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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
 
Brody’s Human Pharmacology 5th Edition by Lynn Crespo – Test Bank
 
Sample  Questions

 

Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 03: Clinical Pharmacokinetics and Issues in Therapeutics

Test Bank

Multiple Choice

  1. Ketamine has a half-life of 2 ½ hours. If used as a continuous infusion at a dosage of 12.5 mg/hr for postoperative pain relief, how long will it take to achieve a practical steady-state concentration?

 

  1. 5 hours
  2. 7 ½ hours
  3. 10 hours
  4. 12 ½ hours
  5. 15 hours

ANS: D. The practical steady-state concentration is considered to occur after 5 half-lives. 5 times 2 ½ is 12 ½.

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely increased in the average 70-year-old man compared with the average 30-year-old man?

 

  1. Body water percentage
  2. Total lean body mass
  3. Glomerular filtration rate
  4. Carotid body baroceptor reflex
  5. Plasma α-1 acid glycoprotein

ANS: E. Of the options given, only α-1 acid glycoprotein plasma levels are increased in the elderly.

  1. For a 40-year-old, 75-kg man, drug X has a volume of distribution of 40 L and a clearance of 25 ml/min. Calculate the predicted loading dose of drug X to achieve a plasma concentration of 2 μg/ml.
    1. 20 μg
    2. 80 μg
    3. 20 mg
    4. 50 mg
    5. 80 mg

ANS: E. The loading dose is obtained by multiplying the goal plasma drug concentration by the volume of distribution.

Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 05: Gene Therapy and Emerging Molecular Therapies

Test Bank

Multiple Choice

  1. Which of the following is NOT a potential advantage of gene therapy over traditional pharmacologic therapy?
    1. Gene therapy can replace a mutant gene that results in disease, thereby striking the root of the condition.
    2. Gene therapy can result in continuous production of a therapeutic protein with a short t1/2 that would otherwise require frequent dosing.
    3. Gene therapy in Phase 4 studies has been proven safer and more efficacious than analogous drug treatments.
    4. Gene therapy can be targeted to a specific site or cell type to avoid potentially toxic systemic therapy.
    5. Gene therapy can improve patient compliance dramatically, since it does not rely on daily adherence to a treatment.

 

ANS: C.

 

  1. Choose the true statement regarding gene transfer mechanisms.
    1. Plasmid DNA transfer has the advantage of being highly efficient.
    2. Retrovirus transfer is optimal when the target cell is undergoing division.
    3. The high rate of protein uptake makes liposomal transfer mechanisms less desirable.
    4. Adenovirus transfer typically has effects lasting 3 years or longer.
    5. Herpes simplex viruses are clinically used to transfer DNA to reproductive organs.

 

ANS: B.

 

Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 11: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System

Test Bank

Multiple Choice

  1. Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter secreted by postganglionic sympathetic neurons EXCEPT FOR those that innervate:
    1. Sweat glands
    2. Heart
    3. Blood vessels
    4. Pupils
    5. Pancreas

 

ANS: A. Sweat glands are supplied by the sympathetic nervous system. However, the postganglionic neurons secrete acetylcholine, which activates the sweat glands’ muscarinic receptors.

 

  1. A 63-year-old man is experiencing an acute exacerbation of his congestive heart failure in the intensive care unit. Among other treatments, the physicians have decided to start a drug infusion that will increase the contractility of his heart while having a minimal effect on his systemic vascular resistance. Which of the following would be the best option?
    1. Epinephrine
    2. Dobutamine
    3. Isoproteronol
    4. Norepinephrine
    5. Phenylephrine

 

ANS: B. Dobutamine is a selective beta-1 adrenergic receptor agonist that increases cardiac contractility. Its effects on systemic vascular resistance (SVR) are less pronounced than the other options. Phenylephrine and norepinephrine both increase SVR via alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonism. Isoproteronol decreases SVR via beta-2 agonism. Epinephrine has variable effects on SVR due to both alpha-1-mediated vasoconstriction and beta-2-mediated vasodilatation.

 

  1. A 67-year-old man who suffers from hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) has been receiving medications for both of those conditions. During his routine checkup, he tells his physician that he has experienced frequent episodes of light-headedness upon standing up. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these episodes?
    1. Metoprolol
    2. Propranolol
    3. Ephedrine
    4. Clonidine
    5. Terazosin

 

ANS: E. Terazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist that reduces symptoms of BPH. However, it is not entirely selective for the prostate. Alpha-1 blockade induces vasodilatation and orthostatic hypotension.

 

Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 21: Diuretic Drugs

Test Bank

Multiple Choice

  1. The location of the mechanism that leads to hypokalemia with many diuretics is located in the:

 

  1. Glomerulus
  2. Proximal convoluted tubule
  3. Descending loop
  4. Ascending loop
  5. Collecting tubule

 

ANS: E. Virtually all potassium excreted in the urine is the result of secretion in the collecting tubule. This Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion is controlled by aldosterone.

 

  1. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors promote the excretion of Na+ and HCO3, whereas thiazide diuretics promote:

 

  1. Excretion of Na+, Cl, and Ca++
  2. Excretion of Na+ and Cl while diminishing Ca++ excretion
  3. Excretion of Na+, Cl, Ca++, and Mg++
  4. Excretion of Na+ and Cl while reabsorbing Mg++
  5. Excretion of Na+ while diminishing Cl excretion

 

ANS: B. Thiazide diuretics promote sodium, chloride, and magnesium while reducing calcium excretion.

 

  1. Diuretic resistance after chronic loop diuretic administration is due to:

 

  1. Increase in the transport of organic cations from the blood to the urine
  2. Increased Na+/K+ -ATPase activity
  3. A decrease in Na+ reabsorption by distal tubule cells
  4. Decreased osmotic load at the distal tubule
  5. Decreased Na+/K+ -ATPase activity

 

ANS: B. Chronic loop diuretic therapy leads to cellular hyperplasia and increased activity of both the Na+/K= -ATPase and Na+-Cl cotransporters.

 

Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 31: Treatment of Anxiety and Insomnia

Test Bank

Multiple Choice

 

  1. The receptors of the GABA complex are variously stimulated by multiple classes of medications including benzodiazapines. The result of such stimulation is:

 

  1. A down regulation of the GABA receptor complex
  2. Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell
  3. Decreased chloride influx
  4. Increased activity of the postsynaptic neuron
  5. Decreased seizure threshold

 

ANS: B. Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic neuron via increased chloride influx leads to a decreased ability for triggering an action potential. This decrease results in inhibition of neural function (sedation).

 

  1. The physiologic difference between temazepam and zolpidem is:

 

  1. Temazepam is a sedative, whereas zolpidem is a hypnotic
  2. Temazepam binds to all the GABA-receptor subunits, whereas zolpidem attaches to specific ones only
  3. Zolpidem is a benzodiazepine
  4. Zolpidem is a also a melatonin agonist
  5. Temazepam is a barbiturate

 

ANS: B. The GABA receptor complex has many subunits. Benzodiazapines such as temazepam bind to all subunits irrespective of their composition. Zolpidem is an agonist attaching to only specific receptor subunits, thus its difference in action and adverse effects.

 

  1. The benzodiazepine class of medications:

 

  1. Can be used to effectively control muscle spasms
  2. Is not habit forming
  3. Has no risk of respiratory depression
  4. Acts primarily on the NMDA receptor
  5. Does not undergo extensive hepatic metabolism

 

ANS: A. Benzodiazapines have a direct depressant effect on monosynaptic muscle reflex pathways, thus relaxing muscles.

 

Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 41: Androgens and Antiandrogens

Test Bank

Multiple Choice

 

  1. Androgen treatment can be used to increase hematopoiesis. This is due to:

 

  1. Increased growth hormone production
  2. Increased erythropoietin receptor sensitivity in bone marrow
  3. GnRH receptor up regulation
  4. Increased renal erythropoietin production
  5. Increased muscle mass effect

 

ANS: D. Androgens have been shown to stimulate erythropoiesis by increasing renal erythropoietin production. Androgens also have a direct effect on erythrocyte maturation.

 

  1. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is treated with finasteride. Finasteride acts to:

 

  1. Block the conversion of testosterone to 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone
  2. Antagonize alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
  3. Up regulate 5-alpha-reductase type II
  4. Treat prostate cancer
  5. Decrease free testosterone and estrogen levels

 

ANS: E. Finasteride (Proscar) is a competitive inhibitor of 5α-reductase type II that blocks conversion of testosterone to 5α-DHT, reducing prostate size. This results in increased free testosterone, which is then converted to estrogen. This can result in unwanted side effects such as gynecomastia.