Foundations of Strategy By Robert M.Grant – Test Bank
Sample  Questions


Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology


Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   The erythrocyte stage that marks the beginning of hemoglobinization is called:

a. Basophilic normoblast
b. Polychromatophilic normoblast
c. Orthochromic normoblast
d. Pronormoblast



____    2.   One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stages is:

a. Basophilic cytoplasm through every stage of maturation
b. Granules in the cytoplasm
c. A round nucleus
d. An increase in size as the cell matures



____    3.   The red cell protein that is responsible for deformability and flexibility of the red cell is:

a. Spectrin
b. Glycophorin
c. Glycine
d. EPO



____    4.   Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which of these abnormal red cell morphologies?

a. Spherocytes
b. Target cells
c. Microcytes
d. Helmet cells



____    5.   Which of the following RBC pathways is responsible for providing 90% of the cellular ATP for red cell metabolism?

a. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
b. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
c. Rapoport-Luebering pathway
d. Hexose monophosphate shunt



____    6.   The hemoglobin molecule consists of:

a. One heme molecule, one globin chain
b. One heme molecule, four globin chains
c. Two heme molecules, two globin chains
d. Four heme molecules, four globin chains



____    7.   The basic pathophysiology of the thalassemic conditions is a/an:

a. Decreased or absent globin chain synthesis
b. Absence of iron absorption
c. Failure to incorporate iron into the pronormoblast
d. Side effect of iron overload



____    8.   Asynchrony in the bone marrow is defined as the:

a. Presence of nucleoli throughout each maturation phase
b. Presence of extremely basophilic cytoplasm in all precursors
c. Lack of nuclear development in precursor cells
d. Nuclear development and hemoglobin development that is unbalanced



____    9.   Polychromatophilic macrocytes in the peripheral smear are most likely:

a. Siderocytes
b. Reticulocytes
c. Spherocytes
d. Pappenheimer bodies



____  10.   The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin are:

a. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Pappenheimer bodies
c. Heinz bodies
d. Siderotic granules



____  11.   The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by a/an:

a. Red cell count
b. Reticulocyte count
c. M:E ratio
d. Hemoglobin determination



____  12.   When hemolysis is produced by the intravascular fragmentation of red cells, which red cell morphology will be produced?

a. Spherocytes
b. Macrocytes
c. Acanthocytes
d. Schistocytes



____  13.   Most hypochromic cells will have an MCHC that is:

a. Greater than 36%
b. Less than 30%
c. Greater than 27%
d. Less than 27%



____  14.   Reversible sickled cells are described as having a:

a. Crescent shape with one pointed projection
b. Crescent shape with two pointed projections
c. Half-moon shape with rounded ends
d. Half-moon shape with pointed projection



____  15.   The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:

a. Pronormoblast
b. Orthochromic normoblast
c. Polychromatophilic normoblast
d. Basophilic normoblast



____  16.   Red cell inclusions that are remnants of DNA are termed:

a. Cabot rings
b. Howell Jolly bodies
c. Heinz bodies
d. Pappenheimer bodies



____  17.   From each pronormoblast precursor cell, _____ mature red blood cells are produced.

a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16



____  18.   Pappenheimer bodies are composed of:

a. Iron
b. Denatured hemoglobin
c. DNA
d. RNA




____  19.   Describe the hemoglobin content of the cell at the end of the pointer.

a. Normochromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Polychromatophilic
d. Hyperchromic




____  20.   Identify the cell at the end of the pointer.

a. Spherocyte
b. Schistocyte
c. Acanthocyte
d. Normocyte




____  21.   Identify the cell at the end of the pointers.

a. Reticulocyte
b. Spherocyte
c. Sickle cell
d. Target cell




____  22.   The term used to describe the inclusions seen in the cell at the end of the pointer is (Wright’s stain):

a. Pappenheimer bodies
b. Basophilic stippling
c. Howell Jolly bodies
d. Siderotic granules




Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


____  23.   The higher the N:C ratio, the more mature the cell.


____  24.   The anucleate mature red blood cell has no ability to produce protein.

Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias


Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   Transferrin receptors for iron uptake are located on the:

a. Basophilic normoblast
b. Pronormoblast
c. Reticulocyte
d. Orthochromic normoblast



____    2.   Storage iron is usually determined by the:

a. Serum transferrin level
b. Hemoglobin value
c. Myoglobin value
d. Serum ferritin level



____    3.   In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults that is used for erythropoiesis is obtained through:

a. Transfusion
b. Recycling of iron
c. Storage forms from spleen and the liver
d. Hemosiderin



____    4.   The first stage of iron deficiency anemia is termed:

a. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
b. Iron depletion
c. Iron deficiency
d. Iron overload



____    5.   All of the following are symptoms of iron deficiency anemia except:

a. Pallor
b. Pica
c. Vertigo
d. Numbness



____    6.   In adults, which of the following is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia?

a. Intestinal parasites
b. Malabsorptive disorders
c. Dietary content
d. Chronic blood loss



____    7.   Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of which of the following disorders?

a. Chronic disease
b. Infection
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Inflammation



____    8.   Given the laboratory results of serum iron = 300 mg/dL, transferrin = 312 mg/dL, transferrin saturation = 122%, and ferritin = 1,000 ng/mL, which of the following should be considered?

a. Hereditary hemochromatosis
b. Anemia of inflammation
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Lead poisoning



____    9.   Which type of inclusion is likely to be seen in the above patient?

a. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Pappenheimer bodies
c. Hemoglobin H inclusion bodies
d. Cabot rings



____  10.   A 15-year-old Lebanese boy was sent to the laboratory for an evaluation of anemia and had the following lab results:

a. WBC = 7.5 ´ 109/L
b. RBC = 5.9 ´ 1012/L
c. Hgb = 11.6 g/dL
d. Hct = 36%



____  11.   What is the presumptive clinical condition?

a. Pernicious anemia
b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c. Iron deficiency trait
d. Thalassemia trait



____  12.   The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is:

a. Hemoglobin H disease
b. Bart’s hydrops fetalis
c. Alpha thalassemia trait
d. Silent carrier condition



____  13.   Which inclusion is associated with a “pitted,” golf ball appearance?

a. Hgb H inclusion
b. Howell-Jolly body
c. Cabot rings
d. Pappenheimer bodies



____  14.   Failure to thrive, facial structure abnormalities, severe anemia, and splenomegaly are signs of which of the following disorders?

a. Thalassemia minor
b. Alpha thalassemia trait
c. Thalassemia major
d. Thalassemia intermedia



____  15.   One of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is:

a. Chronic anemia
b. Iron overload
c. Therapeutic phlebotomy
d. Collapsed veins



____  16.   The majority of the hemoglobin made in individuals with thalassemia major is:

a. Hemoglobin H
b. Hemoglobin A
c. Hemoglobin F
d. Hemoglobin Barts



____  17.   Which if the following is also known as Cooley’s anemia?

a. Alpha thalassemia
b. Beta thalassemia major
c. Hereditary hemochromatosis
d. IDA



____  18.   The alpha thalassemias result from:

a. Gene deletion
b. Defective alpha genes
c. Iron overload
d. Excessive production of alpha chains



____  19.   The globin chains found in hemoglobin A2 are:

a. Alpha 2, Delta 2
b. Alpha 2, Gamma 2
c. Alpha 2, Beta 2
d. Alpha 2, Epsilon 2



____  20.   The presence of which hemoglobin will result in an inherited methemoglobinemia?

a. Hemoglobin D
b. Hemoglobin M
c. Hemoglobin H
d. Bart’s hemoglobin



____  21.   Hemoglobin H disease is associated with:

a. Bart’s hydrops fetalis
b. Alpha thalassemia disease
c. Thalassemia major
d. Hereditary hemochromatosis



____  22.   The primary storage forms of iron are:

a. Ferritin and hemosiderin
b. Ferritin and transferrin
c. Hemosiderin and ferrous iron
d. Heme and ferritin



____  23.   In the United States, approximately ____ of the anemias seen are due to IDA.

a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 75%



____  24.   In iron deficiency anemia, the reticulocyte count will be:

a. Normal
b. Low
c. High
d. Extremely high



____  25.   In patients with iron overload, Desferal may be administered to chelate the excess iron. The chelated iron is shed in:

a. The feces
b. The urine
c. Gastric secretions
d. None of the above




Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


____  26.   In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.

Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical, Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders


Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   Spherocytes do not function well in the splenic environment because the:

a. Osmotic environment of the spherocyte is impaired
b. Immunologic function of the spleen is impaired
c. Reservoir function is impaired
d. Filtration function of the spleen is compromised



____    2.   Cholelithiasis is a frequent complication of patients with hereditary spherocytosis because:

a. Spherocytes are an abnormal red cell morphology
b. The gallbladder does not function well in this condition
c. Continued hemolysis in this condition causes gallstones to form
d. The filtration function of the spleen is overworked



____    3.   Spherocytes differ from normal cells in all of the following ways except:

a. Decreased surface-to-volume ratio
b. Decreased central pallor
c. Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline
d. Increased deformability



____    4.   The RBC inclusions that are composed of denatured hemoglobin are called:

a. Pappenheimer bodies
b. Howell-Jolly bodies
c. Heinz bodies
d. Siderotic granules



____    5.   Red cells that are rigid, provide resistance to malaria, and spoon shaped are termed:

a. Burr cells from kidney disease
b. Spherocytes from hereditary spherocytes
c. Ovalocytes from Southeast Asian ovalocytosis
d. Sickle cells from sickle cell disease



____    6.   Spherocytes may enter the circulation via a variety of mechanisms. To distinguish the CBC of a patient with hereditary spherocytosis from the CBC of a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, one could use the:

b. Hematocrit
c. MCH
d. MCV



____    7.   One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is:

a. Acute hemolytic anemia
b. Favism
c. Neonatal jaundice
d. Congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia



____    8.   An anemia that manifests as decreased marrow cellularity, pancytopenia, and a reticulocytopenia is appropriately termed:

a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia



____    9.   Individuals with Fanconi’s anemia characteristically will have:

a. Intravascular hemolysis
b. Increased Hgb F
c. Ringed sideroblastics
d. Thrombocytosis



____  10.   An osmotic fragility test is performed on a patient’s sample. Initial hemolysis occurs at 0.75% NaCl and complete hemolysis occurs at 0.50% NaCl. These results are indicative of which of the following disorders?

a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Hgb C disease
c. Thalassemia major
d. Hereditary spherocytosis



____  11.   Which of the following is most closely associated with G6PD deficiency?

a. Continuous intravascular hemolysis occurs.
b. G6PD is a sex linked inherited disease.
c. Splenectomy is commonly done to control symptoms.
d. The majority of the erythrocytes in these individuals are microcytic.



____  12.   In hereditary spherocytosis, the reticulocyte count will typically be:

a. Less than 0.5%
b. 0.5% to 1.5%
c. 3% to 10%
d. Greater than 10%



____  13.   The deficit of which of these is most closely associated with Southeast Asian ovalocytosis?

a. Spectrin
b. Ankyrin
c. Molecular band 3
d. G6PD



____  14.   Bite cells are formed from:

a. The spleen “pitting” out Heinz bodies
b. Third-degree burns
c. Spectrin deficiency
d. G6PD deficiency



____  15.   The inability of the red blood cell to generate ATP for membrane function is most closely associated with:

a. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
b. G6PD deficiency
c. Fanconi’s anemia
d. Congenital hemolytic anemia



____  16.   Which of the following red blood cell membrane defects results in an increased sensitivity to complement lysis?

a. Cold agglutinin syndrome
b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia
c. Diamond Blackfan anemia
d. Hereditary spherocytosis




____  17.   The cell at the tip of the pointer is referred to as a:

a. Stomatocyte
b. Target cell
c. Normal erythrocyte
d. Spherocyte




____  18.   The cells circled below show an eccentric “puddling” of their hemoglobin contents. This is most closely associated with:

a. Stomatocytosis
b. Xerocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Pyruvate kinase deficiency




____  19.   The inclusions pictured below are seen with supravital staining only. These inclusions are most likely:

a. Heinz bodies
b. Howell-Jolly bodies
c. Pappenheimer bodies
d. Due to stain contamination




____  20.   The cell pictured at the tip of the pointer is known as a (an):

a. Sickle cell
b. Acanthocyte
c. Bite cell
d. Stomatocyte

Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias


Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   The basic pathophysiology mechanism responsible for producing signs and symptoms in leukemia includes all of the following except:

a. Replacement of normal marrow precursors by leukemic cells
b. Decrease in functional leukocytes causing infection
c. Hemorrhage secondary to thrombocytopenia
d. Decreased erythropoietin production



____    2.   Migration to extramedullary sites is a feature of which of the following leukemias?

a. Acute progranulocytic leukemia
b. Acute myelocytic leukemia
c. Acute monocytic leukemia
d. Acute lymphocytic leukemia



____    3.   A patient presents with generalized lymphadenopathy and a WBC of 100 ´ 109/L. This hematologic picture would most likely be seen in:

a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma
d. Hairy cell leukemia



____    4.   A patient with AML is likely to have a cytochemical stain panel that is positive for:

a. Sodium fluoride with tartrate resistance
b. MPO, SBB, specific esterase
c. MP0, SBB, nonspecific esterase
d. SBB and TdT



____    5.   The monoclonal marker that is often positive in T-ALL is:

a. CD1
b. CD7
c. CD10
d. CD41



____    6.   The t(15:17)(q22;q12) is associated with which of the following leukemias?

a. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
b. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
d. Acute myelocytic leukemia



____    7.   The WBC count is 20 ´ 109/L, with 89% blasts, 7% segs, and 4% monos. The blasts are relatively large and have abundant cytoplasm. More than 90% of them are positive with the NSE stain, and an occasional blast is positive with Sudan Black B. What is the possible diagnosis?

a. AML, type M1
b. AML, type M3
c. AML, type M4
d. AML, type M5



____    8.   The L3 classification of leukemia is defined by:

a. Small homogeneous blasts
b. Large vacuolated blasts
c. Large heterogeneous blasts
d. Predominance of prolymphocytes



____    9.   Acute leukemic processes are marked by:

a. Slow onset, slow progression, anemia
b. Rapid onset anemia, thrombocytopenia
c. Splenomegaly
d. Less than 30% in the BM



____  10.   Which of the following is characteristic of Auer rods?

a. Composed of fused primary granules
b. Predominantly seen in ALL
c. Predominantly seen in HCL
d. Composed of specific granules



____  11.   When performing flow cytometry, the technologist interpreted the flow pattern as exhibiting a high degree of CD14 and CD4 positive cells. The peripheral smear showed large multilobulated blast cells. This pattern is most representative of:

a. ALL
b. AMonoL
d. AML



____  12.   Which CD marker best represents the earliest progenitor cells?

a. CD11
b. CD19
c. CD34
d. CD57



____  13.   According to current WHO classification criteria, acute leukemia is characterized by which of the following?

a. Hypercellular bone marrow with greater than 20% blasts
b. Hypercellular bone marrow with less than 20% blasts
c. Hypocellular bone marrow with greater than 20% blasts
d. Hypocellular bone marrow with less than 20% blasts



____  14.   Pure erythroid leukemia is defined as:

a. Erythroid precursors greater than 30%, myeloblasts less than 20%
b. Erythroid precursors greater than 50%, myeloblasts less than 40%
c. Erythroid precursors less than 50%
d. Erythroid precursors greater than 80%



____  15.   The leukemia with a predominance of WBC cells positive for CD41 is:

b. AML
c. AMonoL
d. AMegL




____  16.   The cells pictured above are most consistent for:

a. Acute myeloid leukemia
b. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Acute erythroid leukemia




____  17.   The cells pictured above are most consistent with:

a. Acute myeloid leukemia
b. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Acute erythroid leukemia



____  18.   _______ is the rarest form of the AMLs.

a. M1
b. M4
c. M6
d. M7



____  19.   The presence of CD2, CD5, and CD7 and the absence of CD10 is seen in:

a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. Myeloblasts
d. Monoblasts




____  20.   The structure at the end of the pointer is a(n):

a. Auer rod
b. Dohle body
c. Engulfed bacteria
d. None of the above



____  21.   _____ is predominantly a disease of children.

a. AML
b. CML
c. ALL
d. CLL



____  22.   Greater than ______ of bone marrow cells must be identified as lymphoblasts to meet the WHO definition of ALL.

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%



____  23.   Pediatric patients with ALL have an overall complete remission rate of:

a. 50%
b. 65%
c. 75%
d. 95%



____  24.   Low-risk ALL pediatric clinical trials require the WBC count to be less than:

a. 20 ´ 109/L
b. 50 ´ 109/L
c. 60 ´ 109/L
d. 75 ´ 109/L



____  25.   ______may arise as a blastic transformation in patients with CML.

a. Acute basophilic leukemia
b. Acute myelofibrosis
c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
d. Erythroleukemia

Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology


Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   Which of the following ratios of anticoagulant to blood is acceptable for most coagulation procedures?

a. 1:4
b. 5:1
c. 1:9
d. 9:1



____    2.   Platelet aggregation is dependent on the presence of:

a. Calcium ions
b. Sodium citrate
c. Magnesium
d. Potassium



____    3.   The vasoconstrictor substance released from the platelets at the site of injury is:

a. Thrombin
b. Thromboxane A2
c. Adenosine diphosphate
d. Prostacyclin



____    4.   Which organ is responsible for sheltering 20% of the total platelet volume in the circulation?

a. Kidney
b. Adrenal gland
c. Spleen
d. Liver



____    5.   The main substrate of the coagulation system is:

a. Calcium
b. ADP
c. Collagen
d. Fibrinogen



____    6.   A decreased platelet count is most often anticipated when a patient demonstrates:

a. Thrombosis
b. Petechiae
c. Hemarthrosis
d. Glossitis



____    7.   Which of the following is not a component of the fibrinolytic system?

a. Thrombin
b. Plasmin
c. Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA)
d. Urokinase



____    8.   The prothrombin group of factors consists of factors:

a. I, V, VIII, and XIII
b. XI, XII, prekallikrein, and HMWK
c. II, VII, IX, and X
d. III, VIII, IX, and X



____    9.   The anticoagulant known as heparin:

a. Inhibits PF3 activity
b. Inhibits thrombin activity
c. Degrades antithrombin activity
d. Chelates calcium



____  10.   Which factor is involved in contact activation?

a. Factor X
b. Fibrinogen
c. Fitzgerald factor
d. Factor II



____  11.   Which factor is measured by both the PT and the aPTT?

a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Factor V
d. Factor XIII



____  12.   Which of the following proteins is not made in the liver?

a. Anti-hemophiliac factor
b. Prothrombin
c. Fibrinogen
d. von Willebrand factor



____  13.   Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI):

a. Prevents activation of factor X by VIIa
b. Activates the common pathway
c. Inhibits fibrinolysis
d. Inhibits the kallikrein proteins



____  14.   The two inhibitors that keep the activation of coagulation under control are:

a. TFPI and thrombomodulin
b. Protein C and protein S
c. Protease inhibitors and the protein C pathway
d. Alpha 2 macroglobulin and alpha 1 antitrypsin



____  15.   In the prothrombin test, the patient’s citrated plasma is combined with:

a. Phospholipids
b. Thromboplastin only
c. Ca2+ and actin
d. Ca2+ and thromboplastin



____  16.   The first response of a cut vessel is:

a. Vasoconstriction
b. Platelet aggregation
c. Activation of the intrinsic pathway
d. Vasodilation



____  17.   The average lifespan of a platelet in a normal adult is:

a. 1 to 5 days
b. 5 to 7 days
c. 7 to 10 days
d. 18 to 21 days



____  18.   Platelets are synthesized in the:

a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Lymph glands
d. Bone marrow




____  19.   Identify the cell at the tip of the pointer (bone marrow smear).

a. Myeloblast
b. Megakaryocyte
c. Nucleated red cell
d. Reed Sternberg cell



____  20.   There are four phases in regards to platelet function. The correct order of occurrence from the beginning to end is:

a. Adhesion, release, aggregation, stabilization
b. Aggregation, adhesion, stabilization, release
c. Adhesion, aggregation, release, stabilization
d. Release, aggregation, adhesion, stabilization



____  21.   The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors include:

a. Factors I, V, VII, XIII
b. Factors II, VII, IX, X
c. Factors III, VIII, IX, X
d. Factors XI and XII



____  22.   All of the coagulation factors have autosomal inheritance features except:

a. Factors I and XII
b. Factors III and VIII
c. Factors VIII and IX
d. Factors V and VII



____  23.   Fibrinolysis is controlled by the:

a. Plasminogen activator system
b. Intrinsic system
c. Thrombin feedback activation system
d. Feedback inhibition system



____  24.   Therapeutic thrombolytic agents include:

a. tPA
b. Streptokinase
c. Urokinase
d. All of the above





Match the factor with its correct name.

a. Stabile factor
b. Labile factor
c. Thromboplastin
d. Calcium
e. Anti-hemophiliac factor
f. Fibrinogen
g. Prothrombin


Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors


Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   The following laboratory results have been obtained for a 40-year-old woman: PT = 20 seconds (reference range is 11 to 15 seconds), aPTT = 50 seconds (reference range is 22 to 40 seconds), and thrombin time = 18 seconds (reference range is 11 to 15 seconds). What factor deficiency is most likely?

a. Factor VII deficiency
b. Factor VIII deficiency
c. Factor X deficiency
d. Factor XIII deficiency



____    2.   Which of the following is the most prevalent inherited bleeding disorder?

a. von Willebrand disease
b. Hemophilia A
c. Factor VII deficiency
d. Factor XII deficiency



____    3.   A man with hemophilia A and an unaffected female can produce a:

a. Female carrier
b. Male carrier
c. Male with hemophilia A
d. Normal female



____    4.   A prolonged aPTT is corrected with factor VIII-deficient plasma but not with factor IX-deficient plasma. What factor is deficient?

a. IX
c. V
d. X



____    5.   Which result will be within reference range in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?

a. Thrombin time
b. Activated partial thromboplastin time
c. Immunologic fibrinogen level
d. Protein electrophoresis



____    6.   Factor assays measure the percentage of activity of a given factor by mixing the patient’s plasma with:

a. Normal plasma
b. Adsorbed plasma
c. Factor-deficient plasma
d. Factor-specific plasma



____    7.   Which platelet response(s) is usually associated with hemophilia A?

a. Defective ADP release; normal response to ADP
b. Decreased amount of ADP in platelets
c. Absent aggregation to epinephrine, ADP, and collagen
d. Normal platelet aggregation



____    8.   Long-term antibiotic therapy is a cause of bleeding because it disrupts:

a. Vitamin K synthesis
b. Contact activation
c. Platelet aggregation
d. Fibrinolytic activity



____    9.   Which of the following is the most useful in differentiating hemophilia A from hemophilia B?

a. A familial pattern of inheritance
b. Patient’s history
c. Activated partial thromboplastin time
d. Factor assays



____  10.   The treatment of choice for hemophilia A individuals is:

a. Cryoprecipitate
b. Factor VIII concentrate
c. Prothrombin complex



____  11.   The only clotting factor not synthesized exclusively by the liver is:

a. Factor V
b. Factor VII
c. Factor VIII
d. Factor IX



____  12.   Clotting factors must be present at a minimum of which percentage for hemostasis to be achieved?

a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 75%



____  13.   Which of the following assays will be abnormal with hemophilia A?

a. Platelet count
b. Bleeding time
c. PT
d. aPTT



____  14.   Christmas disease is another name for:

a. Hemophilia A
b. Hemophilia B
c. von Willebrand’s disease
d. Factor VII deficiency



____  15.   Treatment of patients with factor II, VII, or X deficiency consists of:

a. Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate
b. Administration of cryoprecipitate
c. Administration of FFP
d. Administration of whole blood



____  16.   Factor XI deficiency is also known as:

a. Christmas disease
b. Hemophilia A
c. Hemophilia C
d. Fitzgerald factor deficiency



____  17.   Keloid scar formation is most commonly associated with:

a. Factor VIII deficiency
b. Factor IX deficiency
c. Factor XII deficiency
d. Factor XIII deficiency



____  18.   All of the following may lead to deficiencies of clotting factors except:

a. Renal disease
b. Liver disease
c. Autoimmune disease
d. Cardiovascular disease



____  19.   Factor V Leiden is a genetic mutation of:

a. Factor IV
b. Factor V
c. The prothrombin molecule
d. Hemophilia A



____  20.   Hemophilia B is best treated with:

a. A mixture of factors II, VII, IX, and X
b. Factor X concentrate
c. Factor VIII concentrate
d. Vitamin K



____  28.   Factor IV


____  29.   Factor V


____  30.   Factor VII


____  31.   Factor VIII