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Biology Life on Earth with Physiology 10th Edition By Audesirk – Test Bank
Sample  Questions

 

 

Biology: Life on Earth with Physiology, 10e (Audesirk)

Chapter 3   Biological Molecules

 

3.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Prions are known to cause

  1. A) mad cow disease.
  2. B) the common cold.
  3. C) herpes.
  4. D) sickle cell anemia.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Which of the following is NOT an organic molecule?

  1. A) Protein
  2. B) Nucleic acid
  3. C) Monosaccharide
  4. D) Carbon monoxide
  5. E) Lipid

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) You are telling your friend that organic molecules are all made up of carbon backbones with hydrogens. She doesn’t understand how there can be so many different organic molecules if they all are made up of the same basic components. You explain that organic molecules

  1. A) vary because they possess different isotopes of carbon.
  2. B) vary because they possess different functional groups.
  3. C) actually all have the same structure but differ in the number of electrons.
  4. D) are different because of the different types of hydrogen bonds that form.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

4) Which of the following best explains the molecular complexity of living organisms?

  1. A) The large number of different monomers allows for the construction of many polymers.
  2. B) Each organism has its own unique set of monomers for use in constructing polymers.
  3. C) Condensation reactions can create different polymers because they can combine virtually any molecules in the cell.
  4. D) Although there are not many biological molecules in cells, each one has many different functions.
  5. E) A small number of monomers can be assembled into large polymers with many different sequences.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

5) Large biological molecules are synthesized by removing

  1. A) carbon.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) water.
  4. D) oxygen.
  5. E) peptides.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) What type of chemical reaction results in the breakdown of organic polymers into their respective subunits?

  1. A) Condensation
  2. B) Oxidation
  3. C) Hydrolysis
  4. D) Ionization

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Which of the following reactions requires the removal of water to form a covalent bond?

  1. A) Glycogen → glucose subunits
  2. B) Peptide → alanine + glycine
  3. C) Cellulose → glucose
  4. D) Glucose + galactose → lactose
  5. E) Fat → fatty acids + glycerol

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

8) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

  1. A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks them down.
  2. B) Hydrolysis creates polysaccharides, and dehydration creates monosaccharides.
  3. C) Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
  4. D) Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions destroy them.
  5. E) Dehydration reactions occur only in animals, and hydrolysis reactions occur only in plants.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

9) In dehydration synthesis, the atoms that make up a water molecule are derived from

  1. A) oxygen.
  2. B) only one of the reactants.
  3. C) both of the reactants.
  4. D) carbohydrates.
  5. E) enzymes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) If digestion is ________, then synthesis is ________.

  1. A) hydrolysis; dehydration
  2. B) dehydration; hydrolysis
  3. C) organic; inorganic
  4. D) inorganic; organic

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11) Hydrolysis may be correctly described as the

  1. A) heating of a compound in order to drive off its excess water and to concentrate its volume.
  2. B) breaking of a compound into its subunits by adding water between the subunits.
  3. C) constant removal of hydrogen atoms from a carbohydrate.
  4. D) removal of water from a polymer.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

12) Keratin and silk are examples of ________, whereas glucose and maltose are examples of ________.

  1. A) proteins; lipids
  2. B) proteins; carbohydrates
  3. C) carbohydrates; proteins
  4. D) nucleic acids; lipids

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Dehydration synthesis involves the removal of a hydrogen ion and a hydroxyl ion. What happens next?

  1. A) A large polymer is split apart into small monomers.
  2. B) The hydrogen and hydroxyl ions interact to form water.
  3. C) A polysaccharide is released from a monosaccharide.
  4. D) The hydrogen ion becomes an isotope.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

14) Which molecule is a disaccharide?

  1. A) Glucose
  2. B) Water
  3. C) Lactose
  4. D) Fructose

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) The carbohydrate in DNA is

  1. A) ribose.
  2. B) cellulose.
  3. C) glucose.
  4. D) deoxyribose.
  5. E) phosphate.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16) Maltose is made from

  1. A) two peptides.
  2. B) two glucose molecules.
  3. C) glucose and fructose.
  4. D) glucose and galactose.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) The fiber in your diet is actually

  1. A) protein.
  2. B) ATP.
  3. C) starch.
  4. D) glycogen.
  5. E) cellulose.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Chitin is an example of a

  1. A) monomer.
  2. B) polysaccharide.
  3. C) nucleic acid.
  4. D) peptide.
  5. E) triglyceride.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

19) Where is glycogen stored in vertebrate animals?

  1. A) Liver and muscles
  2. B) Brain and kidneys
  3. C) Teeth and bones
  4. D) Pancreas and blood
  5. E) Fat cells

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

20) An example of a structural polysaccharide is

  1. A) maltose.
  2. B) chitin.
  3. C) starch.
  4. D) glucose.
  5. E) glycogen.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) Which of the following provides long-term energy storage for plants?

  1. A) Glucose
  2. B) Glycogen
  3. C) Starch
  4. D) Cellulose
  5. E) ATP

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Lactose is a disaccharide of glucose and galactose, and its digestion requires the actions of the enzyme lactase. If lactose is eaten as part of the diet but is not digested by lactase, this sugar is then metabolized by bacteria in the intestine, leading to the symptoms of lactose intolerance. Lactose intolerance, therefore, results from a(n)

  1. A) lack of hydrolysis of lactose.
  2. B) lack of dehydration synthesis of lactose.
  3. C) low blood lactose level.
  4. D) inability of the body to produce lactose.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

23) In humans, dental cavities form when Streptococcus mutans bacteria in the mouth hydrolyze sucrose. Which of the following is (are) the products of this reaction?

  1. A) Glucose and fructose
  2. B) Starch
  3. C) Glucose and galactose
  4. D) Glycogen

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

24) Which of the following can serve as an energy source and as structural support in plant cells?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) Which of the following include monosaccharide monomers?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) When the level of glucose in your blood is high, your body is able to store excess glucose in the liver by forming glycogen. When blood glucose levels fall, this stored glucose can be released. Based on this information, which of the following is true?

  1. A) Glucose is a polysaccharide that can join to form the monosaccharide glycogen.
  2. B) Glucose is not an organic molecule, but glycogen is an organic molecule.
  3. C) Glycogen is a polysaccharide formed by joining excess monosaccharides of glucose.
  4. D) Glycogen is a highly branched functional group that forms a larger glucose polymer.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

27) Which type of lipid is most important in biological membranes?

  1. A) Fat
  2. B) Steroid
  3. C) Phospholipid
  4. D) Oil
  5. E) Trans fat

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) Which of the following is insoluble in water?

  1. A) Olive oil
  2. B) DNA
  3. C) Sucrose
  4. D) Salt
  5. E) Amino acids

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) Cholesterol, testosterone, and estrogen are examples of

  1. A) fatty acids.
  2. B) proteins.
  3. C) steroids.
  4. D) hormones.
  5. E) waxes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Triglycerides are

  1. A) polymers of amino acids.
  2. B) always composed of carbon rings.
  3. C) a main component of cellular membranes.
  4. D) hydrophilic.
  5. E) made from glycerol and fatty acids.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) When 1 gram of each of these food sources is consumed, which yields the greatest amount of energy in calories?

  1. A) Sucrose
  2. B) Glucose
  3. C) Phenylalanine
  4. D) Polypeptide
  5. E) Fat

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Fats and oils are made of

  1. A) three glycerols and three fatty acids.
  2. B) three fatty acids and one glycerol.
  3. C) one glycogen and two phospholipids.
  4. D) two fatty acids and one carboxyl acid.
  5. E) three amino acids and one glycerol.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

33) Phospholipids are unusual yet important to cell membrane structure because they

  1. A) are part of DNA.
  2. B) contain nucleic acids.
  3. C) have a polar end and a nonpolar end.
  4. D) are found only in animals.
  5. E) are an important energy carrier molecule.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) Lard is a solid fat at room temperature. What does this tell you about the triglycerides in lard?

  1. A) The fats in lard are not organic molecules.
  2. B) Lard is composed of saturated fats.
  3. C) The fats in lard are mostly phospholipids.
  4. D) Lard is composed of unsaturated fats.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

35) New government regulations require that foods containing trans fats be labeled appropriately. A trans fat is formed when food manufacturers turn liquid oils into solid fats by adding hydrogen to vegetable oils. This hydrogenation process produces a solid fat because adding the hydrogen

  1. A) allows fats to form tertiary and quaternary structures.
  2. B) allows the fatty acid chains to pack together more tightly.
  3. C) causes a phospholipid to form.
  4. D) forms a wax molecule.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

36) All of the following lipids or lipid components are hydrophobic EXCEPT:

  1. A) waxes.
  2. B) saturated fats.
  3. C) unsaturated fats.
  4. D) fatty acid “tails.”
  5. E) fatty acid “heads.”

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

37) The fat substitute Olestra contains a sucrose backbone with six to eight fatty acids attached. How is this different from a naturally occurring fat?

  1. A) Naturally occurring fats contain a glycerol and three fatty acids.
  2. B) Naturally occurring fats contain a glycerol, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group.
  3. C) Naturally occurring fats contain a sucrose backbone and three fatty acid chains.
  4. D) It isn’t; Olestra and natural fats have the same structure, just different tastes.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

38) Two classes of organic compounds typically provide energy for living systems. Representatives of these two classes are

  1. A) fats and amino acids.
  2. B) amino acids and glycogen.
  3. C) amino acids and ribose.
  4. D) fats and polysaccharides.
  5. E) nucleic acids and phospholipids.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) Imagine that you have isolated a mysterious liquid from a sample of food. You add the liquid to a beaker of water and shake vigorously. After a few minutes, the water and the other liquid separate into two layers. To which class of biological molecules does the unknown liquid most likely belong?

  1. A) Carbohydrates
  2. B) Lipids
  3. C) Proteins
  4. D) Enzymes
  5. E) Nucleic acids

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

40) In a biological membrane, the phospholipids are arranged with the fatty acid chains facing the interior of the membrane. As a result, the interior of the membrane is

  1. A) hydrophobic.
  2. B) hydrophilic.
  3. C) charged.
  4. D) polar.
  5. E) filled with water.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

41) Which of the following biological molecules possess large nonpolar regions, making them insoluble in water?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) Which of the following groups is crucial to the structure and function of the sex hormones estrogen and testosterone?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

43) Which of the following is true about waxes?

  1. A) They are a type of complex carbohydrate.
  2. B) They are an important food source, and most animals have enzymes for breaking them down.
  3. C) They are saturated fats and are solid at normal outdoor temperatures.
  4. D) They are unsaturated and most similar to proteins.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

44) Which of the following lipids makes up about 2% of the human brain?

  1. A) Glycogen
  2. B) Myosin
  3. C) Glycerol
  4. D) Cholesterol

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

45) HDL and LDL are different types of cholesterol found in the blood. These compounds are

  1. A) carbohydrates.
  2. B) proteins.
  3. C) lipids.
  4. D) nucleic acids.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

46) The group of biological molecules that are most diverse in function is

  1. A) carbohydrates.
  2. B) lipids.
  3. C) proteins.
  4. D) nucleic acids.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

47) Enzymes are ________ that catalyze chemical reactions within the body.

  1. A) proteins
  2. B) carbohydrates
  3. C) lipids
  4. D) nucleic acids

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

48) The different proteins contained in living organisms are composed of ________ unique amino acids.

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 20
  3. C) 100
  4. D) 1,000
  5. E) more than 5,000

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

49) The specific function of a protein is determined by the

  1. A) exact sequence of amino acids.
  2. B) number of disulfide bonds.
  3. C) hydrophilic “head” attached to the hydrophobic “tail.”
  4. D) fatty acids that are joined together in the polypeptide.
  5. E) number of peptide bonds it contains.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

50) What do carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins have in common?

  1. A) Polymers of these organic molecules form monomers via dehydration synthesis reactions.
  2. B) Covalent bonding holds these molecules together.
  3. C) All are inorganic molecules.
  4. D) All are important enzymes that function within the cell.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

51) A peptide bond forms between which of these groups?

  1. A) Amino and aldehyde
  2. B) Carboxyl and amino
  3. C) Hydroxyl and carboxyl
  4. D) Phosphate and hydroxyl
  5. E) Carboxyl and aldehyde

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

52) All of the following are polysaccharides EXCEPT:

  1. A) starch.
  2. B) maltose.
  3. C) glycogen.
  4. D) chitin.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

53) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?

  1. A) Peptide bonds
  2. B) Disulfide bonds
  3. C) Hydrogen bonds
  4. D) Ionic bonds

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

54) Complex, three-dimensional, tertiary structures of proteins result from

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) hydrogen bonds.
  3. C) disulfide bonds.
  4. D) both B and C.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

55) The four polypeptides that are joined together to make hemoglobin represent which level of protein organization?

  1. A) Primary structure
  2. B) Secondary structure
  3. C) Tertiary structure
  4. D) Quaternary structure

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

56) Which of the following is an example of a protein?

  1. A) Keratin
  2. B) Cellulose
  3. C) Estrogen
  4. D) ATP

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

57) Which type of molecule is most abundant in a typical cell?

  1. A) Hydrocarbon
  2. B) Protein
  3. C) Water
  4. D) Lipid
  5. E) Carbohydrate

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

58) Which of the following refers to the amino acid sequence of proteins?

  1. A) Primary
  2. B) Secondary
  3. C) Tertiary
  4. D) Quaternary

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

59) What type of amino acid side chain would you expect to find on the surface of a protein embedded in a cell membrane?

  1. A) Cysteine
  2. B) Hydrophobic
  3. C) Hydrophilic
  4. D) Charged
  5. E) Polar, but not charged

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

60) A denatured protein differs from a normal protein because it

  1. A) does not contain amino acids.
  2. B) has lost its usual secondary and tertiary structures.
  3. C) is composed of nucleotides.
  4. D) contains many disulfide bonds.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

61) Which of the following biological molecules are composed of amino acid subunits?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

62) Which of the following may possess primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

63) Your classmate is trying to keep all the facts about biological molecules straight. He asks you to explain how amino acids and proteins are related. What do you tell him?

  1. A) Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids.
  2. B) Amino acids are formed by joining together many proteins.
  3. C) Proteins are a portion of an amino acid.
  4. D) Proteins are chains of carbohydrates, and amino acids are a type of lipid.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

64) Your friend is trying to learn about how to kill bacteria. She reads that preservatives such as citric acid are added to foods because the acidic environment kills bacteria by denaturing their proteins. She thinks this sounds like a lot of scientific jargon and asks you what it means. How can you explain it in simpler terms?

  1. A) Denaturing their proteins means that the proteins in bacteria are converted into carbohydrates.
  2. B) The acid causes the cells to swell and burst open, also known as denaturation.
  3. C) Denaturing means that the proteins of the bacteria lose their structure and can’t function, so the bacteria die.
  4. D) Denaturing refers to the fact that the bacterial cells divide too quickly and die.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

65) Scientists consider prions to be “puzzling” proteins. Which of the following is true about prions?

  1. A) Prions are proteins that are denatured more easily than most proteins.
  2. B) Prions are noninfectious proteins.
  3. C) Prions are infectious proteins that cannot be denatured by any amount of heat.
  4. D) Prions are proteins that cause nearby proteins to change shape and become infectious.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

66) Which of the following correctly matches an organic polymer with its monomers, respectively?

  1. A) Protein, amino acids
  2. B) Carbohydrate, polysaccharides
  3. C) Hydrocarbon, monosaccharides
  4. D) Lipid, steroids
  5. E) DNA, ATP

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

67) The “backbone” of a nucleic acid molecule is made of

  1. A) nitrogenous bases.
  2. B) sugar and phosphate groups.
  3. C) ATP molecules.
  4. D) NAD+and FAD.
  5. E) amino acids.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

68) DNA carries genetic information in its

  1. A) helical form.
  2. B) sequence of bases.
  3. C) tertiary structure.
  4. D) phosphate groups.
  5. E) sugar groups.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

69) The covalent bonds joining two nucleotides within a single strand of DNA form between

  1. A) a phosphate group and a base.
  2. B) deoxyribose and a phosphate group.
  3. C) adenine and guanine.
  4. D) the phosphate groups of each nucleotide.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

70) Adenosine triphosphate is an example of a(n)

  1. A) carbohydrate.
  2. B) protein.
  3. C) lipid.
  4. D) nucleotide.
  5. E) inorganic molecule.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

71) A nucleotide is made of a

  1. A) phospholipid, sugar, and base.
  2. B) phosphate, protein, and base.
  3. C) phosphate, sugar, and base.
  4. D) phospholipid, sugar, and protein.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

72) Which of these is NOT a nucleic acid or nucleotide?

  1. A) RNA
  2. B) DNA
  3. C) ATP
  4. D) LDL

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

73) Suppose you have discovered a new virus and have isolated its nucleic acids. What feature could you look for to determine whether the nucleic acids of this virus are RNA or DNA?

  1. A) If it is RNA, it will contain ribose.
  2. B) If is RNA, it will contain deoxyribose.
  3. C) If it is DNA, the virus will not contain proteins.
  4. D) If it is RNA, there will be no adenine.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

74) Which of the following biological molecules are composed of monomer units containing a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

75) Which of these biological molecules contain genetic information?

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Lipids
  4. D) Nucleic acids

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

3.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Functional groups determine the characteristics and chemical reactivity of organic molecules.

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  3.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Phospholipids have hydrophilic tail regions and hydrophobic head regions.

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3.3   Fill-in-the-Blank Questions

 

1) Carbon provides a backbone for a variety of biological molecules. With an atomic number of 6, carbon typically forms ________ covalent bonds.

Answer:  four

Diff: 2

Section:  3.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Important biological molecules that have a carbon backbone bonded to hydrogen atoms are considered to be ________.

Answer:  organic

Diff: 2

Section:  3.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Many biological molecules are formed by the joining of monomer units in a(n) ________ reaction (removal of water); the reverse process occurs via a(n) ________ reaction (addition of water).

Answer:  dehydration synthesis; hydrolysis

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Fatty acids that contain double bonded carbon atoms are called ________.

Answer:  unsaturated

Diff: 1

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

5) The linear arrangement of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is referred to as the ________ structure of the protein.

Answer:  primary

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Proteins are formed by joining amino acids together into a polymer. A ________ bond joins the amino end of one amino acid with the carboxyl end of another.

Answer:  peptide

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) RNA differs from DNA in that RNA contains the sugar ________.

Answer:  ribose

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) What are the four major types of biological molecules?

Answer:  carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Why can cows break down cellulose into glucose subunits, but humans cannot?

Answer:  Cows themselves lack the ability to break down cellulose, but they have special microbes in their digestive tracts that break down cellulose for them; humans do not.

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

3) What are the two main functions of carbohydrates in a living system? Give an example of each.

Answer:  energy storage (glucose, starch, glycogen) and structural support (chitin, cellulose)

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) Why is it an advantage for animals that migrate long distances to store energy as lipids rather than carbohydrates?

Answer:  Lipids (fats) store more than twice as much energy as carbohydrates.

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

5) Describe the differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. Which is most likely to be solid at room temperature? Why?

Answer:  Saturated fats have only single C–C bonds, whereas unsaturated fats have at least one double C–C bond. The saturated fatty acids are most likely to be solid at room temperature because the fatty acid chains can be packed together more tightly.

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

6) Explain how a saturated fat is structurally different from an unsaturated fat.

Answer:  A saturated fat has three fatty acids that are saturated with hydrogens and the tails are able to be straight and packed closely together. Unsaturated fats are not fully saturated with hydrogens and contain bonds that cause bends or kinks in the fatty acid chains, so they cannot pack tightly together.

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

7) How do two amino acids, such as lysine and methionine, differ from each other?

Answer:  They have different functional groups.

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

8) You have curly hair and your brother has straight hair. Describe how the proteins of your curly hair are different from the proteins of his straight hair.

Answer:  The keratin proteins in your curly hair have disulfide bonds in certain locations that cause the keratin to have bends or curls. The disulfide bonds in your brother’s straight hair are in locations that don’t cause bends in the keratin, so there are no curls.

Diff: 3

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

9) Which nucleotide molecule functions as an energy carrier in the cell?

Answer:  ATP

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

10) Think about a hamburger with “the works.” What biological molecules are predominant in the meat? Which are abundant in the bun? Which are found in the lettuce and tomato? Which are found in all of these?

Answer:  The burger contains proteins and fats, the bun contains carbohydrates, and the lettuce and tomato contain carbohydrates. Nucleic acids are found in all components.

Diff: 3

Section:  3.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3.5   Art Questions

 

1) As shown in this figure, the top triglyceride (a) has ________, whereas the bottom triglyceride (b) has ________.

 

  1. A) double bonds and is saturated; no double bonds and is unsaturated
  2. B) no double bonds and is saturated; double bonds and is unsaturated
  3. C) no double bonds and is unsaturated; double bonds and is saturated
  4. D) double bonds and is unsaturated; no double bonds and is saturated

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) As shown in this figure, the valine and lysine in this protein are linked by covalent bonds within the ________ structure, whereas the hydrogen bonds hold together molecules within the helical ________ structure.

 

  1. A) primary; secondary
  2. B) secondary; tertiary
  3. C) tertiary; quaternary
  4. D) primary; tertiary
  5. E) secondary; quaternary

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3.6   Scenario Questions

 

1) When winemakers produce wine, they use yeast to convert the sugary carbohydrates in grapes, such as sucrose and fructose, into alcohol. The yeasts, which are a type of fungus, cannot digest polysaccharides but can easily digest monosaccharides and a variety of disaccharides. The alcohol is a metabolic waste product of the yeasts’ digestion. Beer makers use the same yeast to make alcohol from grains, such as barley. The predominant carbohydrate in grains, however, is starch, not sugar. Beer makers, then, must rely on some basic chemistry to get the alcohol they desire.

 

In this scenario, what is the most likely procedure beer makers use to produce alcohol from starchy grains?

  1. A) The starch is converted into a polymer of many glucose molecules before being used.
  2. B) Water is used to break the bonds between glucose subunits in the starch, in a form of dehydration synthesis.
  3. C) The starch is broken down into mono- and/or disaccharides before use.
  4. D) The starch is converted into glycogen, which is easier for the yeast to digest.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) Soap and detergent molecules have a long, hydrophobic “tail” and a polar, hydrophilic “head.” They are sometimes referred to as “bridge molecules” because they allow oils and fats to be suspended and “dissolved” in water (which they otherwise would not be able to do). Imagine that you are using soap to wash away dirt that is being held against your skin in an oily film.

 

In this scenario, how are the soap, dirt/oil, and water arranged at the molecular level?

  1. A) The soap encloses the dirt/oil within a small droplet that has a hydrophobic exterior and a hydrophilic interior.
  2. B) Water and dirt/oil form covalent bonds inside a small droplet that has a soap-based outer membrane.
  3. C) The soap molecules encase the dirt/oil within a small droplet that has a water-loving exterior and a water-repelling interior.
  4. D) The soap is converted into a lipid that binds to the dirt/oil while repelling the water.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  3.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

Biology: Life on Earth with Physiology, 10e (Audesirk)

Chapter 5   Cell Membrane Structure and Function

 

5.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The substances in cell membranes that form a barrier to the movement of materials across the membrane are

  1. A) internal proteins.
  2. B) carbohydrates.
  3. C) lipids.
  4. D) nucleic acids.
  5. E) external proteins.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) The ________ portion of the cell membrane is responsible for the isolating function of the membrane, whereas the ________ portion regulates exchange and communication with the environment.

  1. A) lipid; protein
  2. B) cholesterol; lipid
  3. C) protein; cholesterol
  4. D) carbohydrate; lipid
  5. E) nucleic acid; lipid

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) When a mouse cell and a human cell are fused, the membrane proteins of the two cells become uniformly distributed over the surface of the hybrid cell. This occurs because

  1. A) many proteins can move around within the bilayer.
  2. B) all proteins are anchored within the membrane.
  3. C) proteins are asymmetrically distributed within the membrane.
  4. D) all proteins in the plasma membrane are extrinsic.
  5. E) different membranes contain different proteins.

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

4) Phospholipids spontaneously form a bilayer in an aqueous solution. Why do the heads of the phospholipids point out and the tails point toward one another?

  1. A) The tails are nonpolar and form hydrogen bonds with one another.
  2. B) The tails are repelled by the aqueous environment.
  3. C) The heads are repelled by the water inside and outside the cell.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

5) Plasma membranes are best described as a

  1. A) double layer of phospholipids with hydrophobic tails directed toward the cytoplasm of the cell.
  2. B) single layer of phospholipids with water molecules attached along one side.
  3. C) double layer of phospholipids with hydrophilic heads directed toward one another.
  4. D) double layer of phospholipids with hydrophobic tails oriented toward one another.
  5. E) single layer of phospholipids with tails pointed toward the inside of the cell.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The hydrophobic tails of a phospholipid bilayer are oriented toward the

  1. A) interior of the plasma membrane (i.e., toward one another).
  2. B) extracellular fluid surrounding the cell.
  3. C) cytoplasm of the cell.
  4. D) interstitial fluid.
  5. E) both the extracellular fluid and cytoplasm.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Which of the following accounts for the fluid aspect of the fluid mosaic model of plasma membranes?

  1. A) The individual phospholipid molecules are not bonded to one another, so the movement of certain proteins and lipids is possible within the bilayer.
  2. B) The plasma membrane is “fluid” because of the movement of substances across the membrane.
  3. C) The bilayer permits diffusion of certain lipid-soluble substances.
  4. D) The membrane is water soluble.
  5. E) One of the components of the membrane is water.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids?

  1. A) They form a viscous fluid through which proteins shift and flow.
  2. B) They frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other.
  3. C) They occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane.
  4. D) They are free to depart from the membrane and are dissolved in the surrounding solution.
  5. E) They have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

9) In biological membranes, the phospholipids are arranged in a

  1. A) bilayer, with the fatty acids pointing toward one another.
  2. B) bilayer, with the fatty acids facing outward.
  3. C) single layer, with the fatty acids facing the interior of the cell.
  4. D) single layer, with the phosphorus-containing region facing the interior of the cell.
  5. E) bilayer, with the phosphorus groups in the interior of the membrane.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found

  1. A) only in muscle cell membranes.
  2. B) associated with the fatty acid region of the lipids.
  3. C) in the interior of the membrane.
  4. D) exposed on the surface of the membrane.
  5. E) attached to carbohydrates and facing the interior of a cell.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11) Suppose that plasma membranes were single layers of phospholipids rather than double layers, and the heads faced the extracellular fluid. The interior of this hypothetical cell would have to be

  1. A) hydrophilic only.
  2. B) hydrophobic only.
  3. C) polar only.
  4. D) nonpolar only.
  5. E) hydrophobic and nonpolar.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

12) What would happen if the plasma membrane were composed solely of phospholipids and no proteins?

  1. A) All movement of molecules across the membrane would cease.
  2. B) Simple diffusion and osmosis would continue to occur.
  3. C) Facilitated diffusion, active transport, and osmosis would not occur.
  4. D) The movement of molecules across the membrane would not be affected.
  5. E) Immune reactions would not be affected.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

13) ISO membranes are inside-out membrane vesicles used by researchers in membrane studies. As a molecule diffuses into the vesicle, it will encounter the layers of the membrane in the following order:

  1. A) head-tail-head-tail.
  2. B) tail-head-head-tail.
  3. C) head-tail-tail-head.
  4. D) tail-head-tail-head.
  5. E) head-head-tail-tail.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

14) What structure in the membrane causes plasma membranes to resist freezing?

  1. A) Polar heads of the phospholipids
  2. B) Channel proteins
  3. C) Cholesterol
  4. D) Saturated fatty acid tails
  5. E) Unsaturated fatty acid tails

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

15) Within the fluid mosaic of a plasma membrane, what is the role of transport and channel proteins?

  1. A) They prevent the passage of amino acids.
  2. B) They permit salts and sugars to move through the plasma membrane.
  3. C) They may set off cellular changes such as cell division or hormone secretion.
  4. D) They are cell-surface connection sites.
  5. E) They identify the cell.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Recognition proteins are most important for

  1. A) facilitated diffusion of molecules.
  2. B) active transport of molecules.
  3. C) maintaining membrane integrity.
  4. D) maintaining membrane fluidity.
  5. E) distinguishing foreign cells from “self” cells.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

17) In general, which of the following is (are) largely responsible for moving substances across the plasma membrane, communicating with other cells, and identifying the cell?

  1. A) Phospholipids
  2. B) Carbohydrates
  3. C) Proteins
  4. D) Nucleic acids
  5. E) Cytoskeleton

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) What prevents your immune system from attacking your own cells?

  1. A) Inadequate enzymes
  2. B) Fever
  3. C) Cholesterol
  4. D) Recognition proteins
  5. E) Receptor proteins

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

19) The main lipids found in cell membranes are

  1. A) steroids.
  2. B) triglycerides.
  3. C) phospholipids.
  4. D) glycerol.
  5. E) waxes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Which of the following groups includes carrier and channel proteins?

  1. A) Receptor proteins
  2. B) Recognition proteins
  3. C) Connection proteins
  4. D) Transport proteins

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Some of the most important molecules that are embedded within the bilayer membrane of a cell, such as the molecules that allow for transport and cell recognition, are

  1. A) steroids.
  2. B) glycoproteins.
  3. C) nucleic acids.
  4. D) phospholipases.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Which of the following would NOT be found in a membrane?

  1. A) Cellulose
  2. B) Cholesterol
  3. C) Phospholipid
  4. D) Channel protein
  5. E) Receptor protein

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

23) Cell membranes do all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. A) isolate the cell’s contents from the external environment.
  2. B) allow communication between cells.
  3. C) regulate the movement of substances between the cell and the interstitial fluid.
  4. D) provide attachments between cells.
  5. E) provide shape and structure to a cell.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

24) Which of the following types of membrane proteins are responsible for facilitated diffusion?

  1. A) Transport proteins
  2. B) Recognition proteins
  3. C) Enzymes
  4. D) Receptor proteins
  5. E) Connection proteins

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1, 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

25) Which of the following types of membrane proteins are responsible for maintaining cell shape by linking the membrane protein with the cytoskeleton?

  1. A) Transport proteins
  2. B) Recognition proteins
  3. C) Enzymes
  4. D) Receptor proteins
  5. E) Connection proteins

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Which of the following types of membrane proteins are responsible for conveying external messages such as those sent by a hormone signal?

  1. A) Transport proteins
  2. B) Recognition proteins
  3. C) Enzymes
  4. D) Receptor proteins
  5. E) Connection proteins

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

27) The net movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration is best described by which of the following?

  1. A) Simple diffusion
  2. B) Active transport
  3. C) Osmosis
  4. D) Facilitated diffusion
  5. E) Exocytosis

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) For diffusion to occur, there must be

  1. A) a membrane.
  2. B) a gradient.
  3. C) water.
  4. D) ATP.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

29) The bacterium Vibrio cholerae releases a toxin that blocks a channel protein in the membranes of cells that line the intestine. This toxin prevents the movement of sodium ions from the inside of the intestine into cells. If the sodium ions could not move into the cells, how would this affect the movement of water between the inside of the intestine and the cells?

  1. A) Water would leave the intestines and enter the cells by facilitated diffusion.
  2. B) Water would leave the intestines and enter the cells by osmosis.
  3. C) Water would leave the cells and enter the intestines by facilitated diffusion.
  4. D) Water would leave the cells and enter the intestines by osmosis.
  5. E) The movement of water would not be affected.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

30) Which of the following is an energy-requiring mode of transport that brings substances into a cell?

  1. A) Facilitated diffusion
  2. B) Osmosis
  3. C) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
  4. D) Simple diffusion

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) In reference to diffusion, “passive” really means

  1. A) without a membrane.
  2. B) in the air.
  3. C) no gradient.
  4. D) very slowly.
  5. E) no energy required.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Imagine that you fill a shallow tray with water and place a drop of red ink in one end of the tray and a drop of green ink in the other end. Which of the following is true at equilibrium?

  1. A) The red ink is uniformly distributed in one half of the tray, and the green ink is uniformly distributed in the other half of the tray.
  2. B) The red and green inks are both uniformly distributed throughout the tray.
  3. C) Each ink is moving down its concentration gradient.
  4. D) The concentration of each ink is higher at one end of the tray than at the other end.
  5. E) No predictions can be made without knowing the size of the ink molecules.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

33) Carbon dioxide crosses the plasma membrane by simple diffusion. The rate at which carbon dioxide enters the cell is determined by the

  1. A) concentration of carbon dioxide on each side of the membrane.
  2. B) amount of energy being produced by the cell.
  3. C) amount of transport protein in the membrane.
  4. D) amount of carbon dioxide outside of the cell.
  5. E) amount of oxygen being exported from the cell.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) What is active transport?

  1. A) Diffusion of molecules within a cell
  2. B) Movement of molecules into or out of a cell against a concentration gradient
  3. C) Movement of molecules into or out of a cell down a concentration gradient
  4. D) Movement of molecules into or out of a cell using special proteins and not requiring an expenditure of energy
  5. E) Rapid movement of molecules in a solution

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) When substances move through a plasma membrane and down gradients of concentration, this is called

  1. A) active transport.
  2. B) passive transport.
  3. C) pinocytosis.
  4. D) exocytosis.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) To say that a cell is “selectively permeable” means

  1. A) it has different-sized perforations in the membrane.
  2. B) it is permeable to different substances than other cells.
  3. C) only certain molecules can pass through.
  4. D) sometimes water passes through, and sometimes it can’t.
  5. E) permeability depends on gradient differences.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

37) What happens when diffusion moves molecules across the plasma membrane?

  1. A) The cell gains needed materials and gets rid of excess materials very quickly.
  2. B) Most molecules are capable of crossing the phospholipid bilayer at any location and at basically the same rate.
  3. C) Energy input is required to transport molecules.
  4. D) The rate of diffusion cannot be influenced by the cell.
  5. E) The process is relatively slow and is driven by concentration gradients.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) All of the following may influence the rate of simple diffusion across a selectively permeable membrane, EXCEPT the

  1. A) size of the molecule.
  2. B) lipid solubility of the molecule.
  3. C) concentration gradient.
  4. D) temperature.
  5. E) size of the transport protein.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) Molecules that permeate a plasma membrane by facilitated diffusion

  1. A) require an expenditure of energy.
  2. B) require the aid of transport proteins.
  3. C) move from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
  4. D) do so much more quickly than those crossing by simple diffusion.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) Which of the following occurs as an enzyme produced by a cell is secreted from the cell?

  1. A) Endocytosis
  2. B) Phagocytosis
  3. C) Pinocytosis
  4. D) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
  5. E) Exocytosis

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

41) Molecules assisted by carrier proteins may cross a selectively permeable membrane by

  1. A) facilitated diffusion.
  2. B) active transport.
  3. C) osmosis.
  4. D) endocytosis.
  5. E) simple diffusion.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) The diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane is called

  1. A) facilitated diffusion.
  2. B) hydrolysis.
  3. C) active transport.
  4. D) exocytosis.
  5. E) osmosis.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

43) If red blood cells are taken from the body and placed in a hypertonic solution, what happens to the cells?

  1. A) The cells swell and burst because water moves into them.
  2. B) The cells shrivel up because water leaves them.
  3. C) The cells remain unchanged due to equal solute concentrations inside and outside the cells.
  4. D) The cells remain unchanged due to equal water concentrations inside and outside the cells.
  5. E) They become white blood cells.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

44) Imagine an artificial cell made with a selectively permeable membrane that allows water to pass through but does not allow sugar to pass. If the artificial cell contains a 1% sugar solution and then you place the cell in a 2% sugar solution, what happens?

  1. A) Water enters the cell because the solution is hypotonic to the cell.
  2. B) Water leaves the cell because the solution is hypertonic to the cell.
  3. C) There is no movement of water.
  4. D) Sugar diffuses in and water diffuses out until equilibrium is reached.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

45) A freshwater protozoan, such as Paramecium, tends to ________ because it lives in a ________ environment.

  1. A) gain water; hypotonic
  2. B) lose water; hypertonic
  3. C) gain water; hypertonic
  4. D) lose water; hypotonic
  5. E) gain water; isotonic

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

46) Solutions that cause water to enter cells by osmosis are called

  1. A) hypertonic.
  2. B) isotonic.
  3. C) hypotonic.
  4. D) permeable.
  5. E) hydrophilic.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

47) The blood plasma of a man who drinks salt water will become ________ to his red blood cells, whereas the red blood cells will be ________ to the blood plasma.

  1. A) isotonic; isotonic
  2. B) hypertonic; isotonic
  3. C) hypotonic; hypertonic
  4. D) hypertonic; hypotonic
  5. E) isotonic; hypertonic

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

48) The slowest rate of diffusion of dye particles in water will occur at

  1. A) 10°C.
  2. B) 20°C.
  3. C) 30°C.
  4. D) 60°C.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

49) Suppose you have two glucose solutions separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If there is a concentration gradient of glucose across the membrane, then one of the solutions cannot be

  1. A) hypotonic.
  2. B) isotonic.
  3. C) hypertonic.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

50) Imagine that beaker A has a 10% sucrose solution, and beaker B has an 8% sucrose solution. This means that

  1. A) beaker A is isotonic relative to beaker B.
  2. B) beaker A is hypertonic relative to beaker B.
  3. C) beaker A is hypotonic relative to beaker B.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

51) More than half a century ago, two cell biologists published details of their research involving isolated membrane vesicles from chloroplasts. Normally, the fluid inside these vesicles is near neutral. In an experiment, these membrane vesicles were soaked in an acidic solution (pH 4) until the inside of the vesicle also became pH 4.

Based on the details provided in this scenario, by what mechanism could hydrogen ions have crossed the vesicle membrane, and what do you think happened at the molecular level?

  1. A) Facilitated diffusion; hydrogen ions moved into the vesicle through a channel protein.
  2. B) Osmosis; water moved from inside the vesicle to outside.
  3. C) Simple diffusion; hydrogen ions moved into the vesicle through a channel protein.
  4. D) Active transport; hydrogen ions moved out of the vesicle with the help of ATP energy.
  5. E) Pinocytosis; water moved from outside the vesicle to inside.

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

52) The secretion of excess water via a vesicle of a Paramecium cell is an example of

  1. A) facilitated diffusion.
  2. B) active transport.
  3. C) osmosis.
  4. D) exocytosis.
  5. E) simple diffusion.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

53) Two aqueous solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane that allows water to pass through but does not allow starch to pass through. Solution A is 10% starch and solution B is 5% starch. What will occur?

  1. A) Water will diffuse from solution A to solution B.
  2. B) Water will diffuse from solution B to solution A.
  3. C) Starch will diffuse from solution A to solution B.
  4. D) Starch will diffuse from solution B to solution A.
  5. E) Both water and starch will diffuse from solution B to solution A.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

54) The rate of facilitated diffusion of a molecule across a membrane will increase as the concentration gradient of the molecule across the membrane increases to a certain point. Eventually, an increase in the concentration of the molecule will not cause any further increase in facilitated diffusion. Thus, there is a maximal rate of facilitated diffusion. This is because

  1. A) facilitated diffusion requires ATP energy.
  2. B) as the concentration gradient increases, molecules interfere with one another.
  3. C) there are a limited number of carrier proteins in the membrane.
  4. D) the increased concentration gradient causes a situation far from equilibrium.
  5. E) the diffusion constant depends on the concentration gradient.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

55) Osmosis moves water from a region of

  1. A) high solute concentration to a region of low solute concentration.
  2. B) low solute concentration of to a region of high solute concentration.
  3. C) hypertonic solution to a region of hypotonic solution.
  4. D) negative osmotic potential to a region of positive osmotic potential.
  5. E) low concentration of water to a region of high concentration of water.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

56) Glucose is a six-carbon sugar that diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Given this information, which transport mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells?

  1. A) Simple diffusion
  2. B) Exocytosis
  3. C) Aquaporin transport
  4. D) Facilitated diffusion
  5. E) Osmosis

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

57) Two similar-sized animal cells are placed in a 0.5% sucrose solution. Cell A enlarges for a while and then stops; cell B continues to enlarge and finally ruptures. Which of the following must have been true at the beginning of the experiment?

  1. A) Cell A was hypotonic to the solution, and cell B was hypertonic.
  2. B) Cell A was hypertonic to the solution, and cell B was hypotonic.
  3. C) Cell A has a higher concentration of sucrose than cell B.
  4. D) Cell B has a higher concentration of sucrose than cell A.
  5. E) Cells A and B were isotonic to each other.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

58) The cytoplasm of a certain cell, such as a neuron, already has a high concentration of K+ ions. How can K+ ions continue to enter the cell?

  1. A) Active transport
  2. B) Facilitated diffusion
  3. C) Osmosis
  4. D) Endocytosis
  5. E) Infusion

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

59) The gases O2 and CO2 enter or leave a plant cell by

  1. A) osmosis.
  2. B) simple diffusion.
  3. C) facilitated diffusion.
  4. D) active transport.
  5. E) facilitated transport.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

60) Active transport requires all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. A) transport proteins.
  2. B) ATP.
  3. C) a membrane.
  4. D) a gradient.
  5. E) aquaporins.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

61) The process in which white blood cells engulf bacteria is termed

  1. A) recognition.
  2. B) exocytosis.
  3. C) pinocytosis.
  4. D) phagocytosis.
  5. E) reception.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

62) Which process accounts for the movement of solids into some animal cells?

  1. A) Active transport
  2. B) Facilitated diffusion
  3. C) Simple diffusion
  4. D) Osmosis
  5. E) Phagocytosis

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

63) Cells use exocytosis to

  1. A) move away from danger.
  2. B) release substances from the cell.
  3. C) ingest nutrients.
  4. D) pump hydrogen molecules across the membrane.
  5. E) create new cells.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

64) If you forget to water your favorite plant, all of the following will occur at a cellular level EXCEPT:

  1. A) water will move out of the cytosol by osmosis.
  2. B) water will move out of the vacuoles by osmosis.
  3. C) turgor pressure will build up in the cell.
  4. D) the plasma membrane will shrink away from the cell wall.
  5. E) osmosis will occur.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

65) If a frog egg cell is placed into a hypotonic solution, it will

  1. A) shrivel via osmosis.
  2. B) swell via osmosis.
  3. C) shrivel via facilitated diffusion.
  4. D) swell via facilitated diffusion.
  5. E) shrivel via active transport.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

66) Which of the following requires adenosine triphosphate?

  1. A) Simple diffusion
  2. B) Facilitated diffusion
  3. C) Active transport
  4. D) Osmosis

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

67) Specialized cell junctions include all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. A) gap junctions.
  2. B) tight junctions.
  3. C) desmosomes.
  4. D) phospholipases.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

68) The electrical signal for a muscle to contract passes rapidly from one cell to the next via

  1. A) tight junctions.
  2. B) desmosomes.
  3. C) gap junctions.
  4. D) internal proteins.
  5. E) external proteins.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

69) Adhesion of cells within animal tissues is accomplished by cell-to-cell junctions called

  1. A) desmosomes.
  2. B) tight junctions.
  3. C) gap junctions.
  4. D) plasmodesmata.
  5. E) cell plates.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

70) The urinary bladder is protected from leaking due to cell-to-cell junctions called

  1. A) desmosomes.
  2. B) tight junctions.
  3. C) gap junctions.
  4. D) plasmodesmata.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

71) Protein channels that provide passage for hormones and nutrients between animal cells are termed

  1. A) desmosomes.
  2. B) tight junctions.
  3. C) gap junctions.
  4. D) plasmodesmata.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

72) You observe a cell under a microscope and you can clearly see a cell wall, a vacuole, and cytoplasmic connections. These cytoplasmic connections must be

  1. A) gap junctions.
  2. B) desmosomes.
  3. C) plasmodesmata.
  4. D) tight junctions.
  5. E) osmotic channels.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

5.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Carrier molecules in the plasma membrane are required only for active transport. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules across selectively permeable membranes. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3) After a dye diffuses uniformly throughout a glass of water, the dye molecules are no longer moving. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5.3   Fill-in-the-Blank Questions

 

1) The most common lipids in biological membranes are ________.

Answer:  phospholipids

Diff: 1

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Phospholipids contain two different parts: a ________ head and a pair of ________ tails.

Answer:  polar and/or hydrophilic; nonpolar and/or hydrophobic

Diff: 2

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) The movement of molecules across a cell membrane via a transport protein in which no energy is required is called ________ diffusion, and the movement of molecules across a cell membrane via a protein in which energy (i.e., ATP) is required is called ________ transport.

Answer:  facilitated; active

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) Facilitated diffusion and active transport both require ________ ________ for the movement of molecules across the membrane.

Answer:  transport proteins

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) ________ is used by white blood cells to consume large particles such as bacteria.

Answer:  Phagocytosis

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Communication between cells occurs via ________ in plant cells and via ________ in animal cells.

Answer:  plasmodesmata; gap junctions

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

7) The cells of the intestinal epithelium (lining) are joined to one another by ________ that prevent substances from passing between the cells of this tissue.

Answer:  tight junctions

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

5.4   Short Answers Questions

 

1) The antibiotic polymyxin B attaches itself to the phospholipids in the phospholipid bilayer and increases the permeability of the membrane. Describe what will occur as a result.

Answer:  The plasma membrane will lose its ability to be a selectively permeable barrier. Substances will leak out of the cell, and some previously excluded substances may enter. Eventually, the cell will die.

Diff: 3

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

2) How does the cell membrane act as a “gatekeeper” for the cell?

Answer:  It separates the internal and external cell environments, it regulates the exchange of substances between the external environment and the cytoplasm, and it allows for communication between cells.

Diff: 3

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Compare and contrast facilitated diffusion and active transport.

Answer:  Both require membrane transport proteins. However, facilitated diffusion does not require energy and moves substances down a concentration gradient. Active transport requires energy and moves substances against a concentration gradient.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

4) Compare and contrast osmosis and simple diffusion.

Answer:  Both are passive processes. However, osmosis refers to the movement of water down its concentration gradient across a selectively permeable membrane. No membrane or membrane protein is required for simple diffusion.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

5) Why is the biological membrane said to be selectively permeable?

Answer:  It allows only some molecules to pass through while barring others.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Suppose a bag made of a selectively permeable membrane was filled with a 5% solution of glucose and sealed. What would happen if the bag was placed in pure water or in a 10% glucose solution?

Answer:  In pure water, the bag would swell as water moves in. In the glucose solution, the bag would shrink as water moves out.

Diff: 3

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

7) Why does the cell perform endocytosis in addition to active and passive transport?

Answer:  Endocytosis is required for the transport of proteins, microbes, extracellular fluid, and specific molecules that are all larger than the molecule size transported by active and passive transport.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

8) Distinguish among the three types of endocytosis: pinocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and phagocytosis.

Answer:  Pinocytosis is for fluid intake, receptor-mediated endocytosis is for the uptake of specific molecules, and phagocytosis is used to move large particles into the cell.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Both plant cells and animal cells will swell if placed in a hypotonic solution. However, only the animal cell will burst. Why?

Answer:  Water will enter both cells due to osmosis. In the animal cell, water will continue to enter as long as the extracellular solution is hypotonic, causing the pliable animal cell membrane to eventually break and the cell to burst. The stiff cell wall found in plant cells but not animal cells will not expand indefinitely. At some point, as the cytoplasm of the plant cell expands, the cell wall will exert a back pressure on the cell. Further water uptake will be prevented and the plant cell will not burst.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

10) When very small viruses infect a plant cell by crossing its membrane, the viruses often spread rapidly throughout the entire plant without crossing additional membranes. Explain how this occurs.

Answer:  The viruses spread travel cell to cell via the plasmodesmata junctions.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

11) Compare and contrast the intercellular junctions that allow communication between plant and animal cells.

Answer:  Gap junctions in animal cells and plasmodesmata in plant cells are both involved in coordinating the actions of adjacent cells.

Diff: 2

Section:  5.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

5.5   Art Questions

 

1) Based on these four illustrations of diffusion, which mode would most likely be used to transport oxidized zinc (which has a charge of +2) through the cell membrane?

 

 

  1. A) Simple diffusion through the bilayer
  2. B) Facilitated diffusion through channel proteins
  3. C) Facilitated diffusion through carrier proteins
  4. D) Osmosis through aquaporins

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

2) If the radius of one cell were twice as large as the radius of another cell, how much higher or lower would its surface-area-to-volume ratio be?

 

  1. A) 2 times higher
  2. B) 2 times lower
  3. C) Half (lower)
  4. D) 10 times higher

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

5.6   Scenario Questions

 

1) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that leads to the production of excessive, thick mucus in the respiratory tract, causing frequent and serious respiratory infections. The defect is due to the production of a faulty membrane protein for the transport of the chloride ion. The protein exists in membranes, but it doesn’t function normally.

 

Based on this scenario, what is occurring at the molecular level in a person with cystic fibrosis?

  1. A) A recognition protein is being adversely affected.
  2. B) A carrier protein is being adversely affected.
  3. C) A receptor protein is being adversely affected.
  4. D) A channel protein is being adversely affected.
  5. E) Protein filaments in the cytoplasm are being adversely affected.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  5.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

Biology: Life on Earth with Physiology, 10e (Audesirk)

Chapter 11   DNA: The Molecule of Heredity

 

11.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The hereditary material present in all cells is

  1. A) protein.
  2. B) RNA.
  3. C) DNA.
  4. D) R-strain.
  5. E) S-strain.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) What was the most significant conclusion of Griffith’s experiments with pneumonia in mice?

  1. A) Mice exposed to the S-strain bacterium became resistant to the R-strain bacterium.
  2. B) There is a substance present in dead bacteria that can cause a heritable change in living bacteria.
  3. C) The genetic material was definitively proven to be DNA.
  4. D) S-strain bacteria can cause pneumonia.
  5. E) Heat destroys the hereditary material.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) What is the relationship among DNA, a gene, and a chromosome?

  1. A) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of protein.
  2. B) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of DNA.
  3. C) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes, which are composed of protein.
  4. D) A gene is composed of DNA, but it has no relationship to a chromosome.
  5. E) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes, which are composed of DNA.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) In Griffith’s experiments, what happened when heat-killed S-strain bacteria were injected into a mouse along with live R-strain bacteria?

  1. A) DNA from the live R-strain was taken up by the heat-killed S-strain, converting them to R-strain and killing the mouse.
  2. B) DNA from the heat-killed S-strain was taken up by the live R-strain, converting them to S-strain and killing the mouse.
  3. C) Proteins released from the heat-killed S-strain killed the mouse.
  4. D) RNA from the heat-killed S-strain was translated into proteins that killed the mouse.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) When Griffith experimented with two types of Streptococcus pneumoniae, he found that if the

  1. A) deadly strain was heat-killed before injection, the mice died.
  2. B) nondeadly strain was mixed with the heat-killed, nondeadly strain before injection, the mice died.
  3. C) nondeadly strain was mixed with the heat-killed, deadly strain before injection, the mice lived.
  4. D) nondeadly strain was mixed with the heat-killed, deadly strain before injection, the mice died.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) DNA possesses

  1. A) A, U, G, and C bases.
  2. B) only C and T bases.
  3. C) only A and G bases.
  4. D) C, T, A, and G bases.
  5. E) only U and T bases.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) If the quantities of the four bases in a DNA molecule are measured, we find that

  1. A) A = C and G = T.
  2. B) A = G and C = T.
  3. C) T = A and C = G.
  4. D) no two bases are equal in amount.
  5. E) all bases are equal in amount.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) If the DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30% of its bases, then what percentage of its bases are adenine?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 10%
  3. C) 20%
  4. D) 30%
  5. E) 40%

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

9) All of the following are found in DNA EXCEPT:

  1. A) deoxyribose.
  2. B) guanine.
  3. C) a phosphate group.
  4. D) a phospholipid group.
  5. E) thymine.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) A DNA nucleotide is made up of

  1. A) phosphate-deoxyribose-base.
  2. B) phospholipid-deoxyribose-base.
  3. C) phosphate-deoxyribose-phosphate-deoxyribose.
  4. D) adenine-thymine-guanine-cytosine.
  5. E) base-phosphate-glucose.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) The “rule” formulated by Chargaff states that

  1. A) A = T and G = C in any molecule of DNA.
  2. B) A = C and G = T in any molecule of DNA.
  3. C) A = G and C = T in any molecule of DNA.
  4. D) A = U and G = C in any molecule of RNA.
  5. E) DNA and RNA are made up of the same four nitrogenous bases.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

12) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA to determine which bases are in equal amounts, which of the following is true?

  1. A) A = C
  2. B) A = G and C = T
  3. C) A + C = G + T
  4. D) A + T = C + G

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

13) By the early 1950s, many biologists realized that the key to understanding inheritance lay in the structure of

  1. A) DNA.
  2. B) protein.
  3. C) enzymes.
  4. D) chromosomes.
  5. E) ribosomes.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The X-ray diffraction pattern for DNA suggested to Wilkins and Franklin all of the following features about DNA EXCEPT:

  1. A) a DNA molecule is helical.
  2. B) a DNA molecule has a uniform diameter of 2 nanometers.
  3. C) the DNA molecule consists of repeating subunits.
  4. D) the phosphate-sugar “backbone” of the molecule is on the outside of the DNA helix.
  5. E) in a DNA molecule, A pairs with T and G pairs with C.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) In DNA, phosphate groups bond to

  1. A) adenine.
  2. B) ribose.
  3. C) pyrimidine bases.
  4. D) other phosphate groups.
  5. E) deoxyribose.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16) The sequence of subunits in the DNA “backbone” is

  1. A) -base-phosphate-base-phosphate-base-phosphate-.
  2. B) -phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar-.
  3. C) -sugar-base-sugar-base-sugar-base-sugar-base-.
  4. D) -base-sugar-phosphate-base-sugar-phosphate-.
  5. E) -base-phosphate-sugar-base-phosphate-sugar-.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

17) “Chargaff’s rule” for base pairing in DNA is that

  1. A) the amount of A = the amount of C, and the amount of G = the amount of T.
  2. B) A bonds with C, and G bonds with T.
  3. C) A bonds with G, and C bonds with T.
  4. D) A bonds with T, and G bonds with C.
  5. E) the amount of A = the amount of G, and the amount of C = the amount of T.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Complementary base pairs are held together by

  1. A) peptide bonds.
  2. B) hydrogen bonds.
  3. C) disulfide bonds.
  4. D) covalent bonds.
  5. E) ionic bonds.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) The two polynucleotide chains in a DNA molecule are attached to each other by

  1. A) covalent bonds between carbon atoms.
  2. B) hydrogen bonds between bases.
  3. C) peptide bonds between amino acids.
  4. D) ionic bonds between “R” groups in amino acids.
  5. E) covalent bonds between phosphates and sugars.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

20) In a DNA molecule, base pairing occurs between

  1. A) adenine and thymine.
  2. B) adenine and guanine.
  3. C) guanine and uracil.
  4. D) thymine and cytosine.
  5. E) adenine and uracil.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) If the DNA sequence is G-C-C-T-A-T in one polynucleotide chain, then the sequence found in the other polynucleotide chain must be

  1. A) C-G-G-A-T-A.
  2. B) G-C-C-A-T-A.
  3. C) C-G-G-A-U-A.
  4. D) A-T-T-C-G-C.
  5. E) G-C-C-T-A-T.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

22) Which of the following is true in the Watson-Crick model of DNA?

  1. A) Ribose always bonds to a nitrogenous base.
  2. B) During replication, the phosphate groups are copied but the base sequence is not copied.
  3. C) Phosphate groups always bond to ribose.
  4. D) The number of adenines equals the number of guanines.
  5. E) Four different types of bases are found in DNA.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the uprights of the ladder are

  1. A) nitrogenous bases linked together.
  2. B) deoxyribose linked to phosphate.
  3. C) deoxyribose linked to sulfate.
  4. D) nitrogenous bases linked to phosphate.
  5. E) hydrogen bonds between bases.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the rungs of the ladder are

  1. A) nitrogenous bases linked together.
  2. B) deoxyribose linked to phosphate.
  3. C) deoxyribose linked to sulfate.
  4. D) nitrogenous bases linked to phosphate.
  5. E) the backbones of the molecule.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

25) Which of the following is NOT true according to Chargaff’s base pairing rule?

  1. A) A = T in amount.
  2. B) G = C in amount.
  3. C) A + G = T + C in amount.
  4. D) A + T = G + C in amount.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Which component of a DNA nucleotide could be removed without breaking the polynucleotide chain?

  1. A) Ribose
  2. B) Deoxyribose
  3. C) Phosphate
  4. D) Nitrogen base

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

27) It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completing their model that a DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in its

  1. A) sequence of bases.
  2. B) phosphate-sugar backbone.
  3. C) variety of phosphate groups.
  4. D) side groups of bases.
  5. E) different five-carbon sugars.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

28) Why did scientists initially think DNA would be a poor candidate for the hereditary information within a cell?

  1. A) Griffith’s experiments suggested that protein was the hereditary material.
  2. B) Studies showed that viruses lacking DNA passed genetic traits to the next generation.
  3. C) DNA was shown to be made of only four different kinds of nucleotides.
  4. D) The work of Franklin and Wilkins showed that DNA could not be the hereditary material.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

29) Regarding the structure of DNA, which is like a spiral staircase?

  1. A) Deoxyribose
  2. B) Phosphate
  3. C) Double helix
  4. D) Hydrogen bonds
  5. E) Covalent bonds

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

30) Regarding the structure of DNA, which joins sugar to phosphate?

  1. A) Deoxyribose
  2. B) Phosphate
  3. C) Double helix
  4. D) Hydrogen bonds
  5. E) Covalent bonds

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Regarding the structure of DNA, which joins adenine and thymine and also guanine and cytosine?

  1. A) Deoxyribose
  2. B) Phosphate
  3. C) Double helix
  4. D) Hydrogen bonds
  5. E) Covalent bonds

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

32) Watson and Crick are credited with the discovery and description of the DNA

  1. A) deoxyribose sugar.
  2. B) phosphate group.
  3. C) double helix.
  4. D) hydrogen bonds.
  5. E) covalent bonds.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

33) Regarding the structure of DNA, which is covalently bonded to a nitrogenase?

  1. A) Deoxyribose
  2. B) Ribose
  3. C) Phosphate
  4. D) Phospholipid
  5. E) Hydrogen bonds

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) Regarding the structure of DNA, the units that form the “uprights” of the DNA ladder and do not attach to the nitrogen bases are

  1. A) deoxyribose molecules.
  2. B) phosphate molecules.
  3. C) ribose molecules.
  4. D) sulfur-containing bases.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) How many different kinds of base pairings are in DNA?

  1. A) Two
  2. B) Four
  3. C) Hundreds or thousands
  4. D) Millions

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

36) How many different kinds of nucleotides are in DNA?

  1. A) Two
  2. B) Four
  3. C) Hundreds or thousands
  4. D) Millions

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

37) How many bases are in the DNA molecule of a typical human chromosome?

  1. A) Two
  2. B) Four
  3. C) Thousands
  4. D) Millions

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

38) Which of the following is true regarding the genetic information in the cells of your body?

  1. A) Different kinds of body cells contain different genetic information.
  2. B) Each type of body cell contains only the genetic information it needs to be that type of cell.
  3. C) The genetic information in almost all of your body cells is identical.
  4. D) The genetic information in your body cells changes in a predictable manner as you grow and develop.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) When a cell divides, each daughter cell receives

  1. A) a nearly perfect copy of the parent cell’s genetic information.
  2. B) exactly half the genetic information in the parent cell.
  3. C) the same amount of genetic information that was in the parent cell, but it has been altered.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

40) When DNA polymerase encounters thymine in the parental strand, what does it add to the growing daughter strand?

  1. A) Deoxyribose
  2. B) Phosphate group
  3. C) Adenine
  4. D) Uracil

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

41) Semiconservative DNA replication means that

  1. A) the old DNA is completely broken down.
  2. B) the old DNA remains completely intact.
  3. C) A pairs with T and G pairs with C.
  4. D) only half of the DNA is replicated.
  5. E) each new DNA molecule has half the DNA from the old one.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) All of the following occur during DNA replication EXCEPT:

  1. A) separation of parental DNA strands.
  2. B) use of parental DNA as a template.
  3. C) use of DNA polymerase enzymes.
  4. D) synthesis of totally new double-stranded DNA molecules.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

43) When chromosomes replicate

  1. A) the two DNA strands separate and each is used as a template for synthesis of a new strand.
  2. B) new DNA synthesis occurs in only one location along the entire DNA molecule.
  3. C) one strand of the DNA is completely replicated first, and then the second strand is replicated.
  4. D) the original DNA is distributed to the two daughter cells, with no new DNA synthesized.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

44) In one strand of DNA, the nucleotide sequence is 5′-A-T-G-C-3′. The complementary sequence in the other strand must be

  1. A) 5′-C-G-T-A-3′.
  2. B) 5′-A-T-G-C-3′.
  3. C) 3′-T-A-C-G-5′.
  4. D) 3′-G-C-A-T-5′.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

45) Which of the following is NOT involved in the DNA replication process?

  1. A) DNA helicase
  2. B) DNA ligase
  3. C) DNA replicase
  4. D) DNA polymerase

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

46) Which of the following is true about the accuracy of DNA replication?

  1. A) Many errors are made during DNA replication, but this does not matter because of the immense size of the DNA molecule.
  2. B) Many errors are made during DNA replication, but this does not matter because repair enzymes mend the errors.
  3. C) The few errors made by DNA polymerase are usually corrected by repair enzymes.
  4. D) DNA polymerase makes very few errors, so no repair enzymes are needed.
  5. E) DNA polymerase always makes a perfect copy of the original DNA.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

47) A cell that lacks the ability to make DNA repair enzymes will

  1. A) be able to correctly replicate its DNA, but it will need more time to do so.
  2. B) be unable to replicate its DNA.
  3. C) replicate its DNA as well as a cell with intact repair enzymes.
  4. D) replicate its DNA as rapidly as a normal cell, but the resulting DNA will have more errors in it.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

48) DNA polymerase, before any proofreading by repair enzymes, makes one mistake for about every

  1. A) 1 to 10 base pairs.
  2. B) 10 to 100 base pairs.
  3. C) 1,000 to 100,000 base pairs.
  4. D) 1 million to 10 million base pairs.
  5. E) 100 million to 1 billion base pairs.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

49) After proofreading repair enzymes check the work of DNA polymerase, newly replicated DNA strands contain about one mistake for every

  1. A) 1 to 10 base pairs.
  2. B) 10 to 100 base pairs.
  3. C) 1,000 to 100,000 base pairs.
  4. D) 1 million to 10 million base pairs.
  5. E) 100 million to 1 billion base pairs.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

50) Which of the following is true regarding how the DNA in your body’s cells can accumulate mutations?

  1. A) Mistakes are never made during DNA replication; they always occur during the G1 phase of interphase.
  2. B) Some DNA spontaneously breaks down every second, making the chromosome significantly shorter with every passing day.
  3. C) The ultraviolet radiation in sunlight may induce changes in DNA.
  4. D) Spontaneous mutation rates are around one in every four nucleotides that are replicated.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

51) Imagine that a DNA sequence of 5′-A-C-G-T-A-C-G-T-3′ is altered to 5′-A-C-G-C-A-C-G-T-3′. This could happen as a result of a(n)

  1. A) point mutation.
  2. B) deletion mutation.
  3. C) insertion mutation.
  4. D) inversion.
  5. E) translocation.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

52) Imagine that a DNA sequence of 5′-A-C-G-T-A-C-G-T-3′ is altered to 5′-A-C-G-A-C-G-T-3′. This could happen as a result of a(n)

  1. A) point mutation.
  2. B) deletion mutation.
  3. C) insertion mutation.
  4. D) inversion.
  5. E) translocation.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

53) What two bases in the DNA molecule are double-ringed?

  1. A) Thymine and cytosine
  2. B) Thymine and uracil
  3. C) Uracil and guanine
  4. D) Guanine and cytosine
  5. E) Guanine and adenine

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

54) Mutations are a source of genetic ________ by which evolutionary change is possible.

  1. A) constancy
  2. B) stability
  3. C) variability
  4. D) reproduction

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

55) Agents that cause mutations are called mutagens. All of the following are examples of mutagens EXCEPT:

  1. A) ultraviolet radiation.
  2. B) X-rays.
  3. C) cigarette smoke.
  4. D) vitamins.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

56) Specific segments of DNA that code for a specific protein are called

  1. A) chromosomes.
  2. B) genes.
  3. C) nuclei.
  4. D) nucleoli.
  5. E) mutations.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

57) What determines the function of the gene product?

  1. A) The sequence of bases
  2. B) The number of bases
  3. C) The sequence of phosphates
  4. D) The number of phosphates
  5. E) The sequences of deoxyribose

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

11.2   True/False Questions

 

1) In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of both DNA and proteins. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Chargaff found that the amounts of the four bases vary from species to species, but the amount of adenine always equals the amount of guanine and the amount of thymine always equals the amount of cytosine. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3) The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The number of subunits in a DNA molecule is more important to its function than the sequence of these subunits. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  11.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) DNA ligase is important in the replication process because it can join together segments of DNA into a single daughter strand. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) During DNA replication, the continuous daughter strand is the leading strand. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

7) In semiconservative replication, a DNA molecule serves as a template for a new DNA molecule, which consists of either both parental strands of DNA or both newly synthesized strands of DNA. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) DNA helicase is involved in “rewinding” the strands of DNA back into a helix after replication. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) DNA polymerase has the ability to match the nucleotide base in the parental strand with a free nucleotide that is complementary to that base. It then forms the covalent bonds between the nucleotides in the growing daughter strand of DNA. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

10) DNA replication occurs without errors due to the complementary base pairing used in the copying process. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Most mutations are harmful or neutral, although in rare instances some can be beneficial. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Inversions are movements of DNA from one chromosome to another. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

11.3   Fill-in-the-Blank Questions

 

1) The molecule ________ carries the genetic “blueprints” for all forms of life on Earth.

Answer:  DNA

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) By the early 1900s, scientists had determined that heritable information existed as discrete units called genes, which were located on ________.

Answer:  chromosomes

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Chromosomes contain both ________ and ________, and early-20th-century scientists were unsure which of these molecules carried the heritable units called genes.

Answer:  DNA; protein

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The basic subunits of DNA are the ________.

Answer:  nucleotides

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) The DNA of chromosomes is composed of two strands wound about each other in the shape of a ________ ________.

Answer:  double helix (or twisted ladder)

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The X-ray diffraction studies of the scientists named ________ and ________ were essential for the discovery of the structure of the DNA molecule.

Answer:  Wilkins; Franklin

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

7) At one end of a double helix, one strand has a free sugar (3′) group and the other strand has a free ________ group.

Answer:  phosphate

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) ________ breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs during DNA replication.

Answer:  DNA helicase

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Segments of DNA that are made during replication are joined together by ________.

Answer:  DNA ligase

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) ________ is the process whereby a molecule of DNA copies itself.

Answer:  DNA replication

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) DNA is copied within eukaryotic cells in the process of ________ to produce two identical DNA molecules.

Answer:  replication

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) DNA replication uses ________ base pairing to ensure genetic constancy.

Answer:  complementary

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

13) DNA polymerase and other repair enzymes ________ the newly synthesized DNA strand during and after the replication process.

Answer:  proofread

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

11.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Briefly describe the experiments conducted by Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod. What was the relevance of their research?

Answer:  The Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod experiments determined that the transforming agent in Griffith’s experiments was DNA. Their experiments led to the connection between genes and DNA.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

2) If cytosine makes up 15% of the bases in a sample of DNA from an organism, then adenine makes up what percentage of the bases?

Answer:  35%

Diff: 3

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) What are the three main components of a DNA nucleotide?

Answer:  A DNA nucleotide contains a sugar (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Name the four types of nitrogen-containing bases in DNA. Which bases are complementary?

Answer:  Adenine is complementary to thymine, and guanine is complementary to cytosine.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) How are the four types of nitrogen-containing bases in DNA held together in the double helix of DNA?

Answer:  The bases are held together via hydrogen bonds.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) When Hershey and Chase labeled phage with radioactive phosphorus, they concluded that the phage injects its DNA, not protein, into its host. These conclusions were based on the observation that the radioactive DNA ended up where?

Answer:  The DNA ended up inside the bacterium.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Briefly describe the basic process of DNA replication.

Answer:  DNA helicase unwinds the double helix of the parental DNA molecule. Then DNA polymerase pairs free nucleotides to be complementary to the parental DNA strand. The new nucleotides are then joined together to form two new strands of DNA paired with each of the original parental strands.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) How do scientists know that proofreading occurs during and after the DNA replication process?

Answer:  DNA polymerase mismatches bases about once in every 1,000 to 100,000 base pairs, but the actual mutation rate is one mistake in every 100 million to 1 billion base pairs.

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

11.5   Art Questions

 

1) Based on this figure, which type(s) of bacteria would you expect to be isolated from the dead mouse in the final experiment (involving the mixture of bacterial strains)?

 

 

  1. A) Living R-strain only
  2. B) Heat-killed S-strain only
  3. C) Living R-strain and heat-killed S-strain only
  4. D) At least some living S-strain

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) Based on this figure, which molecule would attach to the 5′ phosphate end of the DNA strand on the right?

 

  1. A) Phosphate
  2. B) Deoxyribose
  3. C) Cytosine
  4. D) Adenine
  5. E) Phospholipid

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11.6   Scenario Questions

 

1) Suppose a scientist working on a new drug for cancer developed a chemical that irreversibly breaks the hydrogen bonds in the DNA molecules within cancerous cells but leaves all of the covalent bonds intact. Hydrogen bonds are relatively weak compared to covalent bonds, and they are routinely broken and reformed as the DNA molecule is replicated in a normal cell. Their stability is nonetheless critical for maintaining certain aspects of the structure and function of the DNA molecule.

Based on this scenario and your knowledge of DNA, how would this newly discovered chemical affect the “molecule of heredity” in a human cancer cell?

  1. A) It would allow the DNA molecule to function normally except during replication.
  2. B) It would result in constant DNA replication within the cell.
  3. C) It would break the two strands of the DNA molecule apart, preventing it from functioning normally.
  4. D) It would break the individual strands of the DNA molecule apart, preventing it from functioning normally.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) Bacterial cells have only one DNA molecule, which is double stranded and is replicated in essentially the same fashion as in eukaryotes. Imagine that, following the techniques of other scientists studying DNA, you created a bacterial cell that contains only radioactive nitrogen in its DNA. You then place the cell in a culture medium containing only “regular” (nonradioactive) nitrogen.

Based on this scenario and your knowledge of DNA structure and replication, how many cells will contain some DNA with radioactive nitrogen after four rounds of cell replication?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 16

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  11.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

Biology: Life on Earth with Physiology, 10e (Audesirk)

Chapter 21   The Diversity of Plants

 

21.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) A fertilized egg is a

  1. A) sporophyte.
  2. B) gametophyte.
  3. C) zygote.
  4. D) spore.
  5. E) gamete.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) In plants, the diploid, multicellular organism is the

  1. A) sporophyte.
  2. B) gametophyte.
  3. C) zygote.
  4. D) spore.
  5. E) gamete.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) In plants, the haploid, multicellular organism is the

  1. A) sporophyte.
  2. B) gametophyte.
  3. C) zygote.
  4. D) spore.
  5. E) gamete.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) The haploid, single-celled product of mitosis is a

  1. A) sporophyte.
  2. B) gametophyte.
  3. C) zygote.
  4. D) spore.
  5. E) gamete.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) A gametophyte is

  1. A) diploid.
  2. B) haploid.
  3. C) triploid.
  4. D) tetraploid.
  5. E) unable to survive.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The cell after fertilization is called a(n)

  1. A) spore.
  2. B) sporophyte.
  3. C) embryo.
  4. D) seed.
  5. E) zygote.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Which of the following characteristics differentiates plants from green algae?

  1. A) Photosynthetic pigments
  2. B) Starch
  3. C) Cellulose
  4. D) Chloroplasts
  5. E) Multicellular, dependent embryos

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) Which evidence supports the idea that land plants arose from green algae?

  1. A) Both photosynthesize.
  2. B) Both use the same kind of chlorophyll.
  3. C) Green algae live in freshwater environments, and plants require fresh water.
  4. D) Both contain similar accessory pigments.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

9) What are the products of photosynthesis?

  1. A) Sugars and O2
  2. B) Lipids and H2O
  3. C) CO2and sugars
  4. D) Minerals and nitrogen
  5. E) CO2and phosphorus

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Why do farmers add organic matter in the form of dead plants to the soil?

  1. A) Organic matter improves the soil’s ability to hold water and nutrients.
  2. B) Organic matter adds oxygen to the soil.
  3. C) Organic matter lowers the level of carbon dioxide in the soil.
  4. D) Soil needs to have minerals added every year.
  5. E) Organic matter kills microbes in the soil.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) During the Dust Bowl years, thousands of acres in the United States lost all vegetation due to drought and the soil blew away. Why?

  1. A) Plants draw all the water out of the soil, which increases erosion.
  2. B) Plants take nutrients out of the soil, thus weakening its structure.
  3. C) The roots of living plants help hold soil in place and prevent erosion.
  4. D) Photosynthesis is detrimental to microbes in the soil.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

12) Green algae are assumed to be ancestors of plants because

  1. A) the fossil ancestors have been discovered.
  2. B) green algae make chitin and laminarin.
  3. C) green algae make cellulose and starch.
  4. D) green algae are almost exclusively marine.
  5. E) lignin is known to occur in some green algae.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

13) The closest living relatives to plants are

  1. A) stoneworts.
  2. B) red algae.
  3. C) ciliates.
  4. D) amoebas.
  5. E) foraminferans.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Both plants and green algae store food as

  1. A) lignan.
  2. B) chlorophyll.
  3. C) starch.
  4. D) cellulose.
  5. E) lipids.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Pollen and seeds evolved in response to

  1. A) an increase in pollinators.
  2. B) flower evolution.
  3. C) moist environments.
  4. D) seed predators.
  5. E) dry land environments.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16) Which of these is an advantage to a plant that moved onto land?

  1. A) Increased sunlight availability
  2. B) Dry environment
  3. C) Less support
  4. D) Increased heat
  5. E) Decreased water availability

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

17) To control the movement of gases, land plants developed

  1. A) stomata.
  2. B) a cuticle.
  3. C) flowers.
  4. D) vascular tissue.
  5. E) lignan.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) To limit water loss, land plants developed

  1. A) stomata.
  2. B) a cuticle.
  3. C) flowers.
  4. D) vascular tissue.
  5. E) lignan.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) To strengthen the conducting cells and help plants stand erect without water for them to float in, land plants developed

  1. A) stomata.
  2. B) a cuticle.
  3. C) flowers.
  4. D) vascular tissue.
  5. E) lignan.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

20) With respect to plant reproduction, there has been an evolutionary trend toward

  1. A) increased pollen production.
  2. B) smaller flowers.
  3. C) larger fruits.
  4. D) sporophyte dominance.
  5. E) greater seed production.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Why do mosses and liverworts need to live in a moist environment?

  1. A) They need moisture for reproduction.
  2. B) They need moisture for the production of flowers.
  3. C) They need moisture for the production of fruits.
  4. D) They need moisture for root formation.
  5. E) They need moisture for greater seed production.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) While walking in a tropical forest, you come upon a 6-meter-tall plant that shows no evidence of seed production. The plant is most likely a(n)

  1. A) gymnosperm.
  2. B) angiosperm.
  3. C) bryophyte.
  4. D) fern.
  5. E) alga.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

23) A fossil plant appears to have several seeds all completely enclosed in a single outer covering. This plant is probably a(n)

  1. A) gymnosperm.
  2. B) angiosperm.
  3. C) bryophyte.
  4. D) fern.
  5. E) alga.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

24) Which of the following weather conditions would you expect to have the greatest negative impact on the sexual reproduction of ferns and mosses?

  1. A) Excessively wet and rainy
  2. B) Above-average temperatures for several days
  3. C) Excessively dry for several days
  4. D) Moderate temperatures and rainfall
  5. E) The shade of a forest

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

25) Which of the following weather conditions would you expect to have the greatest positive impact on the sexual reproduction of ferns and mosses?

  1. A) Excessively wet and rainy
  2. B) Above-average temperatures for several days
  3. C) Excessively dry for several days
  4. D) Below-average temperatures for a few days
  5. E) The shade of a forest

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

26) Which evolutionary plant innovation eliminated the need for sperm to swim through water in order to fertilize an egg, resulting in plants being truly adapted for reproduction on land?

  1. A) Rhizoids
  2. B) Fruit
  3. C) Roots
  4. D) Independent gametophyte
  5. E) Pollen

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

27) If you were hiking and wanted to show off your understanding of the differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms, what characteristics could you see with your naked eye that would help you impress your friends?

  1. A) Flowers or cones
  2. B) Presence or lack of vascular tissues
  3. C) Presence or lack of seeds
  4. D) Presence or lack of tree-sized stems
  5. E) Size of the male gametophyte

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) In flowering plants, what is the relationship of the sporophyte generation to the gametophyte generation?

  1. A) The sporophyte is dominant but begins its development attached to the gametophyte.
  2. B) The gametophyte is dominant, and the sporophyte is retained on the gametophyte.
  3. C) The sporophyte is dominant, and the gametophyte is microscopic.
  4. D) Flowering plants do not produce sporophytes.
  5. E) Flowering plants do not produce gametophytes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

29) Which group of land plants is most restricted to moist environments?

  1. A) Vascular plants
  2. B) Tracheophytes
  3. C) Bryophytes
  4. D) Anthophyta
  5. E) Angiosperms

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Bryophytes absorb water through

  1. A) roots.
  2. B) mycorrhizae.
  3. C) rhizomes.
  4. D) tracheophytes.
  5. E) rhizoids.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Which of the following are important reproductive adaptations that allow plants to inhabit terrestrial environments?

  1. A) Leaves and stems
  2. B) Seeds and pollen
  3. C) Roots and leaves
  4. D) Gametophytes and sporophytes
  5. E) Flowers and leaves

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

32) Which group of plants was the first to produce seeds?

  1. A) Angiosperms
  2. B) Bryophytes
  3. C) Gymnosperms
  4. D) Lycophytes
  5. E) Chlorophytes

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

33) Which of the following are gymnosperms?

  1. A) Cycads, ginkgos, and ferns
  2. B) Cycads, conifers, and ferns
  3. C) Ginkgos, conifers, and horsetails
  4. D) Conifers, ginkgos, and ferns
  5. E) Cycads, ginkgos, and conifers

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) Which of the following are seedless vascular plants with silica in the wall and tiny, scale-like leaves?

  1. A) Mosses
  2. B) Liverworts
  3. C) Horsetails
  4. D) Cycads
  5. E) Ferns

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

35) Which division has been reduced to one remaining species?

  1. A) Conifers
  2. B) Cycads
  3. C) Ginkgos
  4. D) Bryophytes
  5. E) Liverworts

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) Which plants have been planted extensively along U.S. streets due to their resistance to pollution?

  1. A) Conifers
  2. B) Cycads
  3. C) Ginkgos
  4. D) Bryophytes
  5. E) Liverworts

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

37) What group dominated the Carboniferous period and is now burned as coal?

  1. A) Angiosperms
  2. B) Conifers
  3. C) Cycads
  4. D) Seedless vascular plants
  5. E) Algae

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) What is one major difference between ferns and the other seedless vascular plants?

  1. A) Their reproductive cycle
  2. B) Their dominant stage of life
  3. C) Their leaf shape
  4. D) Their flower structure
  5. E) Their vascular system

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

39) Which group does not depend on water for reproduction?

  1. A) Ferns
  2. B) Bryophytes
  3. C) Algae
  4. D) Club mosses
  5. E) Flowering plants

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) The main function of flower petals is to

  1. A) produce gametes.
  2. B) photosynthesize.
  3. C) provide support.
  4. D) attract pollinators.
  5. E) discourage herbivores.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

41) In angiosperms, the male gametophyte is

  1. A) pollen.
  2. B) the anther.
  3. C) a flower.
  4. D) sperm.
  5. E) a seed.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) A fruit is a

  1. A) seed.
  2. B) mature ovary.
  3. C) mature ovule.
  4. D) female gametophyte.
  5. E) plant embryo.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

43) Fruit production requires precious resources. What important benefit does fruit provide?

  1. A) Feeds the embryo
  2. B) Keeps the seed moist
  3. C) Is a means of dispersal of seeds
  4. D) Attracts pollen eaters
  5. E) Prevents grazing on the fruit

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

44) What pollinates most gymnosperms?

  1. A) Insects
  2. B) Birds
  3. C) Small mammals
  4. D) Wind

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

45) You’ve observed a moss sporophyte attached to a gametophyte. The sporophyte is attached to a(n)

  1. A) archegonium.
  2. B) flower.
  3. C) female cone.
  4. D) embryo sac.
  5. E) antheridium.

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

46) Which of the following is most likely to be successful and thrive in a desert ecosystem?

  1. A) Angiosperm
  2. B) Conifer
  3. C) Green alga
  4. D) Fern
  5. E) Horsetail

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

47) Which of the following relies on the wind for pollination?

  1. A) Tulip
  2. B) Stinking corpse lily
  3. C) Magnolia tree
  4. D) Pine tree
  5. E) Gardenia

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

48) Which of the following is technically NOT a fruit?

  1. A) Pumpkin
  2. B) Cucumber
  3. C) Tomato
  4. D) Lettuce
  5. E) Green pepper

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

49) Which of the following depends on a method of seed dispersal other than the consumption of its fruits?

  1. A) Apple
  2. B) Strawberry
  3. C) Maple
  4. D) Pine
  5. E) Moss

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

50) Gnetophytes are

  1. A) angiosperms.
  2. B) bryophytes.
  3. C) seedless vascular plants.
  4. D) nonflowering seed plants.
  5. E) ferns.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

51) Which of the following is most likely to disappear from an ecosystem during an extended drought?

  1. A) Angiosperm
  2. B) Conifer
  3. C) Gnetophyte
  4. D) Fern
  5. E) Liverwort

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

52) Ginkgos are classified as

  1. A) angiosperms.
  2. B) bryophytes.
  3. C) seedless vascular plants.
  4. D) gymnosperms.
  5. E) ferns.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

53) Horsetails are classified as

  1. A) angiosperms.
  2. B) bryophytes.
  3. C) seedless vascular plants.
  4. D) gymnosperms.
  5. E) ferns.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

54) Cycads are classified as

  1. A) angiosperms.
  2. B) bryophytes.
  3. C) seedless vascular plants.
  4. D) gymnosperms.
  5. E) ferns.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

55) Roses are classified as

  1. A) angiosperms.
  2. B) bryophytes.
  3. C) seedless vascular plants.
  4. D) gymnosperms.
  5. E) ferns.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

56) A complete lack of vascular tissue is characteristic of

  1. A) angiosperms.
  2. B) mosses.
  3. C) ginkgos.
  4. D) cycads.
  5. E) ferns.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

57) Pollen production by the anthers of a flower is characteristic of

  1. A) angiosperms.
  2. B) conifers.
  3. C) ferns.
  4. D) mosses.
  5. E) ginkgos.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

21.2   True/False Questions

 

1) The characteristic that sets plants apart from photosynthetic protists is the multicellular, dependent embryo. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) The haploid generation of a plant is called the sporophyte. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) The cuticle of a leaf is one modification that enabled plants to move onto land. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The cuticle in a plant speeds water uptake by the roots. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Seeds allowed plants to colonize dry land. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Mosses produce large amounts of pollen. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

7) In nonvascular plants, sperm are formed in the antheridia. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) In nonvascular plants, sperm are formed in the archegonia. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Club mosses and horsetails have vascular tissue. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Cycads attract pollinators with large, fragrant flowers. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) The only seedless vascular plants with broad leaves are ferns. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Fruits are a method of pollen dispersal. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

21.3   Fill-in-the-Blank Questions

 

1) You find a multicellular, eukaryotic organism that carries out photosynthesis and produces dependent embryos. It is classified as a(n) ________.

Answer:   plant

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) A diploid generation of a plant is classified as a(n) ________.

Answer:   sporophyte

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3) The haploid generation of a plant is called a(n) ________.

Answer:   gametophyte

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) A plant cell undergoing meiosis produces a(n) ________.

Answer:   gametophyte

Diff: 2

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

5) The gametophyte produces ________ by mitosis.

Answer:   gametes

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Spores are produced by ________.

Answer:   sporophytes

Diff: 1

Section:  21.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Land plants are believed to have evolved from ________.

Answer:   green algae, or stoneworts

Diff: 1

Section:  21.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) To reduce water loss, the outside of leaves is covered with a(n) ________.

Answer:   cuticle

Diff: 1

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Vessel tubes are rigid because they contain ________ in their cell walls.

Answer:   lignin

Diff: 1

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) A mature pine tree is in the ________ stage of development.

Answer:   sporophyte

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Archegonia produce ________.

Answer:   eggs

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

12) The ________ of a fern gametophyte imply that it can be found living in the soil independent of a fern sporophyte.

Answer:   rhizoids

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Conifer seeds develop in ________.

Answer:   cones

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

14) Angiosperms produce pollen in ________.

Answer:   anthers

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Ephedra, used by humans as a stimulant and appetite suppressant, is a(n) ________.

Answer:   gnetophyte

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) How does photosynthesis benefit nonphotosynthetic organisms such as humans?

Answer:   Plants convert solar energy to chemical energy in the form of sugars and starches, which provide food for humans. During photosynthesis, oxygen is given off as a waste product. This provides the oxygen we breathe.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) For what uses do people grow plants?

Answer:   Plants are used for fuels, food, medicines, shelter, and pleasure.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) In the 1800s, northern Minnesota was covered with heavy forests. After the forests were logged off, the land was sold for farms. The majority of the farms failed because the land became waterlogged.  Why did this happen?

Answer:   Plants absorb and hold huge amounts of water. Without the trees to absorb the water, the water table rose and the land flooded.

Diff: 3

Section:  21.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

4) What evidence supports the idea that members of the plant kingdom evolved from ancestral green algae?

Answer:   Plants and green algae have similar DNA sequences, store starch, have cellulose in their walls, and use the same photosynthetic pigments.

Diff: 1

Section:  21.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

5) What advantage do seed plants have over spore-forming plants?

Answer:   Seeds tolerate drying better and live longer than spores. Seeds can take advantage of animals for dispersal, whereas spores are too small and lacking in nutrients to interest animal carriers.

Diff: 3

Section:  21.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

6) Explain the difference between an angiosperm seed and a gymnosperm seed.

Answer:   Gymnosperm seeds develop in cones and lack fleshy covering. Angiosperm seeds develop within the ovary to form a fruit.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

7) In some areas of the world where there are large numbers of pine trees, in the spring everything is covered with a yellow dust that turns out to be pine pollen. Why must conifers produce so much pollen, and why doesn’t a field of flowers produce so much pollen?

Answer:   Pines are pollinated by the wind, so they must produce large excesses of pollen. Field flowers are pollinated by insects and therefore don’t have to produce so much pollen.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

8) Explain how bryophytes are an intermediate between green algae and terrestrial plants.

Answer:   Bryophytes are land-dwelling plants but must be close to water because they are nonvascular and lack the ability to transport water over long distances. They also produce swimming sperm like green algae, which means water must be available for fertilization to occur.

Diff: 1

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

9) Explain the evolutionary relevance of the seed.

Answer:   Seeds enabled plants to thrive on land because the plant embryos are protected from drying out and survive on the food stored inside the seed until growing conditions are favorable. The seed coat helps regulate the timing of seed germination.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

10) What methods do angiosperms use to disperse seed?

Answer:   Angiosperm seeds are spread via wind, water, ingestion of fruits by birds and animals, and hitching a ride on fur, feathers, and clothing.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Why are ferns not well adapted to desert areas?

Answer:   Ferns have limited vascular elements and are not very effective at transporting water. Most ferns lack a heavy cuticle to prevent drying under low humidity. Ferns require liquid water to transport the sperm.

Diff: 3

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

12) How do gymnosperms differ from angiosperms?

Answer:   Gymnosperms do not produce flowers, whereas angiosperms do.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) What characteristics allow conifers to dominate cold, dry habitats?

Answer:   Conifers have the ability to photosynthesize year round, their leaves form small needles protected with a heavy waxy cuticle, and their resin acts as an antifreeze.

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

21.5   Art Questions

 

 

1) Based on the evolutionary tree, the closest relatives of seed plants are the

  1. A) ferns.
  2. B) liverworts.
  3. C) mosses.
  4. D) green algae.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) Based on the evolutionary tree, angiosperms are most closely related to

  1. A) ferns.
  2. B) liverworts.
  3. C) mosses.
  4. D) green algae.
  5. E) gymnosperms.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) The fruit in the photo has evolved for dispersal by

 

 

  1. A) animals.
  2. B) wind.
  3. C) water.
  4. D) humans.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

4) The fruit in the photo has evolved for dispersal by

 

 

  1. A) animals.
  2. B) wind.
  3. C) water.
  4. D) humans.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

21.6   Scenario Questions

 

1) You examine a 1-inch-tall plant in the woods. This plant is part of a mass of similar small plants covering an area of several square feet. It is very flexible and does not easily stand upright by itself. Upon examining the tiny, flat, leaf-like structures of this plant, you see no veins. There is no evidence of seeds, but at the end of a little stalk on the end of the plant, there is some sort of spore-bearing structure. This plant is probably a(n)

  1. A) angiosperm.
  2. B) gymnosperm.
  3. C) fern.
  4. D) alga.
  5. E) bryophyte.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) While walking in a forest, you find a plant with what appears to be unfertilized seeds on little scales exposed to the air. Yellow dust-like particles are on the surface of the unfertilized seeds. This plant is likely to be a(n)

  1. A) angiosperm.
  2. B) gymnosperm.
  3. C) bryophyte.
  4. D) seedless vascular plant.
  5. E) alga.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  21.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Biology: Life on Earth with Physiology, 10e (Audesirk)

Chapter 31   Homeostasis and the Organization of the Animal Body

 

31.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Most body systems maintain homeostasis through ________ systems.

  1. A) positive feedback
  2. B) negative feedback
  3. C) monitoring
  4. D) alternating
  5. E) redundant

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Hypertension damages the lining of the arterioles of the kidneys, which results in the release of molecules that further raise blood pressure. This is an example of a(n)

  1. A) negative feedback loop.
  2. B) positive feedback loop.
  3. C) controlling mechanism.
  4. D) uncontrolled mechanism.
  5. E) electrochemical mechanism.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) What is the primary reason internal homeostasis must be maintained?

  1. A) Wide swings in the internal environment interfere with normal metabolic reactions.
  2. B) Homeostasis prevents the wasting of stockpiles of coenzymes.
  3. C) Enzymes must retain their correct three-dimensional structure.
  4. D) Unregulated variations cause the cells’ DNA to mutate.
  5. E) Most organisms have not evolved mechanisms to control positive feedback systems.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

4) In the description of homeostasis, the term “dynamic constancy” refers to

  1. A) the fact that even though physical and chemical changes do occur, conditions are kept within a range.
  2. B) a constant movement toward equilibrium.
  3. C) the direct interaction of each positive feedback system with its corresponding negative feedback system.
  4. D) the use of ATP to initiate a cascade effect.
  5. E) a disregarded theory that suggested there were no external energy requirements to maintain cell homeostasis.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback loop?

  1. A) A hummingbird maintaining a constant internal body temperature
  2. B) A person altering her breathing rate to keep blood pH between 7.35 and 7.45
  3. C) Stress altering the normal menstrual cycle, which delays menstruation, which causes more stress
  4. D) The kidney retaining water when the organism becomes dehydrated

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

6) After eating a large meal of pasta, an individual’s blood sugar levels are elevated. In response to this, the pancreas secretes a hormone called insulin, which acts to lower blood sugar levels. Once the blood sugar levels drop to the normal level, the pancreas stops secreting insulin. This is an example of

  1. A) acid—base imbalance.
  2. B) reactions between carbon monoxide and acids.
  3. C) a positive feedback loop.
  4. D) a negative feedback loop.
  5. E) energy being made into proteins.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

7) Which of the following controls the temperature in endothermic animals?

  1. A) Autonomic nervous system
  2. B) Hypothalamus
  3. C) Positive feedback systems
  4. D) Reflexive skeletal muscles
  5. E) Cerebral cortex

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) One biological example of a positive feedback system is

  1. A) heatstroke.
  2. B) temperature regulation.
  3. C) blood pH levels.
  4. D) water balance.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

9) What happens if homeostasis is not maintained?

  1. A) Organisms function better.
  2. B) Cellular metabolism is unchanged.
  3. C) Cells begin dividing uncontrollably.
  4. D) Cells lose the ability to carry out normal functions.
  5. E) Organisms stop using negative feedback loops.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) In humans, the body needs to maintain oxygen levels within narrow homeostatic ranges. If the blood oxygen level drops below that range, the body responds by

  1. A) using negative feedback loops to further lower the oxygen level.
  2. B) using positive feedback to raise the oxygen level.
  3. C) using negative feedback loops to return the oxygen level to normal.
  4. D) using positive feedback to further lower the oxygen level.
  5. E) setting this lower oxygen level as the new normal.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

11) Groups of tissues that function together form a(n)

  1. A) organ.
  2. B) organ system.
  3. C) system.
  4. D) individual.
  5. E) gland.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Similar cells that perform a particular function are known as

  1. A) tissues.
  2. B) organs.
  3. C) organ systems.
  4. D) organisms.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

13) What is a gland?

  1. A) A cluster of epithelial or nervous cells that release a secretion
  2. B) A type of tissue that makes cartilage
  3. C) A special connection between muscle cells
  4. D) A group of cells that replaces the stomach lining every few days
  5. E) The functional unit of the skeletal system

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The lining of the trachea is formed from ________ tissue.

  1. A) epithelial
  2. B) connective
  3. C) muscle
  4. D) nerve
  5. E) undifferentiated

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

15) Which tissue is characterized by a basement membrane and a single layer of flattened cells with a free surface?

  1. A) Simple epithelium
  2. B) Connective tissue
  3. C) Muscle tissue
  4. D) Stratified epithelium
  5. E) Undifferentiated tissue

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Blood is a type of ________ tissue.

  1. A) epithelial
  2. B) connective
  3. C) muscle
  4. D) nerve
  5. E) endothelial

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

17) The mucus-secreting glands of the respiratory system are composed of ________ tissue.

  1. A) adipose
  2. B) muscle
  3. C) epithelial
  4. D) connective
  5. E) nerve

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) In stratified epithelium, cell division occurs

  1. A) in the surface cell layer only.
  2. B) in the cells at the base layer only.
  3. C) in the basement membrane only.
  4. D) throughout all the layers.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

19) The basement membrane in epithelial tissue

  1. A) provides strength and support.
  2. B) is the layer that contains the dividing cells.
  3. C) transmits nervous stimuli.
  4. D) contracts to move the skin.
  5. E) waterproofs the epithelium.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) The mucus that traps dust particles in the lungs is produced by

  1. A) adipose tissue.
  2. B) connective tissue.
  3. C) muscle tissue.
  4. D) endocrine glands.
  5. E) epithelial tissue.

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) The pads that cushion the vertebrae are made of

  1. A) bone.
  2. B) cartilage.
  3. C) matrix.
  4. D) fat.
  5. E) smooth muscle tissue.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

22) Large amounts of extracellular material are characteristic of

  1. A) simple epithelium.
  2. B) stratified epithelium.
  3. C) loose connective tissue.
  4. D) nervous tissue.
  5. E) smooth muscle.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

23) Widely scattered cells embedded in large amounts of extracellular material composed of randomly arranged collagen fibers make up

  1. A) loose connective tissue.
  2. B) cardiac muscle.
  3. C) adipose tissue.
  4. D) dense connective tissue.
  5. E) stratified epithelial tissue.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

24) Cartilage, bone, and blood are examples of ________ tissue.

  1. A) muscle
  2. B) nerve
  3. C) connective
  4. D) epithelial
  5. E) undifferentiated

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) Which of the following tissues is used for energy storage?

  1. A) Adipose
  2. B) Blood
  3. C) Cartilage
  4. D) Dense connective
  5. E) Epithelial

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

26) Which tissue helps endotherms maintain body temperature?

  1. A) Adipose
  2. B) Bone
  3. C) Cartilage
  4. D) Dense connective
  5. E) Simple epithelium

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

27) How are cardiac and smooth muscles similar?

  1. A) Both have only thin protein filaments.
  2. B) Both are typically under conscious control.
  3. C) Both are involuntary.
  4. D) Both are connected to bones.
  5. E) Both use cAMP as an energy source.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) Which type of muscle is under voluntary control?

  1. A) Smooth
  2. B) Cardiac
  3. C) Epithelial
  4. D) Skeletal
  5. E) Oxygen enriched

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) Which tissue contains large amounts of densely packed collagen fibers that run parallel to each other?

  1. A) Nerve
  2. B) Adipose
  3. C) Blood
  4. D) Lymph
  5. E) Tendons

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

30) Which tissue is in direct contact with the external environment of an animal?

  1. A) Connective
  2. B) Epithelial
  3. C) Muscle
  4. D) Nerve
  5. E) Endothelial

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

31) Connective tissues include lymph, ligaments, tendons, and

  1. A) cardiac muscle.
  2. B) exocrine glands.
  3. C) skin cells.
  4. D) cartilage.
  5. E) vessel linings.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) When you move your fingers to turn the page, you are using the nervous system and

  1. A) skeletal muscle.
  2. B) adipose tissue.
  3. C) cardiac muscle.
  4. D) simple epithelium.
  5. E) endocrine glands.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

33) Which cells are designed to conduct electrical impulses?

  1. A) Glial cells
  2. B) Skeletal muscle cells
  3. C) Nerve tissue
  4. D) Connective tissue
  5. E) Adipose cells

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

34) The retina of the eye responds to light, converting it into electrical impulses. The retina is made up of

  1. A) bone.
  2. B) cartilage.
  3. C) smooth muscle.
  4. D) neurons.
  5. E) simple epithelium.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

35) Hair follicles are a variation of ________ tissue.

  1. A) epithelial
  2. B) dense connective
  3. C) muscle
  4. D) loose connective
  5. E) nerve

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) The skin is an example of a(n)

  1. A) cell.
  2. B) tissue.
  3. C) organ.
  4. D) organ system.
  5. E) undifferentiated mass.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

37) Together, the stomach, intestines, mouth, and esophagus form a(n)

  1. A) organ.
  2. B) tissue.
  3. C) cell.
  4. D) organ system.
  5. E) ectotherm.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

38) The ________ system is composed of the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.

  1. A) digestive
  2. B) reproductive
  3. C) respiratory
  4. D) circulatory
  5. E) urinary

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

39) In addition to the nervous system, which vertebrate organ system controls physiological processes in animals?

  1. A) Reproductive
  2. B) Skeletal
  3. C) Muscular
  4. D) Endocrine
  5. E) Respiratory

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) Which tissue type is most suited to areas of the body in which the cells need continuous replacement to repair damage from daily wear and tear?

  1. A) Epithelial
  2. B) Connective
  3. C) Nerve
  4. D) Muscle

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31.2   True/False Questions

 

1) The maintenance of internal conditions within narrow ranges is known as homeostasis. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Due to the freezing temperatures of the deep ocean, all deep-sea fish must be endotherms. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

3) Most of the homeostatic functions in the body are regulated by positive feedback loops. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) Maintaining homeostasis requires the coordinated efforts of multiple negative feedback loops. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) When an animal’s body temperature drops below normal, the body responds to raise the temperature using positive feedback loops. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The integumentary system plays a role in temperature regulation. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Cardiac muscle requires input from the nervous system to contract. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Hormones are secreted by exocrine glands directly into a body cavity or onto a body surface, rather than being transported by the blood. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) The extracellular matrix in dense connective tissue contains large amounts of calcium, which causes the tissue to harden and become solid. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The basement membrane of epithelial tissues produces a waterproof barrier of cells to protect the tissue above it. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

11) Connective tissues are made up of cells surrounded by an extracellular matrix, the consistency of which can vary from a liquid to a solid. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Glial cells provide structural and chemical support to neurons. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The dermis of the skin is composed of stratified epithelium. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The outer layer of the skin is the dermis. True or False?

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) The blood vessels that provide nourishment for the skin cells are located in the dermis only. True or False?

Answer:  TRUE

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

31.3   Fill-in-the-Blank Questions

 

1) The ability to maintain an internal environment within specific ranges is referred to as ________.

Answer:  homeostasis

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Organisms that can maintain a fairly consistent internal body temperature through metabolic reactions are known as ________.

Answer:  endotherms

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3) Regardless of the temperature of the environment they find themselves in, endotherms maintain a nearly consistent ________ ________.

Answer:  body temperature

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The body temperature of an ________ changes to match the temperature of the external environment.

Answer:  ectotherm

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) An endotherm uses ________ feedback loops to maintain homeostasis.

Answer:  negative

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) When the body’s response to swelling caused by an insect bite is to release histamine, which causes more swelling and releases more histamine, the organism is using a ________ feedback loop.

Answer:  positive

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

7) While sitting in a hot car, your body begins to sweat, which cools the body back down. This illustrates a ________ feedback loop.

Answer:  negative

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) A(n) ________ is made up of two or more tissue types that work together to carry out body functions.

Answer:  organ

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Epithelial tissues are attached to the underlying tissue by a noncellular protein layer called the ________ membrane.

Answer:  basement

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

10) Glands that lack ducts and use the bloodstream to transport their products are called ________ glands.

Answer:  endocrine

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Bones are connected to other bones by ________.

Answer:  ligaments

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Blood is a type of connective tissue that contains fibers and cells suspended in a ________ matrix.

Answer:  fluid

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The matrix in cartilage is made of protein fibers called ________.

Answer:  collagen

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) A calcium phosphate matrix is characteristic of ________, a specialized connective tissue.

Answer:  bone

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Cells that store lipids (fats) for long-term energy are found in ________ tissue.

Answer:  adipose

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) ________ glands are a form of epithelial tissue that secretes substances through a duct.

Answer:  Exocrine

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) ________ epithelium is several cell layers thick and is specialized to withstand wear and tear.

Answer:  Stratified

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

18) Tightly packed collagen fibers arranged in either parallel rows or an irregular meshwork are characteristic of ________ connective tissue.

Answer:  dense

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) The digestive and respiratory tracts contain ________ muscle.

Answer:  smooth

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Cells that generate electrical impulses form ________ tissue.

Answer:  nerve

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

31.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Compare the mechanisms endotherms and ectotherms use to regulate body temperature.

Answer:  Endotherms produce heat through metabolic reactions, whereas ectotherms derive heat from the environment.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Why are negative feedback loops more effective at maintaining homeostasis than positive feedback loops?

Answer:  Negative loops counteract a stimulus to return the body to homeostatic levels. For example, when an animal’s body temperature increases, blood vessels dilate and sweat is produced to help lower the temperature back to normal. Positive loops respond to a stimulus by moving the body further from the homeostatic normal.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) Why do organisms need to maintain homeostasis?

Answer:  Metabolic reactions work at optimal levels within limited ranges of temperature, pH, and other factors. When the body is outside those ranges, metabolism functions at less-than-optimal levels, which may cause illness or even death.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

4) What are the four major types of tissues?

Answer:  The four major types are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, nerve tissue, and muscle tissue.

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) How do exocrine glands differ from endocrine glands?

Answer:  Exocrine glands secrete substances through ducts. Endocrine glands lack ducts and secrete substances (hormones) directly into the extracellular fluid.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

6) What characteristics of stratified epithelium make it suitable as an external covering?

Answer:  Stratified epithelium has the ability to continuously produce new cells to repair damaged cells. The new cells are produced at the base layer and move toward the surface. By the time the cells reach the surface, they are dead and form the water-resistant layer that provides additional protection.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

7) What characteristic defines muscle tissue?

Answer:  All muscle tissue has the ability to contract and then relax to return to its original condition.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Why do neurons need glial cells?

Answer:  Glial cells provide insulation for neurons, help regulate metabolism, provide structural support, and help maintain the normal metabolic functioning of neurons.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) For an organism to maintain proper neurological function, sodium and potassium levels must be maintained within narrow ranges. How would the body respond if a person took in excessive amounts of potassium?

Answer:  The body would use negative feedback mechanisms to return to homeostasis. This involves the endocrine, digestive, circulatory, and urinary systems.

Diff: 3

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

10) Which tissues are found in a sample of skin?

Answer:  Skin is a complex organ that contains epithelium, smooth muscle, nerve tissue, and several types of connective tissues.

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

31.5   Art Questions

 

1) This feedback loop is an example of ________ feedback.

 

 

  1. A) positive
  2. B) negative

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

 

2) The tissue shown in the figure is

  1. A) adipose tissue.
  2. B) loose connective tissue.
  3. C) skeletal muscle.
  4. D) stratified epithelium.
  5. E) nerve tissue.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) The tissue shown in the figure forms

  1. A) bone.
  2. B) blood.
  3. C) skin.
  4. D) fat.
  5. E) the digestive system.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The tissue shown in the photograph forms

 

 

  1. A) bone.
  2. B) skeletal muscle.
  3. C) nerves.
  4. D) dense connective tissue.
  5. E) smooth muscle.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

5) The tissue in the photograph is an example of ________ tissue.

 

 

  1. A) connective
  2. B) muscle
  3. C) nerve
  4. D) epithelial

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) This tissue is

 

 

  1. A) adipose tissue.
  2. B) cardiac muscle.
  3. C) nerve tissue.
  4. D) simple epithelium.
  5. E) smooth muscle.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

7) The tissue in the photograph is

 

 

  1. A) skeletal muscle.
  2. B) connective tissue.
  3. C) nerve tissue.
  4. D) stratified epithelium.
  5. E) simple epithelium.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31.6   Scenario Questions

 

1) The common garter snake (Thamnophis sirtalis) is found throughout North America. In the South, it is active year round. In the North, it is active during the warmer months but hibernates during the winter. It is commonly found basking on warm rocks during cool mornings. This lifestyle indicates that the snake is probably

  1. A) endothermic.
  2. B) thermoneutral.
  3. C) ectothermic.
  4. D) photosynthetic.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  31.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

2) While working in a forensic lab, you are given a bit of tissue to analyze. It has several layers. The upper surface consists of dead, flattened cells. As you move deeper into the tissue, the cells look healthier. The bottom layer of cells is actively dividing. Under the dividing layer is an acellular protein goo. You identify the sample as ________ tissue.

  1. A) loose connective
  2. B) cardiac muscle
  3. C) adipose
  4. D) dense connective
  5. E) stratified epithelial

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) You are given a sample of tissue to identify. The cells contain large amounts of protein arranged in stripes. When an electrical charge is applied to it, the tissue twitches and then relaxes. You classify this sample as ________ tissue.

  1. A) loose connective
  2. B) skeletal muscle
  3. C) adipose
  4. D) simple epithelial
  5. E) stratified epithelial

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  31.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis