforms for molecules needed for cell signaling.

 

  • How is the resting potential formed? How is it maintained?

 

Answer: It is formed by diffusion-limited concentration differences of ions resulting in ionic imbalances that polarize the membrane. It is maintained by active transport processes.

 

  • How are the products of free ribosomes different from membrane-bound ribosomes?

 

Answer: Free ribosomes make soluble proteins that function in the cytosol. Membrane-bound ribosomes produce proteins that are to be used on the cell membrane or exported from the cell.

 

  • A red blood cell would swell if its surrounding solution were ________. Answer: hypotonic

 

 

 

 

 

28

 

  • Briefly describe the glycocalyx and its functions.

 

Answer: The glycocalyx is the sticky, carbohydrate-rich area on the cell surface. It helps bind cells together and provides a highly specific biological marker by which cells can recognize each other.

 

  • Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of water exerted on the cell membrane. Osmotic pressure is created by different concentrations of molecules in a solution separated by the cell membrane. Because these pressures are exerted on the membrane they can be used by the cell to change the shape of the cell, regulate substances entering and exiting the cell, and change the osmolarity of the cell.

 

  • Without a nucleus, a cell cannot make proteins, nor can it replace any enzymes or other cell structures (which are continuously recycled). Additionally, such a cell could not replicate.

 

  • sodium
  • nuclear regions containing the DNA that issues genetic instructions for synthesizing ribosomal RNA
  • It is an inherited condition where various chemicals are broken down in the brain by a cell organelle called the lysosome. Unfortunately, because of the buildup of undigested nerve cell lipids, the symptoms of listlessness and motor weakness will progress to mental retardation, seizures, blindness, and ultimately death.

 

  • An isotonic fluid volume loss occurs when water and electrolytes are lost in equal proportion.
  • Both allow ions and small molecules to pass through by diffusion. However, gap junctions are embedded within in the plasma membranes of two neighboring cells. The alignment and connection of the gap junctions between the neighboring cells allows the passage of ions and small molecules directly from one cell into another.

 

  • cell injury, cell oxygen deprivation, presence of excessive amounts of vitamin A in the cell
  • Peroxisomes contain oxidases that use oxygen to detoxify harmful substances. They are very good at neutralizing free radicals. Peroxisomes directly bud from the ER. Lysosomes contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes that will pretty much destroy anything they come in contact with. They are manufactured by the Golgi apparatus.

 

  • mitochondria
  • G1 – growth phase. The cell is metabolically active and the centriole begins to divide at the end of this phase. S – DNA replicates itself. New histones are made and assembled into chromatin.

 

G2 – Enzymes and proteins are synthesized and centriole replication is completed. This is the final phase of interphase.

 

  • Exons are amino acid-specifying informational sequences in genes. Introns are noncoding gene segments that provide a reservoir of ready-to-use DNA segments for genome evolution and a source of a large variety of RNA molecules.

 

  • transfer
  • Microtubules determine cell shape and intracellular movement. They are dynamic organelles constantly growing from the centrosome, dissembling, and then reassembling. Without microtubules, the elongated brain cell might either lose shape or lose its ability to move materials from end to end and keep its distant parts well-supplied and alive. Loss of signal followed by cell death result.

 

  • Because they are passive processes that do not require energy, they can occur in the absence of any cellular processes.

 

  • Most of the metabolic machinery of the cell is involved in protein synthesis since structural proteins constitute most of the dry cell material and functional proteins direct all cellular activities.

 

  • Cytokinesis
  • interphase
  • exocytosis
  • chemical insults and free radical formation (wear and tear theory)
    1. diminished energy production by free radical-damaged mitochondria
    2. progressive disorders in the immune system
    3. genetic programming

 

 

 

 

 

32

 

Answer Key

 

Testname: C3

 

 

 

  • A new polypeptide is translated at the ribosome and is threaded into the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). Within the RER the protein is aided in folding by chaperone proteins and modifications, like the addition of carbohydrates can be made to the protein here. The protein will be placed into a vesicle that will migrate from the RER to the cis-face of the Golgi apparatus.

 

  • Within the Golgi apparatus, further modifications of the protein can take place, like the addition of phosphate groups. The folded and processes protein will then be “tagged” and sent by vesicle from the trans-face of the Golgi apparatus to the plasma membrane for exocytosis.

 

  • Fluid volume deficit occurs when the body loses both water and electrolytes from the extracellular fluid compartment. Fluid is initially lost from the intravascular compartment (blood). Then fluid is drawn from the interstitial compartment into the intravascular compartment, depleting the interstitial compartment. To compensate for the decreased volume, the body then draws intracellular fluid out of the cells. This could lead to collapse and death.

 

  • Normal cells divide in two distinct events – mitosis and cytokinesis which are well- Cancer cells divide wildly, with uncontrollable mechanisms and defective mitosis, sometimes ending in unequal chromosome sets, which makes them dangerous to their host.

 

  • Ciliated cells that live in the respiratory tract propel mucus, laden with dust particles and bacteria, upward and away from the lungs. If the cilia are paralyzed, bacteria remain in the lungs and may cause infection.

 

  • Both diffusion and active transport mechanisms operate within the cell membrane to maintain a resting membrane potential.

 

  • The genetic code is the information encoded in the nucleotide base sequence of DNA. A sequence of three bases, called a triplet, specifies an amino acid in a protein. The letters of the code are the four nucleotide bases of DNA designated as A, T, C, and G.

 

  • aquaporins
  • To modify, sort, and package proteins.
  • They are assemblies of saturated phospholipids associated with sphingolipids and cholesterol. They are concentrating platforms for molecules needed for cell signaling.
  • It is formed by diffusion-limited concentration differences of ions resulting in ionic imbalances that polarize the membrane. It is maintained by active transport processes.

 

  • Free ribosomes make soluble proteins that function in the cytosol. Membrane-bound ribosomes produce proteins that are to be used on the cell membrane or exported from the cell.

 

  • hypotonic
  • The glycocalyx is the sticky, carbohydrate-rich area on the cell surface. It helps bind cells together and provides a highly specific biological marker by which cells can recognize each other.

 

 

Exam

 

Name___________________________________

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1) The superior orbital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone, whereas the inferior orbital fissure is 1)
formed between the sphenoid and ________.
A) lacrimal B) ethmoid C) palatine D) maxilla
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
2) The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? 2)
Where do they start and stop?
A) Boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull.
B) Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures.
C) Bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings.
D) The boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
3) The range of motion as well as the direction of motion for the various regions of the spine differs. 3)
For example the lumbar spine is capable of flexion and extension but little rotational movement.
While the thoracic spine rotates with little flexion or extension. This is due to variation in ________.
A) the composition of the intervertebral disks
B) the arrangement of muscular attachment to the spinous processes
C) the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets
D) the thickness of the intervertebral disc
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4) Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________. 4)
  1. applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping
  2. giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock
  3. providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities
  4. limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

5) Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming and humidifying 5)
inhaled air?
A) the bones comprising the orbits B) the cranial bones
C) the paranasal sinuses D) hyoid bone
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6) Which of the bones of the skull would you most associate with hearing and balance? 6)
A) the occipital bone B) the parietal bone
C) the zygomatic bone D) the temporal bone
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7) The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone? 7)
A) sphenoid B) vomer C) ethmoid D) maxilla
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
8) The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________. 8)
A) lambdoid B) coronal C) sagittal D) squamous
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9) The axial skeleton includes ________. 9)
  1. the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis
  2. arms, legs, hands, and feet
  3. the skull, the scapula and the vertebral column
  4. the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2

 

10) During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. 10)

Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________.

  1. A) styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone
  2. B) pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles
  3. C) crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place
  4. D) perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

11) The “true wrist” or carpus consists of ________. 11)
  1. the phalanges
  2. the metacarpals
  3. a group of eight short bones united by ligaments
  4. the styloid processes of the radius and ulna

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

12) Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones? 12)
A) maxillae B) zygomatic bones
C) vomer D) nasal conchae
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

13) How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae? 13)
  1. There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12.
  2. The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs.
  3. The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum.
  4. The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3

 

14) Which vertebra does not have a body? 14)
A) last lumbar B) last cervical C) atlas D) axis
Answer: C
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)
15) The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. 15)
This mobility comes at a cost because ________.
  1. muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power
  2. these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate
  3. the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion
  4. the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

16) Along with support, the anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column also acts to 16)
________.
A) hold the spine erect B) prevent hyperextension of the spine
C) hold the discs in place D) protect the spinal cord
Answer: B
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)
17) The sphenoid bone is sometimes referred to as a “key stone” of the skull. This is due to the fact that 17)
________.
  1. the intricate shape of the sphenoid makes it critical to the district characteristics of the individual human face

 

  1. the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it articulates (joins) with all of the other bones of the skull (excluding the mandible)

 

  1. the sphenoid is wedged in the superior most portion of the skull and supports all of the other bones below (excluding the mandible)

 

  1. the sphenoid bone is solid like a stone and provides the strength necessary to support the skull

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4

 

18) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. 18)
  1. is the only irregular bone found in the neck
  2. is composed of three bones joined together
  3. is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
  4. is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

19) When looking at the range of motion of the various sections of the vertebral column the ________ 19)
has the most flexibility
A) sacral spine B) cervical spine C) thoracic spine D) lumbar spine
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
20) The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. The rounded 20)
trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. This forms a joint that allows
for ________.
A) the rotational motion of the forearm B) the curling of the fingers
C) the hyper extension of the forearm D) the hinge like motion of the forearm
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
21) Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to 21)
preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy?
A) scoliosis B) kyphosis C) hunchback D) lordosis
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
22) Of the list below, select the one that gives the least explanation for the relatively high mobility of 22)
the arms.
A) The scapula does not articulate to the axial skeleton directly.
B) The relatively open glenoid cavity of the glenohumeral joint.
C) The clavicle articulates to the axial skeleton at only the sternal end.
D) The subscapular notch is a passage way for nerves.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

5

 

23) Which of the following bones is not weight bearing? 23)
A) talus B) fibula C) tibia D) femur
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
24) The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones? 24)
A) the scapula and the clavicle B) the humerus and the radius
C) the radius and the ulna D) the humerus and the clavicle
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
25) The anatomy of the thoracic cage provides ridged support and protection but at the same time is 25)
also flexible and mobile. Of the list below, which feature does not aid in the flexibility and
movement of the thoracic cage?
  1. the costal cartilages
  2. the jugular notch
  3. the costal spaces occupied by costal muscle
  4. the sternal angle

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

26) The proximal end of the radius illustrates the relationship of form and function. The cup-like 26)

surface of the radial head articulates with the rounded shape of the capitulum. This forms a joint that allows for ________.

 

 

  1. the hyper extension of the forearm

 

  1. the curling of the fingers
  1. the rotational motion of the forearm

 

  1. the hinge like motion of the forearm

 

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

27) Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the 27)
body?
A) the lumbar region B) the cervical region
C) the sacral promontory D) the sacrum

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

6

 

28) What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs? 28)
  1. to hold together the vertebra and support the body
  2. to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine
  3. to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column
  4. to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

29) Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones? 29)
  1. house the special sense organs
  2. allowing introduction of food into the digestive system
  3. providing passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body
  4. protection of the brain

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

30) Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal? 30)
A) medial cuneiform B) cuboid
C) lateral cuneiform D) calcaneus

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

31) What is the major function of the axial skeleton? 31)
  1. provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
  2. provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement
  3. give the body resilience
  4. provide a space for the major digestive organs

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7

 

32) Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses? 32)
  1. Sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no know function.
  2. The paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through.
  3. Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones.
  4. Sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment.

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

33) Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum? 33)
A) perpendicular plate B) crista galli
C) orbital plate D) cribriform plate
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
34) Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae? 34)
A) supination B) rotation
C) lateral flexion D) flexion and extension
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
35) Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue? 35)
A) zygomatic bone B) mandible C) hyoid bone D) palatine
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
36) Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus? 36)
A) calcaneus B) head
C) lateral malleolus D) medial malleolus
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8

 

37) The pelvic girdle does not include the ________. 37)
A) ischium B) femur C) ilium D) pubis
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
38) Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs? 38)
A) the cranial bones B) hyoid bone
C) the facial bones D) the bones of the inner ear
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
39) Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek? 39)
A) zygomatic bone B) palatine bone C) sphenoid bone D) temporal bone
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
40) Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________. 40)
A) costal facets B) no transverse processes
C) no intervertebral discs D) transverse foramina
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
41) The sella turcica is part of the ________ bone and houses the ________ gland. 41)
A) sphenoid; thymuss B) sphenoid; pituitary
C) ethmoid; pituitary D) ethmoid; thymus
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9

 

42) The hypothalamus is a region of the brain controlling many aspects of the endocrine system. It 42)
works closely with the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is directly superior to the pituitary and is
therefore ________.
A) the only region of the brain that is outside of the skull
B) inferior to the cribriform plate
C) superior to the sella turcica
D) superior to the crista galli
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
43) Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the 43)
thoracic region?
A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) swayback D) scoliosis
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10

 

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 7.2

 

Using Figure 7.2, match the following:

 

44) Anchor the pterygoid muscles. 44)

 

Answer: E

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

11

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 7.1

 

Using Figure 7.1, match the following:

 

45) Articulates with hip bones of the pelvis. 45)
Answer: D
Explanation:
46) Transverse foramina allow the passage of vertebral arteries. 46)
Answer: A
Explanation:
47) Contains a pivot joint that allows you to rotate your head “no.” 47)
Answer: A
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

12

 

48) No canals or foramen present. 48)
Answer: E
Explanation:
49) Includes the atlas and the axis. 49)
Answer: A
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 7.2
Using Figure 7.2, match the following:
50) Forms parts of the middle cranial fossa, dorsal walls of the orbits, and external walls of the 50)
skull.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 7.1

 

Using Figure 7.1, match the following:

 

51) Attach to ribs. 51)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

14

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 7.2

 

Using Figure 7.2, match the following:

 

52) Passageway for optic nerve. 52)
Answer: A
Explanation:
53) Allow cranial nerves that control eye movements to enter the orbit. 53)
Answer: D
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

15

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 7.1

 

Using Figure 7.1, match the following:

 

54) Bares most of the weight. 54)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

16

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 7.2

 

Using Figure 7.2, match the following:

 

55) Encloses pituitary gland. 55)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

 

56) All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina. 56)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
57) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae. 57)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
58) Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum. 58)
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

17

 

59) In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius. 59)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
60) In women of childbearing age, the dimensions of the true pelvis are of utmost importance. 60)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
61) The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts the movement of the humerus but does increase 61)
the stability of the joint.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
62) The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra. 62)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
63) The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the anatomical neck. 63)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
64) The fibula is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg. 64)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
65) The term vertebrochondral ribs refers to the “false ribs,” that attach to each other before they attach to 65)
the sternum.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
66) The frontal bone articulates with the parietal bone by means of the sagittal suture. 66)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
67) The temporal bone connects to the zygomatic bone via the temporal process of the temporal bone. 67)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
68) The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis. 68)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
69) The dens articulates with the occipital bone. 69)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
70) The mastoid sinuses are located at a position in the skull where they are usually free from 70)
infections.
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

18

 

71) Most of the body’s weight is carried by the talus and calcaneus. 71)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
72) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. 72)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
73) All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore 73)
immovable.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
74) The vertebral column is held in place primarily by the anterior and posterior longitudinal 74)
ligaments.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
75) The lacrimal bone contains a grove that forms part of lacrimal fossa. Along with the soft tissue of 75)
the lacrimal sac, these structures drain tears from the eye into the nasal passage.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
76) The largest and strongest bone of the face is the maxilla. 76)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
77) The vomer along with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone forms the bony part of the nasal 77)
septum.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
78) The pituitary gland is housed in a saddle-like depression in the temporal bone called the sella 78)
turcica.
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

 

Match the following:

 

79) The fingers have three of these bones A) Phalanges 79)
and the thumb has only two.
Answer: A
Match the following:
80) Coronal suture. A) Connects parietal and frontal bones. 80)

Answer: A

 

 

 

 

19

 

  • Occipitomastoid suture. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • These very small bones are at the medial wall of each orbit. Answer: A

 

  • The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.

 

Answer: B

 

Match the following:

 

  • Forearm bone that articulates with most of the carpals.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • The fused rudimentary tailbone. Answer: A

 

  • These bones have the thickest body (centrum) with short blunt spinous processes.

 

Answer: C

 

  • Allows the head to nod “yes.” Answer: B

 

Match the following:

 

  • This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear.

 

Answer: B

 

  • Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.

 

Answer: A

 

  • This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity.

 

Answer: C

  1. A) Connects occipital and temporal bones.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Lacrimal bones

 

  1. Sphenoid

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Radius

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Coccyx

 

  1. Atlas

 

  1. Lumbar vertebrae

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Maxillae

 

  1. Temporal bones

 

  1. Lacrimal bones

81)

 

 

 

 

 

82)

 

 

 

 

83)

 

 

 

 

 

 

84)

 

 

 

 

 

 

85)

 

 

86)

 

 

 

 

 

87)

 

 

 

 

 

88)

 

 

 

 

89)

 

 

 

 

 

90)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

20

 

Match the following:

 

  • Sagittal suture. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • These bones have articular facets for the ribs.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Squamosal suture. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • This bone articulates with the glenoid fossa.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • The bones that contain teeth. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Allows the head to shake “no.” Answer: B

 

  • The bone that articulates with the occipital condyles.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Lambdoid suture. Answer: A

 

  1. Connects right and left parietal bones.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Thoracic vertebrae

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Sphenoid

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Connects temporal and parietal bones.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Humerus

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Maxillae

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Atlas

 

  1. Axis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Connects occipital and parietal bones.

 

 

91)

 

 

 

 

 

92)

 

 

 

 

 

 

93)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

94)

 

 

 

 

 

95)

 

 

 

 

 

 

96)

 

 

 

 

 

97)

 

 

98)

 

 

 

 

 

 

99)

 

 

 

 

 

 

21

 

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

 

  • What structure is the “missing” body of the second cervical vertebrae? Answer: dens

 

  • The medial condyle of the femur articulates with the medial condyle of the ________. Answer: tibia

 

  • Identify the arches of the foot and describe how they are maintained.

 

Answer: There are three arches: the medial and lateral longitudinal arches, and the transverse arch. Together they form a half-cone that distributes the weight of the body. They are maintained by the shape of the foot bones, strong ligaments, and by the pull of some tendons.

 

  • Only the ________ vertebrae have transverse foramina. Answer: cervical

 

  • Describe the composition of the intervertebral discs.

 

Answer: Intervertebral discs are composed of an inner semifluid nucleus pulposus, which gives the discs elasticity and compressibility, and a covering of fibrocartilage, the annulus fibrosus, which limits expansion and holds successive vertebrae together.

 

  • After having a severe cold accompanied by nasal congestion, Jamila complained that she had a headache just above her eyes and that the right side of her face ached. What specific bony structures probably became infected by the bacteria or viruses causing the cold?

 

Answer: The paranasal sinuses, specifically the frontal sinus located in the frontal bone and the right maxillary sinus located in the right maxilla.

 

  • What is the purpose of the articular processes of the vertebrae?

 

Answer: These processes (superior and inferior) allow the vertebral column to flex forward some, but lock the vertebrae if the column is flexed back and limit rotation to avoid injury to the spinal cord and its nerve roots. In a four-legged animal, such as a horse, these processes allow the back to remain in place while you ride it.

 

  • The largest foramen in the body is the ________ foramen. Answer: obturator

 

  • How do the first two cervical vertebrae differ from other cervical vertebrae? What are their functions?

Answer: The atlas or C1 vertebra has no body. It articulates with the skull with large curved articular surfaces to allow the skull to rock in a “yes” motion. The axis or C2 vertebra has a projection called the dens that allows the axis to pivot, giving the head the “no” motion. The vertebral foramen of the atlas is enlarged so that when the head is pivoted in the “no” motion, the spinal cord can move.

 

  • How might low back pain be related to poor abdominal muscle tone?

 

Answer: If the abdominal muscles are weak and can’t maintain contraction, the belly sags forward, increasing the amount of lordosis. With greater curvature, the ligaments and muscles of the back undergo greater strain in order to maintain alignment of the vertebrae and counterbalance the shift in the center of gravity.

 

  • The ________ is the bone confined to the septum of the nose. Answer: vomer

 

 

 

22

 

  • When administering chest compression to someone whose heart has stopped beating, the heel of the hand should be placed on the sternum on a line drawn between the nipples. Why would it be a problem if the hand was placed at a lower part of the sternum?

 

Answer: The compressions could break the xiphoid process of the sternum and drive it into the heart, diaphragm, or liver resulting in possibly deadly complications.

 

  • Your “cheekbone” is mostly formed from the ________ bone. Answer: zygomatic

 

  • The smallest short bone in the hand is the ________. Answer: pisiform

 

  • Why is the area just distal to the tubercles of the humerus called the surgical neck?

 

Answer: This area is called the surgical neck because it is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus.

 

  • The lateral condyle of the femur articulates with the lateral condyle of the ________. Answer: tibia

 

  • The styloid process of the ________ points to the thumb. Answer: radius

 

  • What is the purpose of the vertebral curvatures?

 

Answer: Their purpose is to increase the resilience and flexibility of the spine, allowing it to function like a spring rather than a rigid rod.

 

  • What is the function of the lumbar curvature?

 

Answer: It positions the weight of the trunk over the body’s center of gravity, thus providing optimal balance when standing.

 

  • Sharon is a 32-year-old horse trainer. While training a young horse, she was thrown off of the horse and suffered a mild head injury. The nurse inquires about the use of a helmet. Sharon replies, “This is the first time I have ever had a head injury from a horse. I don’t think I need a helmet.” Based on your understanding of the skull, how should the nurse respond to the patient?

 

Answer: the skull protects the brain from blows. A helmet would add extra protection in sports where there is an increased risk for head injury.

 

  • How are the pectoral and pelvic girdles structurally different? How is this difference reflected in their functions?

 

Answer: The pectoral girdle moves freely across the thorax and allows the upper limb a high degree of mobility, while the pelvic girdle is secured to the axial skeleton to provide strength and support. This is why the glenoid cavity of the scapula is relatively shallow and the acetabulum of the pelvis is a deep socket.

 

  • Identify the four major cranial sutures in any order and the bones they connect. Answer: Coronal parietal and frontal

 

  1. Sagittal between the parietal bones
  2. Squamous parietal and temporal
  3. Lambdoidal parietal and occipital

 

 

 

 

 

 

23

 

  • You are a school nurse in a middle school. You are responsible for screening the children for scoliosis. What is involved in this screening?

 

Answer: Scoliosis literally means “twisted disease” and is an abnormal rotational curvature causing lateral deviation that occurs most often in the thoracic region. It is quite common during late childhood. The nurse would need to observe the child standing erect, disrobed from the waist up. An older girl may leave her bra on. The child is observed from behind and the nurse would note any asymmetry of the shoulders and hips. With the child bending forward so that the back is parallel to the floor, the nurse may observe from behind, noting tilting of the rib cage.

 

  • If the hyoid bone is not attached to another bone why is it so important?

 

Answer: The hyoid acts as an attachment point for muscles in the neck region to connect the muscles in the lower jaw region. It allows for the muscles to make a right angle at the junction of the lower jaw and throat. The hyoid serves as a movable base for the tongue and its horns are attachment points for neck muscles that raise and lower the larynx during speech and swallowing.

 

  • Sam is an accountant who is especially busy during tax season. By the end of each day he complains of shoulder stiffness and tightness as well as some upper back pain. What might be Sam’s problem and how could he prevent the discomfort?

 

Answer: Sam is probably sitting hunched over his desk rather than sitting up properly. This can result in kyphosis and resulting upper back pain and stiffness. Sam needs to practice good posture and/or invest in an ergonomic chair to help him maintain the proper thoracic vertebral curve.

 

  • Jason is a 14-year-old who recently had his nose pierced through the nasal septum. He tells his mother that the area is very tender and warm to the touch. The area is also red. The mother calls the pediatrician’s office and the nurse recommends that the mother bring Jason in for evaluation. The nurse explains to the mother that a local infection can spread and cause serious harm. Where do you think the infection could spread and why?

 

Answer: Infection of nasal piercings can spread to the brain and cause serious complications. Infections in the brain may occur because of the direct extension from ear, tooth, mastoid, or sinus infections.

 

  • Describe the differences between the bones of the lower and upper limb and briefly state why these differences exist.

 

Answer: The lower limbs carry the weight of the body and are subjected to exceptional forces. These bones are thicker and stronger. The upper limb bones are adapted for flexibility and mobility and are therefore smaller and lighter.

 

  • The heel bone is called the ________. Answer: calcaneus

 

  • A skeleton was found in a wooded area. It was brought to a forensic medicine laboratory for identification. The first thing the coroner did was determine the age, sex, and possible size of the person. What was examined in order to get this information?

 

Answer: By examining the shape of the pelvic inlet, the depth of the iliac fossa, the characteristics of the ilium, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis, one could determine the sex. Also significant for determining the sex of the skeleton are the position of the acetabulum, the shape of the obturator foramen, and the general design of the ischium. To determine the age of the individual, bone density, the status of growth plates, and markings are important. The markings where muscles were attached will reveal information about the mass and the general shape of the person.

 

  • Which vertebral curvature abnormality is the most serious? Why?

 

Answer: Scoliosis is the most serious abnormality, due to the pressure that can be placed on the lungs and resulting breathing difficulties.

 

 

24

 

 

 

 

 

  • tibia
  • There are three arches: the medial and lateral longitudinal arches, and the transverse arch. Together they form a half-cone that distributes the weight of the body. They are maintained by the shape of the foot bones, strong ligaments, and by the pull of some tendons.

 

  • cervical
  • Intervertebral discs are composed of an inner semifluid nucleus pulposus, which gives the discs elasticity and compressibility, and a covering of fibrocartilage, the annulus fibrosus, which limits expansion and holds successive vertebrae together.

 

  • The paranasal sinuses, specifically the frontal sinus located in the frontal bone and the right maxillary sinus located in the right maxilla.

 

  • These processes (superior and inferior) allow the vertebral column to flex forward some, but lock the vertebrae if the column is flexed back and limit rotation to avoid injury to the spinal cord and its nerve roots. In a four-legged animal, such as a horse, these processes allow the back to remain in place while you ride it.

 

  • obturator
  • The atlas or C1 vertebra has no body. It articulates with the skull with large curved articular surfaces to allow the skull to rock in a “yes” motion. The axis or C2 vertebra has a projection called the dens that allows the axis to pivot, giving the head the “no” motion. The vertebral foramen of the atlas is enlarged so that when the head is pivoted in the “no” motion, the spinal cord can move.

 

  • If the abdominal muscles are weak and can’t maintain contraction, the belly sags forward, increasing the amount of lordosis. With greater curvature, the ligaments and muscles of the back undergo greater strain in order to maintain alignment of the vertebrae and counterbalance the shift in the center of gravity.

 

  • vomer
  • The compressions could break the xiphoid process of the sternum and drive it into the heart, diaphragm, or liver resulting in possibly deadly complications.
  • zygomatic
  • pisiform
  • This area is called the surgical neck because it is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus.
  • tibia
  • radius
  • Their purpose is to increase the resilience and flexibility of the spine, allowing it to function like a spring rather than a rigid rod.
  • It positions the weight of the trunk over the body’s center of gravity, thus providing optimal balance when standing.

 

  • the skull protects the brain from blows. A helmet would add extra protection in sports where there is an increased risk for head injury.
  • The pectoral girdle moves freely across the thorax and allows the upper limb a high degree of mobility, while the pelvic girdle is secured to the axial skeleton to provide strength and support. This is why the glenoid cavity of the scapula is relatively shallow and the acetabulum of the pelvis is a deep socket.

 

  • Coronal parietal and frontal
    1. Sagittal between the parietal bones
    2. Squamous parietal and temporal
    3. Lambdoidal parietal and occipital
  • Scoliosis literally means “twisted disease” and is an abnormal rotational curvature causing lateral deviation that occurs most often in the thoracic region. It is quite common during late childhood. The nurse would need to observe the child standing erect, disrobed from the waist up. An older girl may leave her bra on. The child is observed from behind and the nurse would note any asymmetry of the shoulders and hips. With the child bending forward so that the back is parallel to the floor, the nurse may observe from behind, noting tilting of the rib cage.

 

  • The hyoid acts as an attachment point for muscles in the neck region to connect the muscles in the lower jaw region. It allows for the muscles to make a right angle at the junction of the lower jaw and throat. The hyoid serves as a movable base for the tongue and its horns are attachment points for neck muscles that raise and lower the larynx during speech and swallowing.

 

 

27

 

Answer Key

 

Testname: C7

 

 

 

  • Sam is probably sitting hunched over his desk rather than sitting up properly. This can result in kyphosis and resulting upper back pain and stiffness. Sam needs to practice good posture and/or invest in an ergonomic chair to help him maintain the proper thoracic vertebral curve.

 

  • Infection of nasal piercings can spread to the brain and cause serious complications. Infections in the brain may occur because of the direct extension from ear, tooth, mastoid, or sinus infections.

 

  • The lower limbs carry the weight of the body and are subjected to exceptional forces. These bones are thicker and stronger. The upper limb bones are adapted for flexibility and mobility and are therefore smaller and lighter.

 

  • calcaneus
  • By examining the shape of the pelvic inlet, the depth of the iliac fossa, the characteristics of the ilium, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis, one could determine the sex. Also significant for determining the sex of the skeleton are the position of the acetabulum, the shape of the obturator foramen, and the general design of the ischium. To determine the age of the individual, bone density, the status of growth plates, and markings are important. The markings where muscles were attached will reveal information about the mass and the general shape of the person.

 

  • Scoliosis is the most serious abnormality, due to the pressure that can be placed on the lungs and resulting breathing difficulties.

 

 

 

 

Exam

 

Name___________________________________

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

1) Complicated interlacing of the ventral rami form networks called nerve plexus. The crisscrossing of 1) the nerve fibers from the various spinal nerves is advantageous because ________.

 

  1. having several nerve fibers unite enhances motor function
  2. having several nerve fibers unite enhances sensory function
  3. viruses that infect us by moving through PNS nerves are prevented entry to the CNS
  4. injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

2) Regeneration within the CNS ________. 2)
  1. typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
  2. is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars
  3. is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
  4. is more successful than with the PNS

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

3) A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and 3)
right. Which of the following cranial nerves is not being tested?
A) the trochlear nerve (IV) B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
C) the oculomotor nerve (III) D) the abducens (VI)
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4) Tinnitus, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________. 4)
A) motion sickness B) conjunctivitis
C) Ménière’s syndrome D) strabismus
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1

 

5) The ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called ________. 5)
A) myopia B) hypopia C) presbyopia D) hyperopia
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6) The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________. 6)
A) bipolar cells B) rods and cones C) amacrine cells D) ganglion cells
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7) Color vision has much greater resolution than night vision (vision that is mostly in shades of gray). 7)
Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so?
  1. A larger proportion of the brain’s visual cortex is active during the day when our cone photo receptors are most active.

 

  1. There are many more cone photoreceptors in the eye than rod photoreceptors.
  2. There are several types of cone photoreceptors, each of which enrich the clarity and resolution of vision.
  3. A single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge to a single ganglion cell.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

8) A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of     8)

the following receptors has initiated this reflex?

  1. A) lamellae corpuscle B) tendon organ
  2. C) free nerve ending D) bulbous corpuscle

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2

 

9) Nutrients are delivered and waste products are carried away from the cells of the posterior 9)

segment of the eye by blood vessels. However, the cells in the cornea and lens (in the anterior segment) are avascular. Which is the best explanation for how these cells are maintained?

  1. These cells, like the cells of the corneal layer of the integument are not living cells.
  2. The metabolic activity of these cells is very low. They produce little waste and need few nutrients.
  3. The nutrients and waste products of the anterior segment diffuse into and through the vitreous humor of the posterior segment.

 

  1. The aqueous humor is continuously replenished and flows from the ciliary process to drain in the scleral venous sinus.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

10) The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following? 10)
  1. A) less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity
  2. B) a clouding of the lenses know as a cataract
  3. C) lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision
  4. D) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

11) Select the correct statement about olfaction. 11)
  1. Olfactory adaptation is only due to fading of receptor cell response.
  2. Olfactory receptors have a high degree of specificity toward a single type of chemical.
  3. Substances must be volatile and hydrophobic in order to activate olfactory receptors.
  4. Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

12) Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors? 12)
  1. All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.
  2. Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
  3. In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic.
  4. The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3

 

13) The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.                                                                                                   13)

  1. A) cochlear duct B) semicircular canals
  2. C) utricle D) macula

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

14) Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to 14) only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so

 

many colors?

  1. Color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors.
  2. Colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain.
  3. Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types.
  4. Shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white.

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

15) Transduction refers to conversion of ________. 15)
  1. stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential
  2. presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
  3. receptor energy to stimulus energy
  4. afferent impulses to efferent impulses

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

16) Overlap in the visual fields of our eyes ________. 16)
  1. leaves a blind spot anterior to the nose and in the lateral fields of vision
  2. allows us to subconsciously estimate the distance of objects based on the different angles the image strikes our two retinas
  3. is essentially a waste of brain processing for what is essentially the same image
  4. gives us higher visual acuity for small detail by doubling the number of photoreceptors that are being stimulated

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4

 

17) Bitter taste is elicited by ________. 17)
A) metal ions B) acids C) alkaloids D) hydrogen ions
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
18) The eye muscle that elevates and turns the eye laterally is the ________. 18)
A) inferior oblique B) lateral rectus
C) superior oblique D) medial rectus
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
19) The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve. 19)
A) femoral B) tibial
C) obturator D) common fibular
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
20) Photoreceptors are modified neurons. However, they differ from most neurons in the fact that 20)
________.
A) photoreceptors will hyperpolarize when stimulated
B) photoreceptors do not release neurotransmitters
C) photoreceptors are sensitive to energy changes in the external environment
D) photoreceptors do not have fluctuations in membrane potential
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
21) Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________. 21)
A) tactile discs B) Lamellar corpuscles
C) hair follicle receptors D) Meissner’s corpuscles
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5

 

22) Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________. 22)
A) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots B) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
C) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks D) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
23) Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate? 23)
A) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.
B) Visual pigment content is reduced in cones more than rods.
C) The impaired vision is caused by reduced cone function.
D) The most common cause is vitamin D deficiency.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
24) Select the correct definition. 24)
  1. Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation.
  2. Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body.
  3. Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures.
  4. Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

25) Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory 25) receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells?

 

  1. The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once.

 

  1. The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors is a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination.

 

  1. The olfactory pathway travels to location in the brain in which memories are formed and we simply mix this new sensory information with old memories.

 

  1. Taste receptors that are active at the same time influence the subtlety of what we smell.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6

 

26) Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life? 26)
A) retinal ganglion cells B) olfactory receptor cells
C) auditory outer and inner hair cells D) retinal bipolar cells
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
27) The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what 27)
nerve?
A) ulnar B) musculocutaneous
C) radial D) median
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
28) If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that 28)
nerve supplies?
A) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
C) a complete loss of sensation and movement
D) complete loss of sensation
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
29) Bill is a mechanic that works with vibrating tools. He also exerts force on his wrists when twisting 29)
wrenches and screws. Bill has a tingling sensation in the lateral portion of his hand. The doctor
suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following test might the doctor try on her patient?
  1. Have bill flex and extend his arm against resistance.
  2. Check for reflex on the medial condyle of the humerus with a rubber mallet.
  3. Check for hyperextension at the knuckles of the little and ring finger.
  4. Have bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7

 

30) A patient has lost vision on the left side of both eyes. The patient has likely suffered damage to 30)
________.
A) the optic chiasm B) the right optic tract
C) the retinas of the eyes D) the optic nerves
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
31) Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________. 31)
A) visual cortex B) motor cortex
C) back muscles D) brain stem reflex centers
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
32) As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________. 32)
A) outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
B) inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
C) inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
D) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
33) Another name for the primary visual cortex is ________. 33)
A) prestriate cortex B) collicular cortex
C) prefrontal cortex D) striate cortex
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
34) We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the 34)
position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These
sensations create awareness of our body’s positioning. The following receptors are most likely
responsible for this ability.
A) nociceptors B) interoceptors C) exteroceptors D) proprioceptors
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

 

 

8

 

35) There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the 35)
optic nerves?
A) bipolar cells B) rod cells C) ganglion cells D) cone cells
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
36) Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve? 36)
A) abducens B) trigeminal
C) vestibulocochlear D) accessory
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
37) Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? 37)
  1. effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
  2. receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
  3. effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
  4. receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

38) Which of the following is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an 38)

object at night?

  1. A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.
  2. B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
  3. C) The foveae are densely packed with cones.
  4. D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

39) Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________. 39)
  1. they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus
  2. they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery
  3. they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
  4. they show the routes of motor nerves

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

9

 

40) As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland. Which of 40)
the following nerves provided the stimulus?
A) the olfactory nerve (I) B) the optic nerve (II)
C) the vagus nerve (X) D) the facial nerve (VII)
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
41) Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be 41)
transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.
A) has no nerve supply B) does not contain connective tissue
C) is not a living tissue D) has no blood supply
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
42) The blind spot of the eye is caused by ________. 42)
  1. there are no photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye
  2. the macula lutea interrupts the nerve pathway
  3. an absents of cones in the foveae
  4. more rods than cones within the retina

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

43) Ceruminous glands are ________. 43)
  1. saliva glands found at the base of the tongue
  2. glands found in the lateral corners of your eye
  3. modified taste buds
  4. modified apocrine sweat glands

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10

 

44) Labyrinthitis is a medical condition often caused by viral infection, resulting in swelling and 44)

inflammation of the membranous labyrinth. Which of the following symptoms would you most associate with the condition of labyrinthitis?

 

  1. A) loss of hearing

 

  1. C) loss of balance and dizziness
  • ringing in the ears (tinnitus)

 

  • auditory hallucination

 

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

45) What prevents the eyelids from sticking together when the eyes close? 45)
A) ciliary gland secretions B) tarsal gland secretions
C) conjunctival fluid D) lacrimal fluid
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
46) Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to ________. 46)
A) high-acuity vision B) night vision
C) movement perception D) depth perception
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
47) Receptors for hearing are located in the ________. 47)
A) semicircular canals B) vestibule
C) tympanic membrane D) cochlea
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
48) Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear? 48)
A) pinna B) pharyngotympanic tube
C) tympanic membrane D) external acoustic meatus
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

11

 

49) The tarsal plate of the eyelid ________. 49)
  • assists in the act of winking
  • is connected to the levator palpebrae
  • is connected to the superior rectus muscle
  • is composed of connective tissue surrounding a thin cartilage plate

 

Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
50) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. 50)
A) lumbar plexus B) femoral plexus C) thoracic plexus D) sacral plexus
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
51) What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? 51)
A) aqueous humor B) iris C) lens D) cornea
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
52) Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the 52)
following?
A) olfactory B) facial C) trigeminal D) oculomotor
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
53) Light passes through the following structures in which order? 53)
  • vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
  • cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
  • cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
  • aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

12

 

54) Bell’s palsy is ________. 54)
  • characterized by loss of vision
  • characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles
  • characterized by paralysis of facial muscles
  • often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

55) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.                                                                                                55)

  1. A) sciatic B) femoral C) iliohypogastric               D) ilioinguinal

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

56) During dark adaptation ________. 56)
  1. the cones are activated
  2. the sensitivity of the retina decreases
  3. the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated
  4. rhodopsin accumulates in the rods

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

57) The sensation of loudness or the volume of a sound is detected by ________. 57)
  1. vibration along a greater length of the basilar membrane, stimulating a greater number of hair cells
  2. greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells
  3. high volume sounds can travel all the way the apex of the scala vestibule with enough energy remaining to deflect hair cells
  4. faster vibration of the basilar membrane resulting in a higher frequency of hair cell stimulation

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13

 

58) A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________. 58)
A) sciatica B) phantom limb pain
C) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy D) neurofibromatosis

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

59) Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________. 59)
  1. autonomic only
  2. rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses
  3. involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
  4. always mediated by the brain

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

60) A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may 60)
have damage to which of the following?
A) facial nerve (VIII) B) vagus nerve (X)
C) olfactory nerve (I) D) hypoglossal nerve (XII)
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
61) Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________. 61)
A) substances in solution B) the movement of otoliths
C) stretching of the receptor cells D) movement of a cupula
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
62) Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely 62)
explanation for this would be ________.
A) a perforated tympanic membrane
B) an overgrowth of bony tissue, fusing the ossicles together
C) damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct
D) middle ear infection
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

14

 

63) Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration. Which of the following 63)
is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation?
A) thermoreceptors B) mechanoreceptors
C) nociceptors D) proprioceptors
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
64) Which of the following is the best explanation for why night vision is fuzzy and indistinct? 64)
A) Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.
B) Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
C) The foveae are densely packed with cones.
D) As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
65) Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________. 65)
A) eye B) skin C) ears D) nose
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

  • Visible light fits between ________.

 

  • X rays and UV
  1. C) UV and infrared

66)

  • microwaves and radio waves
  • infrared and microwaves

 

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

67) Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color? 67)
  • Rods contain a single kind of visual pigment.
  • Cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
  • The foveae are densely packed with cones.
  • As many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

15

 

68) Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.                                                                           68)

  1. A) afferent nerves B) mixed nerves C) efferent nerves                D) motor nerves

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

69) All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________. 69)
A) pons B) thalamus
C) medulla D) reticular formation
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
70) A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve? 70)
A) olfactory B) accessory
C) glossopharyngeal D) vagus
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
71) Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________. 71)
A) occipital lobe of the cortex B) thalamus
C) chiasma D) superior colliculus
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
72) Which statement about sound localization is not true? 72)
  • It is difficult to discriminate sound sources in the midline.
  • It requires processing at the cortical level.
  • It requires input from both ears.
  • It uses time differences between sound reaching the two ears.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

16

 

73) Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related? 73)
  • quality of a sound : frequency of the sound
  • frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound
  • amplitude of a sound: intensity of the sound
  • frequency of sound waves: number of wavelengths

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

74) Some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessels. 74)
This stretch indicates the blood’s pressure. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best
fit the receptor type that is being described above?
A) thermoreceptors that are also interoceptors
B) mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
C) thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors
D) mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
75) Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? 75)
A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor.
B) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold.
C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential
called a transduction potential.
D) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor’s receptive field.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

76) A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a 76)
________.
A) flexor reflex B) tendon reflex
C) plantar reflex D) crossed-extensor reflex

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

17

 

77) The oval window is connected directly to which passageway? 77)
A) pharyngotympanic tube B) scala tympani
C) external acoustic meatus D) scala vestibuli
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
78) The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________. 78)
A) fungiform papillae B) basal cells
C) taste buds D) gustatory hairs
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
79) An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her 79)
patient’s eye. She records the reactivity of the patents pupils as they constrict when stimulated by
the light. This test supports which of the following?
  • The patient has suffered brain damage.
  • The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).
  • The patient has function of the trochlear nerve (IV).
  • The patient has lost function of the optic nerve (II).

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

80) Which receptors adapt most slowly? 80)
A) smell receptors B) touch receptors
C) nociceptors D) pressure receptors
Answer: D
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)
81) A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result? 81)
  • The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds.
  • The patient will have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear.
  • The patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo.
  • The patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing loss.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

18

 

82) What is the main function of the rods in the eye? 82)
A) vision in dim light B) color vision
C) depth perception D) accommodation for near vision
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
83) Which of the following is not a characteristic of olfactory receptor cells? 83)
A) They are chemoreceptors.
B) They are ciliated.
C) They have a short life span of about 60 days.
D) They are unipolar neurons.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
84) In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ________. 84)
A) lateral geniculate body B) primary visual cortex
C) optic chiasma D) medial retina
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
85) Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus’ strength is transmitted to the 85)
central nervous system from sensory nerves?
  1. An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus’s strength increases.
  2. Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases.
  3. More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus.
  4. Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus’ strength increases.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

86) Which of the following could not be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope? 86)
A) optic chiasma B) optic disc C) fovea centralis D) macula lutea

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

19

 

87) Taste buds are not found ________. 87)
A) in circumvallate papillae B) lining the buccal cavity
C) in filiform papillae D) in fungiform papillae
Answer: C
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)
88) What is a modiolus? 88)
  1. bone in the center of a semicircular canal
  2. a bony area around the junction of the facial, vestibular, and cochlear nerves
  3. bone around the cochlea
  4. a bone pillar in the center of the cochlea

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

89) Dark adaptation ________. 89)
  1. is much faster than light adaptation
  2. primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision
  3. involves accumulation of rhodopsin
  4. results in inhibition of rod function

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

90) Which of the following is true about photoreceptors? 90)
  1. Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow.
  2. In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis.
  3. If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color perceived is black.
  4. Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

20

 

91) In a person who is color blind, which of the following would you most expect to see? 91)
  1. A) absence of green or red cones in their foveae
  2. B) an inability to regenerate 11-cis-retinal after bleaching
  3. C) a loss of their peripheral vision
  4. D) a loss of functions in the rods of their retina

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

92) Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it? 92)
A) sweet-organic substances such as sugar and some lead salts
B) salty-metal ions
C) sour-acids
D) bitter-alkaloids
E) umami-triglycerides and fatty acids
Answer: E
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

 

93) The first “way station” in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of 93)
the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ________.
A) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus B) superior colliculi
C) visual cortex D) temporal lobe
Answer: A
Explanation:    A)
B)
C)
D)
94) Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________. 94)
  1. pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
  2. cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
  3. go to the superior colliculus only
  4. divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

21

 

95) If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of      95)

the following receptor types is causing this sensation?

  1. A) thermoreceptors B) nociceptors
  2. C) chemoreceptors D) mechanoreceptors

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

96) Select the correct statement about equilibrium.                                                                                                            96)

  • Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate.
  • Hair cells of both types of equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission.

 

  • Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
  • The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium.

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

97) The cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord) is the ________. 97)
A) glossopharyngeal B) vagus
C) accessory D) hypoglossal
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
98) Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome? 98)
A) axillary B) median C) radial D) ulnar
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

22

 

99) A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right 99)

arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________.

  1. A) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
  2. B) the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
  3. C) the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra
  4. D) spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

100) Select the statement that is most correct. 100)
  • The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
  • The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
  • Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.
  • Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

101) Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark. 101)
A) pretectal nuclei B) lateral geniculate body
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus D) superior colliculi
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
102) Damage to the medial rectus muscles would probably affect ________. 102)
A) refraction B) pupil constriction
C) convergence D) accommodation
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
103) An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________. 103)
A) otoliths B) spiral organ (of Corti)
C) cupula D) scala media
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

 

 

 

23

 

104) Flavor preferences, our likes and dislikes are said to have a “homeostatic value”. Which of the 104)
following is the best example of this homeostatic value for taste preferences?
  • Capsaicin is a chemical compound in chili peppers. Nociceptors in the mouth respond to this chemical with the sensation of heat.

 

  • Monosodium glutamate is a food additive that stimulates umami taste (gustatory) cells.
  • The temperature, smell and texture of foods will influence its overall taste.
  • Alkaloids are chemical compounds in plants that are frequently toxic “antifeedant” chemicals. Alkaloids are often unpleasantly bitter.

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

105) Injury to cervical vertebra C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________. 105)
  • part of the brain stem is located here
  • the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here
  • the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive there fibers from here
  • several ganglia are near this region that serve the heart

 

Answer: B

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

106) A bit of dust blows into and touches the cornea of the eye. Which of the following is likely to 106)
happen?
  • Nothing, because there is no sensory information sent from the cornea.
  • Stimulation of the optic nerve (II) will cause tears to flow from the lacrimal gland.
  • Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking.
  • Stimulation of the facial nerve (VII) will be perceived as pain.

 

Answer: C

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

107) Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?                                                            107)

  1. A) phrenic B) median C) radial                                D) ulnar

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

24

 

108) In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would 108)
________.
A) also flex B) adduct C) abduct D) extend
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
109) Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness? 109)
A) cochlear nerve degeneration B) middle ear infection
C) impacted cerumen D) otosclerosis
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
110) A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms 110)
on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which
cranial nerve has been damaged?
A) accessory B) hypoglossal
C) facial D) glossopharyngeal
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
111) After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. 111)
A) Golgi organs B) Schwann cells C) Wallerian cells D) dendrites
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
112) If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is ________. 112)
  • a small portion of light always enters the other eye
  • information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes
  • this in fact does not occur and information from both eyes is always separated
  • sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain

 

Answer: D

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

25

 

113) Striking the “funny bone” is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________. 113)
A) radial nerve B) median nerve C) sciatic nerve D) ulnar nerve
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
114) Select the statement below that is not true with regards to the process of light adaptation. 114)
A) Visual acuity is diminished.
B) Rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction.
C) The activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin.
D) Retinal sensitivity decreases.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
115) The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves? 115)
A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
B) pudendal and common fibular
C) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
D) common fibular and tibial
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
116) Motion sickness seems to ________. 116)
  • result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
  • respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins
  • respond best to medication that “boosts” vestibular inputs
  • result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

26

 

117) Dancers will use a technique called “spotting” when they perform spins of the body. By holding 117)

their head and eyes on a fixed point in front of them as their body spins they reduce the amount of head spinning and this prevents dizziness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why this works?

  • Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris.

 

  • This will help to reduce the lateral flection of the head and will prevent hyper polarization or depolarization of the hair cells in the macula.

 

  • When the eyes send a static vision of stability to the brain, it is tricked into believing the body is still and therefore dizziness will not occur.

 

  • This helps keep the motions detected by the eyes congruent (aligned) with the motions sensed by the vestibular apparatus.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:      A)

B)

C)

D)

 

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

 

118) An incorrectly placed intramuscular injection can cause injury to which nerve of the 118)

lumbar plexus?

 

Answer: sciatic

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

27

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.4

 

Using Figure 13.4, match the following:

 

119) Bipolar cells. 119)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

28

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.3

 

Using Figure 13.3, match the following:

 

120) Supplies the posterior body trunk. 120)
Answer: A
Explanation:
121) Supplies each muscle with fibers from more than one nerve. 121)
Answer: B
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.2

 

Using Figure 13.2, identify the following components of the reflex arc:

 

122) Motor neuron. 122)

 

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

29

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.5

 

Using Figure 13.5, match the following:

 

123) Consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer. 123)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

30

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.3

 

Using Figure 13.3, match the following:

 

124) All but T2-T12 branch and form nerve plexuses. 124)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

31

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.6

 

Using Figure 13.6, match the following:

 

125) Viscous liquid that holds the retina firmly against the pigmented layer. 125)
Answer: E
Explanation:
126) Hot chili peppers contain a chemical compound called capsaicin that stimulate which type 126)
of receptor?

 

Answer: nociceptors

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

32

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.1

 

Using Figure 13.1, match the following:

 

127) Innervates the superior oblique muscle. 127)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.2

 

Using Figure 13.2, identify the following components of the reflex arc:

 

128) Sensory neuron. 128)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

33

 

129) The apex of the cochlea hears sounds in the range of ________ Hz. 129)

 

Answer: 20

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.7

 

Using Figure 13.7, match the following:

 

130) Semicircular canals. 130)
Answer: B
Explanation:
131) Describe the symptoms that may occur from lesions of the olfactory nerve, cranial nerve I. 131)
Answer: anosmia
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

34

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.7

 

Using Figure 13.7, match the following:

 

132) Stapes. 132)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

35

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.4

 

Using Figure 13.4, match the following:

 

133) Amacrine cell. 133)
Answer: D
Explanation:
134) We are aware of our facial expression because of which functional feature of which cranial 134)
nerve?

 

Answer: The proprioception of facial muscles by the facial nerve, cranial nerve VII Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.2

 

Using Figure 13.2, identify the following components of the reflex arc:

 

135) Integration center. 135)

 

Answer: E

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

36

 

136) Describe the cause and symptoms of paresthesia. 136)

 

Answer: Paresthesia is the tingling sensation that is felt when blood flow is reduced to a sensory nerve.

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.6

 

Using Figure 13.6, match the following:

 

137) Fluid blockages cause glaucoma. 137)

 

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

37

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.7

 

Using Figure 13.7, match the following:

 

138) Tympanic membrane. 138)

 

Answer: E

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

38

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.5
Using Figure 13.5, match the following:
139) Blood vessels that supply nutrition to most of the eyes’ structures (excluding the lens and 139)
cornea).

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

39

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.1
Using Figure 13.1, match the following:
140) Damage to this nerve would cause difficulty in speech and swallowing, but no effect on 140)
visceral organs.

 

Answer: E

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

40

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.3

 

Using Figure 13.3, match the following:

 

141) Supplies all of the body except the posterior. 141)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

41

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.4

 

Using Figure 13.4, match the following:

 

142) Ganglion cells. 142)

 

Answer: E

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

42

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.1

 

Using Figure 13.1, match the following:

 

143) Damage to this nerve would cause dizziness, nausea, and loss of balance. 143)
Answer: C
Explanation:
144) Damage to this nerve would keep the eye from rotating inferolaterally. 144)
Answer: B
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

43

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.2

 

Using Figure 13.2, identify the following components of the reflex arc:

 

145) Effector. 145)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.6
Using Figure 13.6, match the following:
146) The only tissue in the body that can be transplanted from one person to another with little 146)
or no rejection.

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

44

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.7

 

Using Figure 13.7, match the following:

 

147) Houses organ of Corti. 147)
Answer: D
Explanation:
148) Taste is solely a response to chemicals dissolved in ________. 148)
Answer: saliva
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

45

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.4

 

Using Figure 13.4, match the following:

 

149) Horizontal cell. 149)
Answer: A
Explanation:
150) The perineurium defines the boundary of a ________. 150)
Answer: fascicle
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

46

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.7

 

Using Figure 13.7, match the following:

 

151) Auricle. 151)
Answer: A
Explanation:
152) The highest level of motor control involves the basal nuclei and the ________. 152)
Answer: cerebellum
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

47

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.5

 

Using Figure 13.5, match the following:

 

153) Contains only cones; provides detailed color vision. 153)
Answer: D
Explanation:
154) High frequency sounds are detected when the basilar membrane is displaced near the 154)
________.

 

Answer: base

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

48

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.7

 

Using Figure 13.7, match the following:

 

155) Cochlea. 155)

 

Answer: D

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

49

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.5

 

Using Figure 13.5, match the following:

 

156) Protects and shapes the eyeball; provides a sturdy anchoring site for extrinsic eye muscles. 156)
Answer: A
Explanation:
157) The ________ nuclei are in the visual pathway and mediate the pupillary light reflexes. 157)
Answer: pretectal
Explanation:
158) One of the adaptive advantages of human body hair is believed to be its ability to help us 158)
detect potentially harmful insects crawling or landing on our skin. Which receptor type is
most associated with this type of perception?

 

Answer: Hair follicle receptors

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

50

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.6

 

Using Figure 13.6, match the following:

 

159) Acts as a reflexively activated diaphragm to vary pupil size. 159)

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

51

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.1

 

Using Figure 13.1, match the following:

 

160) Involved in movement of the digestive tract. 160)
Answer: D
Explanation:
161) The middle ossicle in the ear is the ________. 161)
Answer: incus
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

52

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.7

 

Using Figure 13.7, match the following:

 

162) Balance organ. 162)
Answer: B
Explanation:
163) Body movement receptors are called ________. 163)
Answer: proprioceptors
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

53

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.5

 

Using Figure 13.5, match the following:

 

164) Lacks photoreceptors; where optic nerve exits the eye. 164)

 

Answer: E

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.2

 

Using Figure 13.2, identify the following components of the reflex arc:

 

165) Receptor. 165)

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

54

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.4

 

Using Figure 13.4, match the following:

 

166) Rod.                                                                                                                                                                           166)

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

55

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.1

 

Using Figure 13.1, match the following:

 

167) Longest cranial nerve. 167)
Answer: D
Explanation:
168) The synapse of the olfactory nerves with the mitral cells is called a ________. 168)
Answer: glomerulus
Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

56

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.6

 

Using Figure 13.6, match the following:

 

169) Controls lens shape. 169)

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

57

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Figure 13.3

 

Using Figure 13.3, match the following:

 

170) Contain autonomic nerve fibers. 170)
Answer: C
Explanation:
171) Information regarding skeletal muscle tension is provided by ________ and muscle length 171)
by ________.

 

Answer: tendon organs; muscle spindles

Explanation:

 

TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

 

172) When we move from darkness to bright light, retinal sensitivity is lost, but visual acuity is gained. 172)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
173) Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances. 173)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
174) Dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers. 174)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
175) The neural layer of the retina prevents excessive scattering of light within the eye. 175)
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

 

58

 

176) The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina. 176)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
177) The quality of a sound is based on the atmospheric pressure at the time the sound is generated. 177)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
178) The fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth is called perilymph. 178)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
179) Ciliary muscles are considered voluntary, skeletal muscle. 179)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
180) The optic disc is forms a blind spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball. 180)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
181) Static equilibrium involves the sensation of linear acceleration as well as changes in head rotation. 181)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
182) The meningeal branch of a spinal nerve actually reenters the vertebral canal to innervate the 182)
meninges and blood vessels.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
183) The structure that allows equalization of the pressure in the middle ear with that outside the body 183)
is the external auditory meatus.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
184) Without a functioning crista ampullaris, the semicircular canals would not function. 184)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
185) Light passes through the entire thickness of the neural layer of the retina to excite the 185)
photoreceptors.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
186) Vitamin A needed by the photoreceptor cells is stored by the cells of the retina pigmented layer. 186)
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

59

 

187) Theoretically, an individual born without a middle ear would be able to hear by bone conduction 187)
with a hearing aid.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
188) Odorants must be volatile to be smelled. 188)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
189) The bending of light rays is called reflection. 189)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
190) Precision of eye movement is due to the fact that extrinsic eye muscle motor units contain only 8 to 190)
12 muscle cells and in some cases as few as 2 or 3 muscle cells.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
191) Contraction of the ciliary muscle causes the lens to bend the light less. 191)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
192) The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball 192)
is the conjunctiva.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
193) Drooping of the upper eyelid, and double vision are potential symptoms of damage to the 193)
oculomotor nerve.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
194) In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval 194)
window and set the endolymph in motion.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
195) Reciprocal inhibition means that while one sensory nerve is stimulated, another sensory neuron for 195)
synergistic muscles in the same area is inhibited and cannot respond.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
196) The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural 196)
fibers.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
197) The anterior chamber of the eye is filled with vitreous humor. 197)
Answer: True False

Explanation:

 

 

60

 

198) Hair cells in the spiral organ of the ear are never replaced.

 

Answer:       True       False

Explanation:

 

199) Sound is generally perceived in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.

 

Answer:       True       False

Explanation:

 

200) Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.

 

Answer:   True               False

Explanation:

 

201) The musculocutaneous nerve is a major nerve of the brachial plexus.

 

Answer:   True               False

Explanation:

 

202) Lamellar corpuscles can be exteroceptors, interoceptors, or proprioceptor.

 

Answer:   True               False

Explanation:

 

MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

 

Match the following:

 

203) Houses the spiral organ (of Corti). A) Cochlear duct
Answer: A
Match the following:
204) Connects the middle ear with the A) Pharyngotympanic tube
nasopharynx.
Answer: A

 

Match the following reflexes to their function:

 

205) Prevents muscle overstretching and A) Stretch
maintains muscle tone.
Answer: A B) Flexor
206) Produces a rapid withdrawal of the
body part from a painful stimulus;
ipsilateral.
Answer: B
Match the following:
207) The structure most responsible for A) Lens
focusing light rays that enter the eye.
Answer: A

198)

 

 

 

 

199)

 

 

 

 

200)

 

 

 

 

201)

 

 

 

 

202)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

203)

 

 

 

 

 

204)

 

 

 

 

 

 

205)

 

 

 

 

206)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

207)

 

 

 

 

61

 

Match the following:

 

  • Central pattern generators. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Striking the “funny bone” (ulnar nerve) may cause injury to a nerve of this plexus.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Hair cells receptive to changes in dynamic equilibrium are found in this structure.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Ear stones. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • The central part of the bony labyrinth. Answer: B

 

  • The receptor organ for hearing. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • A condition that can result from a deficiency of vitamin A.

 

Answer: B

 

  • An inflammation of the lining of the middle ear.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • One of the most common results of otitis media.

 

Answer: A

 

  1. Segmental level

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Brachial plexus

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Crista ampullaris

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Otoliths

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Spiral organ (of Corti)

 

  1. Vestibule

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Otitis media

 

  1. Night blindness

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Conduction deafness

 

 

208)

 

 

 

 

 

209)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

210)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

211)

 

 

 

 

 

212)

 

 

213)

 

 

 

 

 

214)

 

 

 

 

215)

 

 

 

 

 

 

216)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

62

 

Match the following:

 

  • The obturator and femoral nerves branch from this plexus.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Loss of hearing resulting from prolonged exposure to high-intensity sounds.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Lamellar corpuscle. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Detects linear acceleration. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Rootlets arise on the spinal cord, enter the skull through the foramen magnum and exit the skull through the jugular foramen.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • A condition of deafness that may result from otosclerosis. Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • Helps to regulate blood pressure and digestion.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

  • A condition often leading to blindness due to increased intraocular pressure. Answer: A

 

  1. A) Lumbar plexus

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Sensorineural deafness

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Pacinian corpuscle

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Vestibule

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Accessory

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Conduction deafness

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Vagus

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A) Glaucoma

 

 

217)

 

 

 

 

 

 

218)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

219)

 

 

 

 

 

220)

 

 

 

 

 

221)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

222)

 

 

 

 

 

 

223)

 

 

 

 

 

 

224)

 

 

 

 

 

 

63

 

Match the following:
225) Separates external acoustic meatus A) Tympanic membrane
from the middle ear.
Answer: A
Match the following:
226) Turns the eyeball laterally. A) Abducens
Answer: A
Match the following:
227) A membrane that transmits sound A) Tympanic membrane
vibrations to the auditory ossicles.
Answer: A
Match the following:
228) Helps maintain the intraocular A) Aqueous humor
pressure; located in the anterior part of
the eye.
Answer: A
Match the following:
229) Tactile corpuscle. A) Meissner corpuscle
Answer: A
Match the following:
230) The phrenic nerve branches from this A) Cervical plexus
plexus.
Answer: A
Match the following reflexes to their function:
231) Tests both upper and lower motor A) Plantar
pathways. The sole of the foot is
stimulated with a dull instrument.
Answer: A
Match the following:
232) Trauma to a nerve of this plexus may A) Brachial plexus
cause wrist drop.
Answer: A

 

 

225)

 

 

 

 

 

 

226)

 

 

 

 

 

227)

 

 

 

 

 

 

228)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

229)

 

 

 

 

 

230)

 

 

 

 

 

 

231)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

232)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

64

 

Match the following:

 

233) Can result from impacted cerumen.                          A) Conduction deafness

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following reflexes to their function:

 

234) Consists of an ipsilateral withdrawal A) Crossed-extensor reflex and a contralateral extensor

 

reflex; important in maintaining

balance.

 

Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

235) Area of greatest visual acuity. A) Fovea centralis
Answer: A
Match the following:
236) A possible side effect of medications A) Tinnitus
such as aspirin.
Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

237) The neural machinery of the spinal A) Segmental level
cord, including spinal cord circuits.
Answer: A B) Precommand level
238) The cerebellum and basal nuclei.
Answer: B
Match the following:
239) Serves the senses of hearing and A) Vestibulocochlear
equilibrium.
Answer: A
Match the following:
240) Intermediate relay for incoming and A) Projection level
outgoing neurons.
Answer: A
Match the following:
241) Chemically sensitive microvilli found A) Taste buds
in this structure.
Answer: A

 

 

233)

 

 

 

 

 

234)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

235)

 

 

 

 

 

236)

 

 

 

 

 

 

237)

 

 

 

 

238)

 

 

 

 

 

239)

 

 

 

 

 

 

240)

 

 

 

 

 

 

241)

 

 

 

65

 

Match the following:
242) Controls the outputs of the cortex and A) Precommand level
regulates motor activity.
Answer: A
Match the following:
243) Contains utricle and saccule. A) Vestibule
Answer: A
Match the following:
244) Hair cells receptive to changes in static A) Macula
equilibrium are found in this
structure.
Answer: A
Match the following:
245) The sensory layer of the eye. A) Retina
Answer: A
Match the following reflexes to their function:
246) Produces muscle relaxation and A) Tendon
lengthening in response to tension; the
contracting muscle relaxes as its
antagonist is activated.
Answer: A
Match the following:
247) Chemically sensitive cilia are found in A) Olfactory epithelium
this structure.
Answer: A

 

Match the following:

 

248) Bulbous corpuscle. A) Ruffini endings
Answer: A
Match the following:
249) Receptors located in epithelium of the A) Olfactory
nasal cavity.
Answer: A

 

 

242)

 

 

 

 

 

 

243)

 

 

 

 

 

244)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

245)

 

 

 

 

 

246)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

247)

 

 

 

 

 

 

248)

 

 

 

 

 

249)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

66

 

Match the following:
250) Can result from the fusion of the A) Conduction deafness 250)
auditory ossicles.
Answer: A
Match the following:
251) Includes cortical and brain stem motor A) Projection level 251)
areas.
Answer: A
Match the following:
252) A fall or improper administration of A) Sacral plexus

252)

an injection to the buttocks may injure

a nerve of this plexus.

 

Answer: A

 

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

 

  • Describe the steps of the regeneration process of a damage peripheral nerve fiber.

 

Answer: The portion of the axon distal to the injury is degraded and cleaned up by Schwann cells and macrophages. Growth of new axon filaments is stimulated by growth factors released by Schwann cells. Schwann cells will form a regeneration tube that will guide and support the growth of a new axon and ultimately produce a new myelin sheath.

 

  • An adult patient shows Babinski’s sign during a test of plantar reflex. How is Babinski’s sign different than the normal response and what does the altered response indicate?

 

Answer: The plantar reflex tests the integrity of the spinal cord from L4 to S2 and also determines if corticospinal tracts are functioning and properly myelinated. The normal plantar response is downward flexion of the toes. If there is damage, the great toe dorsiflexes and smaller toes fan laterally (Babinski’s sign). Infants, who normally lack complete myelination, exhibit this sign.

 

 

  • Name three unencapsulated sensory receptors and tell what they are used for.

 

Answer: 1. Free nerve endings are found throughout the body. They are used by most body tissues to determine stretching, joint positioning, etc. In the epidermis they become pain receptors, heat and cold receptors, and possibly very light pressure receptors.

 

  1. Modified free nerve endings called tactile disks are used as light touch receptors.
  2. Hair follicle receptors are mechanical receptors that become very fine touch receptors.

 

  • Ralph sustained a leg injury in a bowling accident and had to use crutches. Unfortunately, he never took the time to learn how to use them properly. After two weeks of use, he noticed his fingers were becoming numb. Then he noticed his arms were getting weaker and tingling. What could be his problem?

 

Answer: Compression of the radial nerve (in the region of the armpit) may cause temporary cessation of nervous transmission, often called “Saturday night paralysis.” Continued pressure could cause permanent damage.

 

 

 

 

 

 

67

 

  • A nurse is asked about the cause of the excruciating pain of tic douloureux. How should s/he answer?

 

Answer: The excruciating pain is caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve. Pressure on the trigeminal nerve root can turn normal stimuli like tooth brushing into painful stimuli.

 

  • Explain why your nose runs during and immediately after a good cry.

 

Answer: The tears flow into the lacrimal canaliculi and then into the nasolacrimal sac. As the sac fills, the tears begin to run down the nasolacrimal duct and out your nose.

 

  • Distinguish between the maculae and cristae ampullaris in terms of their sensory reception.

 

Answer: Maculae are sensory receptors for static equilibrium. They monitor the position of the head in space by responding to linear acceleration forces. Cristae ampullaris respond to rotary (angular) movements.

 

  • What two things does the ciliary body do?

 

Answer: 1. Constriction of the ciliary muscle that is attached to the lens via the ciliary zonule causes the lens to change shape.

 

  1. The epithelium of the ciliary body secretes aqueous humor.

 

  • Explain why a bad cold can result in food not tasting the same as it normally does.

 

Answer: Taste is 80% smell. When the ability to smell is blocked due to nasal congestion, taste is primarily via the

 

taste receptors which account for only about 20% of the taste sensation. This results in a distinct difference in the “taste” of food.

 

  • Describe the process of light and dark adaptation and include the role of the rods and cones.

 

Answer: Rods respond to low-intensity light that provides night and peripheral vision, while cones are bright-light, high-discrimination receptors that provide color vision. During light adaptation, rods are inactivated and as cones respond to the high-intensity light, high visual acuity results. In dark adaptation, cones do not function (visual acuity decreases) and rod function resumes when sufficient rhodopsin accumulates.

 

  • Ling, a 75-year-old grandmother, complained that her vision was becoming obscured. Upon examination by an ophthalmologist she was told she had cataracts. What are they, how do they occur, and how are they treated?

 

Answer: A cataract is a clouding of the lens that causes the world to appear distorted, as if looking through frosted glass. Some cataracts are congenital, but most are due to age-related hardening and thickening of the lens, or are a possible consequence of diabetes mellitus. The direct cause is probably inadequate delivery of nutrients to the deeper lens fibers. The metabolic changes that result are thought to promote unfolding of the lens proteins. Unprotected exposure to the UV rays of sunlight over time is also associated with cataract formation. The lens can be removed and replaced with an artificial lens.

 

  • Roger went for his yearly eye examination and was informed that his intraocular pressure was slightly elevated (at 22 mm Hg). The physician expressed concern over this condition and noted that if the condition got worse, eye drops would be merited. What is wrong with Roger’s eyes, and what are the possible consequences of this condition? Explain the function of eye drops used for therapy.

 

Answer: If the drainage of the aqueous humor is blocked, pressure within the eye can increase, causing compression of the retina and optic nerve, resulting in a condition called glaucoma. The resulting destruction of the neural structures causes blindness unless the condition is detected early. Early glaucoma can be treated with eye drops that increase the rate of aqueous humor drainage or decrease its production.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

68

 

  • The phrenic nerve arises from the left and right sides of cervical vertebra 3, 4 and 5. Describe the potential benefit of having the nerve exit from such a superior position and from multiple places on the spinal column.

 

Answer: The fact that the phrenic nerve originates from multiple vertebra and from such a superior position, it reduces the likelihood of a spinal injury that would stop the diaphragm from working.

 

  • Trace the pathway of sound as it enters the external ear until it is perceived in the brain.

 

Answer: A sound wave passing through the external acoustic meatus causes the eardrum to vibrate at the same frequency as the wave. The auditory ossicles amplify and deliver vibrations to the oval window. Pressure waves in the cochlear fluids cause basilar membrane resonance that stimulates the hair cells of the spiral organ (of Corti). Impulses are then generated along the cochlear nerve that travel to the cochlear nuclei of the medulla and, from there, through several brain stem nuclei to the auditory cortex of the brain.

 

  • A patient suffers nerve damage to the median nerve, requiring surgery to suture the nerve back together. After surgery, the patient reports that sensation from the lateral and medial sides of the index finger seem to be reversed. How could this happen?

 

Answer: In suturing the nerve back together, there is no guide to ensure that each nerve fiber continues across the transection into the same neurilemma in which it started. Nerve fibers can grow into pathways different from their original ones and establish new synapses. The brain cannot keep track of which nerve fibers have grown into different pathways, and projects sensations back to the point of origin.

 

  • What is the pharyngotympanic tube and what is its purpose?

 

Answer: The pharyngotympanic tube links the middle ear cavity with the nasopharynx. Normally it is flattened and closed, but swallowing or yawning opens it briefly to equalize pressure in the middle ear cavity with external air pressure.

 

  • Smith staggered home after a long night at the local pub. While attempting to navigate the stairs, he passed out cold and lay all night with his right armpit straddling the staircase banister. When he awoke the next morning, he had a severe headache, but what bothered him more was that he had no sensation in his right arm and hand. Explain what caused this symptom in his arm.

 

Answer: Continuous pressure interrupts blood flow along with oxygen and nutrients to the neuron processes. As a result, impulse transmission is inhibited temporarily.

 

  • Distinguish between monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes and between ipsilateral and contralateral reflex responses.

 

Answer: Monosynaptic refers to a single synapse in the reflex arc (one sensory and one motor neuron). Polysynaptic refers to more than one synapse in the arc involving sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons. Ipsilateral refers to a reflex arc limited to one side of the spinal cord, while contralateral reflexes cross to the opposite side.

 

  • Explain why prolonged periods of reading tire the eye muscles and result in eye strain.

 

Answer: Reading or other close work requires almost continuous accommodation, pupillary constriction, and convergence, which lead to tiredness of the eye muscles.

 

  • Good friends Sami and Sara were picking roses when both encountered rose thorns. Sami just laughed and continued to pick more roses. Sara, however, had tears in her eyes and complained of how much the thorn prick hurt. What accounts for the difference in their response to the same pain stimulus?

 

Answer: Even though both individuals have the same pain threshold since they both perceived pain at the same stimulus intensity, each one’s tolerance to pain is different. Sarah has a lower pain threshold compared to Sami’s.

 

 

 

 

69

 

  • List and describe the functions of the three cranial nerves that serve the muscles of the eye.

 

Answer: The three cranial nerves are: oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens. The oculomotor is mostly motor, with branches to the inferior oblique and superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, as well as to the muscles of the iris and lens. The trochlear supplies mostly motor fibers to the superior oblique muscles of the eye. The abducens supplies mostly motor fibers to the lateral rectus muscles of the eye. Like most motor nerves, they also carry some sensory information for proprioception.

 

  • Explain the role of the endolymph of the semicircular canals in activating the receptors during angular motion.

 

Answer: The crista ampullaris responds to changes in the velocity of head movement (angular acceleration). The crista consists of a tuft of hair cells whose microvilli are embedded in the gelatinous cupula. Rotational movement causes the endolymph to flow in the opposite direction, thus bending the cupula and exciting the hair cells.

 

  • What is the chemical composition of the rod pigment, rhodopsin, and how does it appear to act in the reception of light?

 

Answer: Rhodopsin is a combination of retinal and opsin. Retinal is chemically related to vitamin A and is synthesized from it. Retinal can form a variety of three-dimensional forms called isomers. The opsin protein combines with the 11-cis retinal to form rhodopsin. The light-triggered changes in retinal cause hyperpolarization of the rods. This happens because the light turns off sodium entry, which then inhibits the release of neurotransmitter, thus turning off electrical signals.

 

  • After head trauma from an automobile accident, a man has anosmia. Define anosmia. Why is this condition fairly common after such injuries and in cases of severe nasal cavity inflammation?

 

Answer: Anosmia means the loss of chemical sense of smell due to some olfactory disorder. Most anosmia results from head injuries or nasal cavity inflammations, allergies, smoking, and aging. The olfactory pathways are very sensitive to irritations or to damage, especially if the ethmoid bones have been damaged due to trauma.

 

  • David, an aspiring baseball player, was struck on the left side of his face with a fastball pitch. He was not wearing a safety helmet. His zygomatic arch was crushed, as well as parts of the temporal bone. Following the accident and reconstructive surgery, he noted that his left lower eyelid was still drooping and the corner of his mouth sagged. What nerve damage did he sustain?

 

Answer: He suffered facial nerve damage on his left side. Due to the bone damage, branches to the eye and jaw were probably damaged. It is possible that the damage could be reversible if the nerves were not cut or crushed completely.

 

  • Name and describe five examples of exteroceptors that are not cutaneous receptors of the skin.

 

Answer: Exteroceptors that are not cutaneous receptors include the chemoreceptors of the tongue and nasal mucosa, the photoreceptors of the eyes, and the mechanoreceptors of the inner ear. These all monitor changes in the external environment, so they are classified as exteroceptors.

 

  • How is a receptor potential similar to an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) generated at a synapse?

 

Answer: A receptor potential acts essentially the same as an EPSP in that stimulus causes changes in permeability of the receptor membrane, which results in a depolarizing graded potential. It will increase or decrease depending on the intensity of the stimulus.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

70

 

  • A 60-year-old woman is experiencing vertigo. She ignores the symptoms initially, but now her attacks are accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting. Following an attack, she hears a roaring in her ears that causes temporary deafness for some time after. What do you think her problem is, and what is its suspected cause?

 

Answer: She most likely has a condition known as Ménière’s syndrome. It affects both the semicircular canals and the cochlea. The cause of the syndrome is uncertain, but it may result from distortion of the membranous labyrinth by excessive endolymph accumulation. Less severe cases can usually be managed by antimotion drugs. For more debilitating attacks, salt restriction and diuretics are used to decrease overall extracellular fluid volumes.

 

  • A nurse is administering Pilocarpine eye drops. The nurse instructs the patient to press on the nasolacrimal duct for 30 seconds because the medication can have some systemic side effects, such as affecting the heart rate. Explain the rationale for pressing on the nasolacrimal duct.

 

Answer: Applying gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct prevents the delivery of the drug to the nasal mucosa and general circulation, where it may affect heart rate.

 

  • Describe how the muscle spindles and the tendon organs vary in their role during the stretch reflex and opposing tendon reflex.

 

Answer: Tendon organs work with muscle spindles to act as proprioceptors in skeletal muscles and their associated tendons. When muscles are stretched due to contraction of antagonist muscles, the spindle neurons send impulses to the spinal cord, where they synapse with motor neurons of the stretched muscle. Impulses are then sent to the stretched muscle, which then resists further stretching. At more severe degrees of stretch, the tendon organs inhibit rather than increase resistance to stretching in order to prevent muscle tissue damage.

 

  • When you go to the fair and ride the roller coaster, where do those wild sensations come from?

 

Answer: The wild sensations occur when the receptor for dynamic equilibrium, the crista ampularis, is excited by endolymph moving in the semicircular canals. This movement is the result of rotational acceleration or deceleration. Many times these wild rides spin us around enough that our eyes tell us we are going one way but the vestibule and semicircular canal tell us something different. Conflicts like that can often cause us to get quite dizzy or even sick.

 

  • Baby Susie’s pediatrician notices that one of her eyes rotates outward and that she does not appear to be using it for vision. What is her condition and what does the pediatrician recommend?

 

Answer: Susie has strabismus, caused by congenital weakness of the external eye muscles in her affected eye. To prevent this eye from becoming functionally blind, the doctor will recommend either eye exercises or putting a patch on the unaffected eye to force her to use the affected eye. If her case is deemed severe, surgery on the eye muscles will be recommended.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  • A
  • A
  • The portion of the axon distal to the injury is degraded and cleaned up by Schwann cells and macrophages. Growth of new axon filaments is stimulated by growth factors released by Schwann cells. Schwann cells will form a regeneration tube that will guide and support the growth of a new axon and ultimately produce a new myelin sheath.

 

  • The plantar reflex tests the integrity of the spinal cord from L4 to S2 and also determines if corticospinal tracts are functioning and properly myelinated. The normal plantar response is downward flexion of the toes. If there is damage, the great toe dorsiflexes and smaller toes fan laterally (Babinski’s sign). Infants, who normally lack complete myelination, exhibit this sign.

 

  • Free nerve endings are found throughout the body. They are used by most body tissues to determine stretching, joint positioning, etc. In the epidermis they become pain receptors, heat and cold receptors, and possibly very light pressure receptors.

 

  1. Modified free nerve endings called tactile disks are used as light touch receptors.
  2. Hair follicle receptors are mechanical receptors that become very fine touch receptors.
  • Compression of the radial nerve (in the region of the armpit) may cause temporary cessation of nervous transmission, often called “Saturday night paralysis.” Continued pressure could cause permanent damage.

 

  • The excruciating pain is caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve. Pressure on the trigeminal nerve root can turn normal stimuli like tooth brushing into painful stimuli.

 

  • The tears flow into the lacrimal canaliculi and then into the nasolacrimal sac. As the sac fills, the tears begin to run down the nasolacrimal duct and out your nose.

 

  • Maculae are sensory receptors for static equilibrium. They monitor the position of the head in space by responding to linear acceleration forces. Cristae ampullaris respond to rotary (angular) movements.

 

  • Constriction of the ciliary muscle that is attached to the lens via the ciliary zonule causes the lens to change shape.
    1. The epithelium of the ciliary body secretes aqueous humor.
  • Taste is 80% smell. When the ability to smell is blocked due to nasal congestion, taste is primarily via the taste receptors which account for only about 20% of the taste sensation. This results in a distinct difference in the “taste” of food.

 

  • Rods respond to low-intensity light that provides night and peripheral vision, while cones are bright-light, high-discrimination receptors that provide color vision. During light adaptation, rods are inactivated and as cones respond to the high-intensity light, high visual acuity results. In dark adaptation, cones do not function (visual acuity decreases) and rod function resumes when sufficient rhodopsin accumulates.

 

  • A cataract is a clouding of the lens that causes the world to appear distorted, as if looking through frosted glass. Some cataracts are congenital, but most are due to age-related hardening and thickening of the lens, or are a possible consequence of diabetes mellitus. The direct cause is probably inadequate delivery of nutrients to the deeper lens fibers. The metabolic changes that result are thought to promote unfolding of the lens proteins. Unprotected exposure to the UV rays of sunlight over time is also associated with cataract formation. The lens can be removed and replaced with an artificial lens.

 

  • If the drainage of the aqueous humor is blocked, pressure within the eye can increase, causing compression of the retina and optic nerve, resulting in a condition called glaucoma. The resulting destruction of the neural structures causes blindness unless the condition is detected early. Early glaucoma can be treated with eye drops that increase the rate of aqueous humor drainage or decrease its production.

 

  • The fact that the phrenic nerve originates from multiple vertebra and from such a superior position, it reduces the likelihood of a spinal injury that would stop the diaphragm from working.

 

  • A sound wave passing through the external acoustic meatus causes the eardrum to vibrate at the same frequency as the wave. The auditory ossicles amplify and deliver vibrations to the oval window. Pressure waves in the cochlear fluids cause basilar membrane resonance that stimulates the hair cells of the spiral organ (of Corti). Impulses are then generated along the cochlear nerve that travel to the cochlear nuclei of the medulla and, from there, through several brain stem nuclei to the auditory cortex of the brain.

 

 

77

 

Answer Key

 

Testname: C13

 

 

 

  • In suturing the nerve back together, there is no guide to ensure that each nerve fiber continues across the transection into the same neurilemma in which it started. Nerve fibers can grow into pathways different from their original ones and establish new synapses. The brain cannot keep track of which nerve fibers have grown into different pathways, and projects sensations back to the point of origin.

 

  • The pharyngotympanic tube links the middle ear cavity with the nasopharynx. Normally it is flattened and closed, but swallowing or yawning opens it briefly to equalize pressure in the middle ear cavity with external air pressure.

 

  • Continuous pressure interrupts blood flow along with oxygen and nutrients to the neuron processes. As a result, impulse transmission is inhibited temporarily.

 

  • Monosynaptic refers to a single synapse in the reflex arc (one sensory and one motor neuron). Polysynaptic refers to more than one synapse in the arc involving sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons. Ipsilateral refers to a reflex arc limited to one side of the spinal cord, while contralateral reflexes cross to the opposite side.

 

  • Reading or other close work requires almost continuous accommodation, pupillary constriction, and convergence, which lead to tiredness of the eye muscles.

 

  • Even though both individuals have the same pain threshold since they both perceived pain at the same stimulus intensity, each one’s tolerance to pain is different. Sarah has a lower pain threshold compared to Sami’s.

 

  • The three cranial nerves are: oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens. The oculomotor is mostly motor, with branches to the inferior oblique and superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, as well as to the muscles of the iris and lens. The trochlear supplies mostly motor fibers to the superior oblique muscles of the eye. The abducens supplies mostly motor fibers to the lateral rectus muscles of the eye. Like most motor nerves, they also carry some sensory information for proprioception.

 

  • The crista ampullaris responds to changes in the velocity of head movement (angular acceleration). The crista consists of a tuft of hair cells whose microvilli are embedded in the gelatinous cupula. Rotational movement causes the endolymph to flow in the opposite direction, thus bending the cupula and exciting the hair cells.

 

  • Rhodopsin is a combination of retinal and opsin. Retinal is chemically related to vitamin A and is synthesized from it. Retinal can form a variety of three-dimensional forms called isomers. The opsin protein combines with the 11-cis retinal to form rhodopsin. The light-triggered changes in retinal cause hyperpolarization of the rods. This happens because the light turns off sodium entry, which then inhibits the release of neurotransmitter, thus turning off electrical signals.

 

  • Anosmia means the loss of chemical sense of smell due to some olfactory disorder. Most anosmia results from head injuries or nasal cavity inflammations, allergies, smoking, and aging. The olfactory pathways are very sensitive to irritations or to damage, especially if the ethmoid bones have been damaged due to trauma.

 

  • He suffered facial nerve damage on his left side. Due to the bone damage, branches to the eye and jaw were probably damaged. It is possible that the damage could be reversible if the nerves were not cut or crushed completely.

 

  • Exteroceptors that are not cutaneous receptors include the chemoreceptors of the tongue and nasal mucosa, the photoreceptors of the eyes, and the mechanoreceptors of the inner ear. These all monitor changes in the external environment, so they are classified as exteroceptors.

 

  • A receptor potential acts essentially the same as an EPSP in that stimulus causes changes in permeability of the receptor membrane, which results in a depolarizing graded potential. It will increase or decrease depending on the intensity of the stimulus.

 

  • She most likely has a condition known as Ménière’s syndrome. It affects both the semicircular canals and the cochlea. The cause of the syndrome is uncertain, but it may result from distortion of the membranous labyrinth by excessive endolymph accumulation. Less severe cases can usually be managed by antimotion drugs. For more debilitating attacks, salt restriction and diuretics are used to decrease overall extracellular fluid volumes.

 

  • Applying gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct prevents the delivery of the drug to the nasal mucosa and general circulation, where it may affect heart rate.

 

  • Tendon organs work with muscle spindles to act as proprioceptors in skeletal muscles and their associated tendons. When muscles are stretched due to contraction of antagonist muscles, the spindle neurons send impulses to the spinal cord, where they synapse with motor neurons of the stretched muscle. Impulses are then sent to the stretched muscle, which then resists further stretching. At more severe degrees of stretch, the tendon organs inhibit rather than increase resistance to stretching in order to prevent muscle tissue damage.

 

 

78

 

Answer Key

 

Testname: C13

 

 

 

  • The wild sensations occur when the receptor for dynamic equilibrium, the crista ampularis, is excited by endolymph moving in the semicircular canals. This movement is the result of rotational acceleration or deceleration. Many times these wild rides spin us around enough that our eyes tell us we are going one way but the vestibule and semicircular canal tell us something different. Conflicts like that can often cause us to get quite dizzy or even sick.
  • Susie has strabismus, caused by congenital weakness of the external eye muscles in her affected eye. To prevent this eye from becoming functionally blind, the doctor will recommend either eye exercises or putting a patch on the unaffected eye to force her to use the affected eye. If her case is deemed severe, surgery on the eye muscles will be recommended.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

79

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

28

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

33