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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

 

Human Physiology From Cells To Systems 3rd Edition by Lauralee Sherwood – Test Bank

 

 

Sample  Questions

 

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

1. The basal nuclei are part of the cerebrum.

a. True
b. False

 

2. Sound sensation is received initially by the parietal lobes.

a. True
b. False

 

3. Aphasia is a language disorder.

a. True
b. False

 

4. The white matter in the CNS consists of parts of neurons not covered with myelin.

a. True
b. False

 

5. White matter consists primarily of myelinated nerve fibres.

a. True
b. False

 

6. Complex thought is a function of the frontal lobe.

a. True
b. False

 

7. Efferent neurons are the most abundant type of neuron.

a. True
b. False

 

8. The cerebral cortex is an inner core of white matter.

a. True
b. False

 

9. Efferent neurons lie primarily in the central nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

10. The dura mater is the fragile, innermost meningeal layer that closely adheres to the surfaces of the brain and spinal cord.

a. True
b. False

 

11. The recycling of newly acquired information through short-term memory increases the likelihood of long-term memory consolidation.

a. True
b. False

 

12. Efferent neurons are sensory neurons.

a. True
b. False

 

13. The cell bodies of both afferent and efferent neurons originate in the CNS.

a. True
b. False

 

14. The two regions of grey matter within the cerebrum are the cerebral cortex and the basal nuclei.

a. True
b. False

 

15. Oligodendrocytes form myelin around the axons of the CNS.

a. True
b. False

 

16. The outer layer of the brain is grey matter, but the outer layer of the spinal cord is white matter.

a. True
b. False

 

17. Transport across the brain capillary walls is prevented anatomically between the cells and is restricted physiologically through the cells.

a. True
b. False

 

18. A flat EEG always signifies brain death.

a. True
b. False

 

19. Different parts of the body are not represented by equal areas of the sensory homunculus of the parietal lobe.

a. True
b. False

 

20. The blood–brain barrier prevents an increase in the concentration of potassium ions in the ECF surrounding brain cells.

a. True
b. False

 

21. Sleep is accompanied by a reduction in neural activity.

a. True
b. False

 

22. Working memory involves comparing current sensory data with relevant stored knowledge, and manipulating that information.

a. True
b. False

 

23. Efferent neurons are motor neurons.

a. True
b. False

 

24. The majority of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain stem.

a. True
b. False

 

25. A central bundle of interneuronal axons is called a tract, whereas a peripheral bundle of afferent and efferent neuronal axons is called a nerve.

a. True
b. False

 

26. Microglia are phagocytic cells delivered by the blood to the central nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

27. Disorders of the cerebellum are characterized by an intention tremor.

a. True
b. False

 

28. The cerebrospinal fluid comes into direct contact with the neuronal and glial cells.

a. True
b. False

 

29. The brain lacks plasticity of functions.

a. True
b. False

 

30. The cerebellum is important in coordinating voluntary movements.

a. True
b. False

 

31. The amount of cortical space in the primary motor cortex devoted to a given body part is proportional to the size of the part.

a. True
b. False

 

32. Efferent neurons leave the spinal cord through the dorsal root.

a. True
b. False

 

33. Schwann cells are involved in regeneration of nerve fibre.

a. True
b. False

 

34. The right and left cerebral hemispheres perform identical functions, except they control opposite sides of the body.

a. True
b. False

 

35. Consciousness refers to subjective awareness of the external world and self.

a. True
b. False

 

36. According to definition, there are no nerves in the CNS.

a. True
b. False

 

37. The pia mater is the fragile, innermost meningeal layer that adheres closely to the surfaces of the brain and spinal cord.

a. True
b. False

 

38. Stimulation of the frontal lobe produces changes in personality and social behaviour.

a. True
b. False

 

39. Ninety percent of the cells within the CNS are neurons.

a. True
b. False

 

40. There are 15 pairs of cranial nerves.

a. True
b. False

 

41. Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS.

a. True
b. False

 

42. Hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient cerebrospinal fluid.

a. True
b. False

 

43. Astrocytes take up the neurotransmitter GABA.

a. True
b. False

 

44. Resting tremors are associated with diseases of the basal nuclei.

a. True
b. False

 

45. The grey matter in the CNS consists of parts of neurons not covered with myelin.

a. True
b. False

 

46. The withdrawal reflex is a monosynaptic reflex.

a. True
b. False

 

47. If neuronal pathways present at birth are not used during sensitive developmental periods, they may be eliminated.

a. True
b. False

 

48. The cells that form the walls of the brain capillaries have the inherent ability to form tight junctions.

a. True
b. False

 

49. Grey matter refers to regions of the central nervous system composed primarily of densely packed cell bodies, whereas white matter consists of bundles of myelinated nerve fibres.

a. True
b. False

 

50. Most brain tumours of neural origin consist of glial cells.

a. True
b. False

 

51. The limbic association cortex is involved with motivation and emotion.

a. True
b. False

 

52. The brain cannot produce ATP in the absence of oxygen.

a. True
b. False

 

53. Information as to whether a finger was touching an ice cube or being hit by a hammer would be carried to the brain in different ascending tracts within the spinal cord.

a. True
b. False

 

54. Grey matter consists predominantly of neuron cell bodies and dendrites.

a. True
b. False

 

55. Somatotopic maps of the cerebral cortex are static through the life of the organism.

a. True
b. False

 

56. Interneurons lie entirely within the central nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

57. The motor cortex on the frontal lobe is not the only brain region involved in motor control.

a. True
b. False

 

58. Dura mater is the innermost meningeal layer.

a. True
b. False

 

59. Different parts of the body are not equally represented in the somatosensory cortex and the primary motor cortex.

a. True
b. False

 

60. Afferent neurons have a long peripheral axon and a short central axon.

a. True
b. False

 

61. Reciprocal innervation refers to the dual innervation of organs by the autonomic nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

62. CREB is a brain neurotransmitter.

a. True
b. False

 

63. The right hemisphere is usually dominant in right-handed persons.

a. True
b. False

 

64. The occipital lobe is in the anterior region of the brain.

a. True
b. False

 

65. The stretch reflex is a polysynaptic reflex.

a. True
b. False

 

66. A retrograde chemical messenger from the postsynaptic neuron can influence neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic neuron at a synapse during long-term potentiation.

a. True
b. False

 

67. The cell bodies in the spinal cord are located primarily in the white matter.

a. True
b. False

 

68. Centres for the control of respiration and circulatory function are located in the hypothalamus.

a. True
b. False

 

69. Cells forming the brain capillaries are joined by tight junctions that completely seal the capillary wall.

a. True
b. False

 

70. An electroencephalogram is a record of action potential activity in the cerebral cortex.

a. True
b. False

 

71. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to recall recent past events.

a. True
b. False

 

72. Ascending tracts carry information from the periphery to the CNS.

a. True
b. False

 

73. About 90 percent of the cells within the CNS are neurons.

a. True
b. False

 

74. Nerves of the autonomic nervous system control skeletal muscle responses.

a. True
b. False

 

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

75. Which of the following is the main function of Wernicke’s area?

a. to control limb movements
b. to control hand–eye coordination
c. to control language comprehension
d. to control memory

 

76. Which of these statements applies to the prefrontal association cortex?

a. It is concerned primarily with motivation and emotion.
b. It integrates somatic, auditory, and visual sensations.
c. It plays an important role in personality traits.
d. It localizes the source of sensory input and perceives the level of intensity of the stimulus.

 

77. By which route does information travel up the spinal cord to the brain?

a. via the ventral root ganglion
b. via efferent pathways
c. via ascending tracts
d. via descending tracts

 

78. Which of the following structures is NOT subcortical?

a. basal nuclei
b. thalamus
c. Wernicke’s area
d. cerebellum

 

79. Which of the following functions is NOT characteristic of the hypothalamus?

a. to control body temperature
b. to act as the centre for coordination with the autonomic nervous system
c. to produce hormones for the posterior pituitary gland
d. to receive sensory inputs from skeletal muscles

 

80. Which of the following structures is the outermost layer of meninges?

a. arachnoid mater
b. dura mater
c. parietal meninges
d. pia mater

 

81. Which of the following associations is NOT correct?

a. frontal lobe and understanding language
b. occipital lobe and visual input
c. parietal lobe and proprioception
d. parietal lobe and somesthetic sensations

 

82. Which part of the brain controls thirst and urine output, food intake, and body temperature, among other things?

a. cerebral cortex
b. hypothalamus
c. basal nuclei
d. thalamus

 

83. Which of these functions is NOT associated with the hypothalamus?

a. to control respiration and circulatory function
b. to control thirst and urine output
c. to control body temperature
d. to control food intake

 

84. Which statement correctly describes ascending tracts?

a. They relay messages down the spinal cord from the brain to the efferent neurons.
b. They carry impulses from the brain to the spinal cord.
c. They carry impulses from the CNS to the periphery.
d. They transmit signals derived from afferent input up the spinal cord to the brain.

 

85. Which statement correctly describes slow-wave sleep?

a. It occupies a greater percentage of sleeping time than paradoxical sleep.
b. It is harder to arouse sleepers from than paradoxical sleep.
c. It is characterized by infrequent shifts in body position.
d. Dreaming is common.

 

86. Which of these statements is correct for procedural memories?

a. They are associated with the temporal lobes and are closely associated with limbic structures.
b. They are associated with the cerebrum.
c. They involve acquisition of motor skills gained via repetitive training.
d. They are associated with the hippocampus.

 

87. Which of the following correctly describes somesthetic sensation?

a. It is initially processed by the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex.
b. It is the awareness of body position.
c. It is equally sensitive for all regions of the body surface.
d. It is projected from the surface of the body to the parietal lobe.

 

88. Language ability is usually associated with which of the following?

a. right cerebral hemisphere
b. left cerebral hemisphere
c. limbic system
d. prefrontal association cortex

 

89. What part of the brain plays a vital role in short-term memory, involving the integration of various related stimuli, and is also crucial for consolidation into long-term memory?

a. hippocampus
b. basal nuclei
c. cerebellum
d. cerebral cortex

 

90. Which of the following is a monosynaptic reflex?

a. stretch reflex
b. withdrawal reflex
c. brain stem reflex
d. crossed extensor reflex

 

91. If a person suffers a severe blow to the side of the head slightly above the ear, the impact is closest to which lobe of the cerebral cortex?

a. frontal
b. occipital
c. parietal
d. temporal

 

92. What is the function of astrocytes?

a. to induce formation of cerebrospinal fluid
b. to aid in repairing brain injuries and in forming neural scars
c. to take up excess H+ from the brain ECF
d. to line the fluid-filled cavities of the CNS

 

93. Which of the following cranial nerves primarily innervates visceral organs?

a. facial
b. trochlear
c. vagus
d. accessory

 

94. Which statement regarding CSF production or flow is correct?

a. CSF is produced along the spinal cord.
b. CSF is produced by meningeal cells.
c. CSF enters the meningeal layer through the cerebral aqueduct.
d. CSF flows inferiorly along the dorsal subarachnoid space of the spinal cord.

 

95. Which neurotransmitter is required for long-term potentiation?

a. epinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. glycine
d. glutamate

 

96. Which of the following is the most correct sequence of activation of brain areas when one responds in writing to a verbal command?

a. primary auditory cortex, Wernicke’s area, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex
b. primary auditory cortex, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, Wernicke’s area, primary motor cortex
c. primary auditory cortex, Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex
d. primary visual area, Wernicke’s area, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex

 

97. Which of these statements applies to the thalamus?

a. It performs preliminary processing of almost all sensory input on its way to the cortex.
b. It inhibits muscle tone throughout the body.
c. It controls thirst, urine output, and food intake.
d. It plays a role in emotional and behavioural patterns.

 

98. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to glial cells?
A

a. Astrocytes form myelin sheaths in CNS.
b. Glial cells branch as extensively as neurons do.
c. Ependymal cells line the internal cavities of the brain and spinal cord.
d. Oligodendrocytes enhance synapse formation and strengthen synaptic transmission.

 

99. Which of these statements does NOT apply to cerebrospinal fluid?

a. It is formed by the choroid plexuses and is reabsorbed across the arachnoid villi into the blood within the dural sinuses.
b. It serves as a shock-absorbing fluid to cushion the brain against jarring movements.
c. It comes into direct contact with the neuronal and glial cells.
d. It fills the subarachnoid space.

 

100. Which of the following correctly describes the limbic system?

a. It is a ring of structures surrounding the cerebellum.
b. It plays a key role in sensory perception.
c. It contains regions designated as reward and punishment centres.
d. It does NOT consist of frontal lobe.

 

101. If all the glial cells of the nervous system were destroyed, which of the following would occur?

a. Only the peripheral nervous system would be adversely affected.
b. Only about 10 percent of cells within CNS would remain.
c. The rate of neuronal cell regeneration would decline significantly.
d. The choroid plexus would not produce CSF.

 

102. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by the cerebral cortex?

a. voluntary initiation of movement
b. control of breathing, circulation, and digestion
c. final sensory perception
d. language ability

 

103. Which of the following is NOT a structural component of the limbic system?

a. amygdala
b. cingulate gyrus
c. mammillary body
d. medulla

 

104. Which of these statements applies to the cerebellum?

a. It is important for language function.
b. It is involved in coordination and planning of skilled voluntary muscle activity.
c. It inhibits muscle tone throughout the body.
d. It is for sensory perception, acting as a relay station.

 

105. Which of the following CNS structures influences autonomic activity?

a. medulla
b. hypothalamus
c. cerebral cortex
d. spinal cord

 

106. What region of the brain houses the centre that controls the sleep–wake cycle?

a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. brain stem
d. cerebral cortex

 

107. Damage to which one of these areas would result in inability to perform accurate motor actions?

a. Broca’s area
b. somatosensory cortex
c. premotor cortex
d. Wernicke’s area

 

108. Which of the following can activate the arousal system?

a. sensory activity
b. afferent sensory input
c. basal ganglion
d. frontal lobe

 

109. Which of the following statements correctly describes short-term memory?

a. It has a larger storage capacity than long-term memory.
b. It takes longer to retrieve than long-term memory.
c. It involves transient modifications in the function of pre-existing synapses, such as channel modification.
d. It has relatively stable memory trace.

 

110. In which area of the brain is consciousness created?

a. cerebellum
b. cerebral cortex
c. frontal lobe
d. hypothalamus

 

111. Which of these areas of the brain is important for the maintenance of posture?

a. primary motor cortex
b. basal nuclei
c. brainstem
d. cerebellum

 

112. Which of the following structures is part of the peripheral nervous system?

a. cerebrum
b. thalamus
c. spinal cord
d. afferent neurons

 

113. Most of the cranial nerves originate from the _____________.

a. brain stem
b. cerebellum
c. cerebral cortex
d. hypothalamus

 

114. Which of the following statements best describes Parkinson’s disease?

a. It is associated with a deficiency of serotonin.
b. It is characterized by an intention tremor.
c. It is characterized by a resting tremor.
d. It is caused by cerebellar disorder.

 

115. Which of these statements correctly describes long-term potentiation?

a. It refers to increased responsiveness to mild stimuli following a strong or noxious stimulus.
b. It refers to an increase in strength of existing synaptic connections in pathways involved in initial storage of declarative information following brief periods of stimulation.
c. It involves decreased neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic cells
d. It involves transient strengthening of pre-existing synapses.

 

116. Which statement does NOT correctly describe subarachnoid space?

a. It is the space between the arachnoid layer and the underlying pia mater.
b. It is filled with CSF.
c. Venous blood draining from the brain empties into this space.
d. Both brain and spinal cord have subarachnoid space.

 

117. Which statement does NOT correctly describe the brain stem?

a. The medulla is part of the brain stem.
b. The brain stem is a critical connecting link through which all fibres traversing between the periphery and higher brain centres must pass.
c. The brain stem is an important link between nervous and endocrine systems.
d. The brain stem contains centres that control respiration, blood vessel and heart function, and digestive activities.

 

118. Which of these statements does NOT apply to neural reflexes?

a. The responses are greatly variable in response to the same stimulus.
b. They are automatic motor responses.
c. They are triggered by specific stimuli.
d. They provide the ability to make rapid responses to changing stimuli to preserve homeostasis.

 

119. Why do myelinated axons conduct impulses much faster?

a. The myelin sheath insulates the axon.
b. Voltage gradually decreases through myelinated areas.
c. The distance between the nodes is short enough.
d. The fibre diameters are small.

 

120. What is the location of Broca’s area?

a. frontal lobe
b. occipital lobe
c. parietal lobe
d. temporal lobe

 

121. The left cerebral hemisphere excels normally in all of the following EXCEPT___________.

a. musical ability
b. verbal tasks
c. math skills
d. logical and analytical tasks

 

122. Which of the following is NOT a function of the basal ganglia?

a. to inhibit muscle tone
b. to coordinate impulses related to posture
c. to suppress unnecessary motor activity
d. to control autonomic activity

 

123. Which component of the reflex arc directly sends an impulse to an organ making a response?

a. receptor
b. afferent pathway
c. integrating centre
d. efferent pathway

 

124. Which statement correctly describes the peripheral nervous system?

a. It consists of 33 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
b. It consists of nerve fibres that carry information between the CNS and other parts of the body.
c. Its fibres are myelinated by oligodendrocytes.
d. It consists of motor nerve fibres only.

 

125. Which of these statements is correct for the cerebellum?

a. It is concerned primarily with motor activity, yet does not have any direct influence on efferent motor neurons.
b. It is part of the subcortical region of the brain.
c. It gives rise to resting tremors when diseased.
d. It is associated with declarative memories.

 

126. The corpus callosum interconnects which of the following?

a. the brain stem and the cerebellum
b. the brain stem and the diencephalon
c. the hypothalamus and the thalamus
d. the two cerebral hemispheres

 

127. In addition to producing cerebral spinal fluid, what is the function of ependymal cells?

a. to contribute to the formation of the blood–brain barrier
b. to act as immune cells
c. to act as neural stem cells
d. to conduct neural impulses

 

128. During cerebrovascular accidents, what type of receptors of neighbouring, healthy neurons does the glutamate that is released by damaged neurons bind to, thus initiating apoptosis?

a. acetylcholine
b. calcium
c. epinephrine
d. NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartic acid)

 

129. A deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the basal nuclei will cause which of the following clinical conditions?

a. schizophrenia
b. epilepsy
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. depression

 

130. Which of the following is NOT a function of the limbic system?

a. to provide emotional overtones
b. to coordinate aspects of learning
c. to provide “reward” stimulation
d. to provide conscious perceptions

 

131. Which statement correctly describes descending tracts?

a. They relay messages from the brain to the efferent neurons.
b. They involve the lateral spinothalamic tract.
c. They are part of the peripheral nervous system.
d. They are a bundle of neuronal axons, some afferent and some efferent.

 

132. Which of the following tracts transmits conscious sensory impulse regarding touch in the upper body?

a. dorsal cerebellar
b. fasciculus gracilis
c. lateral spinothalamic
d. lateral corticospinal

 

133. Which of the following statements applies to the choroid plexus?

a. It is located on the entire surface area of the brain.
b. It is the site of drainage of used cerebrospinal fluid from brain tissues.
c. It consists of richly vascularized masses of pia mater tissue.
d. It is an extension of sura mater.

 

134. Which of these neurons is the most abundant type of neuron in the body?

a. motor neurons
b. efferent neurons
c. afferent neurons
d. interneurons

 

135. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by the cerebral cortex?

a. personality traits
b. language ability
c. final sensory perception
d. control of circulation and digestion

 

136. Which statement does NOT correctly describe the spinal cord?

a. Afferent fibres enter the spinal cord through the ventral root.
b. The dorsal and ventral roots at each level of the spinal cord join to form a spinal nerve.
c. The spinal cord is not as long as the vertebral column.
d. The ventral horn contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons that supply skeletal muscles.

 

137. Which region of the brain is the smallest and oldest in evolutionary development?

a. cerebellum
b. brain stem
c. hypothalamus
d. forebrain

 

138. Which of the following are the vast majority of cells that can be found in the nervous tissues?

a. fibroblasts
b. glial cells
c. neurons
d. plexus cells

 

139. Which of the following is the cause of neural damage following a cerebrovascular accident?

a. reduced CO2 and increased glucose delivery to the region of the brain deprived of its blood supply
b. toxic release of glutamate from damaged brain cells, which overexcites and subsequently destroys surrounding brain cells
c. a loss of the blood–brain barrier in the affected area of the brain as a result of rupture or occlusion of a cerebral vessel
d. decreased production of ATP in the absence of oxygen

 

140. Which neuromodulator is implicated as a neural sleep factor?

a. adenosine
b. ATP
c. norepinephrine
d. enkephalin

 

141. Which of these statements applies to cerebrospinal fluid?

a. It is formed by the choroid plexuses.
b. It is formed by the arachnoid villi.
c. It separates the blood and brain to form the blood–brain barrier.
d. It separates the dura mater from the skull bone.

 

142. Which of these statements describes the blood–brain barrier?

a. It limits the direct exchange of materials between the cerebrospinal fluid and brain.
b. It is formed in part by the tight junctions between the brain capillary cells.
c. It consists of the astrocyte processes that encircle the brain capillaries.
d. It is a barrier between the meninges.

 

143. What is the function of afferent neurons?

a. to transmit information to effector organs
b. to transmit information the cerebellum
c. to transmit messages from receptors to the spinal cord and brain
d. to receive messages from the cerebrum

 

144. Which of the following separates the parietal lobes and frontal lobes?

a. central sulcus
b. lateral sulcus
c. longitudinal fissure
d. transverse fissure

 

145. Which of the following statements best describes the arachnoid mater?

a. It is the innermost meningeal layer.
b. It is a delicate, richly vascularized meningeal layer that is cobwebby in appearance.
c. It is a tough, inelastic membrane that covers the central nervous system.
d. It is involved with the formation of cerebrospinal fluid.

 

146. Which of these is NOT a function of astrocytes?

a. to hold neurons together in proper spatial relationship
b. to line the internal cavities of the brain and spinal cord
c. to induce the formation of the blood–brain barrier
d. to take up excess K+ to help maintain proper brain ECF ion concentration

 

147. Which of the following does NOT participate in control of skeletal muscle activity?

a. limbic system
b. cerebellum
c. supplementary motor area
d. premotor cortex

 

148. Which of the following does NOT apply to Wernicke’s area?

a. It is usually developed in the left cerebral hemisphere.
b. It is responsible for controlling the muscles necessary for speaking ability.
c. It is concerned with language comprehension.
d. It plays a critical role in understanding both spoken and written messages.

 

149. Which statement does NOT correctly describe paradoxical sleep?

a. Paradoxical sleep is characterized by rapid eye movements.
b. A person normally passes through paradoxical sleep before entering slow-wave sleep.
c. Dreaming occurs only during paradoxical sleep.
d. The EEG pattern during paradoxical sleep is similar to that of an alert, awake person.

 

150. Which of the following statements applies correctly to brain cells?

a. They consist of glial cells only.
b. They can perform anaerobic metabolism when oxygen supplies are low.
c. They use only glucose as a fuel for energy production.
d. About 10 percent of the cells within the CNS are glial cells.

 

151. Which of these components of the nervous system comprises sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions?

a. central nervous system
b. somatic nervous system
c. autonomic nervous system
d. afferent division

 

152. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe short-term memory?

a. immediate storage
b. large capacity
c. permanently forgotten
d. transient modifications in functions

 

153. Which of these statements is correct for efferent neurons?

a. They carry information to the CNS.
b. They have cell bodies that originate in the CNS.
c. They lie within the CNS.
d. They have cell bodies in the posterior grey horn

 

154. Which of the following statements best describes the primary motor cortex?

a. It is located in the parietal lobes.
b. It is in the left cerebral hemisphere and controls the skeletal muscles on the right side of the body.
c. It is the only region of the brain involved in motor control.
d. It develops motor programs for specific voluntary tasks.

 

155. Which glial cells possess phagocytic abilities?

a. astrocytes
b. ependymal cells
c. neurons
d. microglia

 

156. Which of the following applies to nerves?

a. contain both afferent and efferent fibres traversing between a particular region of the body and the central nervous system
b. do not contain complete nerve cells
c. are NOT present within the central nervous system
d. are NOT present within the peripheral nervous system

 

157. Which of the following applies to a sensory homunculus?

a. It is the location of referred pain.
b. It is the site that determines the intensity of a pain stimulus.
c. It is proportionately the same as the areas of the body represented.
d. It is the functional map of the primary sensory cortex.

 

158. Where is the primary motor cortex located?

a. posterior to the central sulcus
b. anterior to the central sulcus
c. in the temporal lobe
d. in the parietal lobe

 

159. Which of these types of neuroglial cells line the ventricles of the brain?

a. astrocytes
b. neurons
c. oligodendrocytes
d. ependymal cells

 

160. What is the normal sequence of structures activated for signal transmission and response in the body?

a. effector, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, receptor
b. effector, efferent neuron, interneuron, afferent neuron, receptor
c. receptor, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, effector
d. receptor, efferent neuron, interneuron, afferent neuron, effector

 

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

 

161. The ____________________ cortex is located at the interface of three lobes.

 

162. The ____________________ are protective and nourishing membranes that lie between the central nervous system and its bony covering.

 

163. The ____________________ division of the peripheral nervous system carries information to the CNS. Instructions from the CNS are transmitted via the ____________________ division of the peripheral nervous system to the ____________________ organs.

 

164. A(n) ____________________ is a bundle of neuronal axons of similar function within the CNS.

 

165. ____________________ refers to subjective awareness of surroundings and self.

 

166. ____________________ memories involve specific facts and events.

 

167. The ____________________ serves as a relay station and a synaptic integrating centre for preliminary processing of all sensory input on its way to the cortex.

 

168. The ____________________ lobes of the cerebral cortex are responsible for initial processing of visual input.

 

169. A collection of neuronal cell bodies located outside the CNS is called a(n) ____________________, whereas a functional collection of cell bodies within the CNS is referred to as a(n) ____________________ or a(n) ____________________.

 

170. ____________________ refers to the ability to direct behaviour toward specific goals.

 

171. About 90 percent of the cells in the CNS are ____________________ cells.

 

172. The central sulcus separates the ____________________ and ____________________ lobes.

 

173. The ____________________ cortex, the site for initial cortical processing of somesthetic and proprioceptive input, is located in the ____________________ lobes.

 

174. ____________________ represent the subjective urges associated with specific bodily needs that motivate appropriate behaviour to satisfy those needs.

 

175. The two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are the ____________________ and the ____________________.

 

176. Schizophrenia probably results from excess production of the neurotransmitter ____________________.

 

177. The neural change responsible for retention or storage of knowledge is known as the ____________________.

 

178. Voluntary motor activity is a function mainly of the ____________________ lobe.

 

179. Brain capillaries are joined by ____________________ junctions.

 

180. The ____________________ consist of several masses of grey matter located deep within the cerebral white matter.

 

181. ____________________ is the acquisition of knowledge as a consequence of experience.

 

182. The meninges, from the outermost to the innermost layer, are the ____________________, the ____________________, and the ____________________.

 

183. ____________________ are the glial cells that induce anatomical changes in blood vessels.

 

184. A sensory receptor generates action potentials if disturbed by an environmental change or ____________________.

 

185. Hydrocephalus results from the accumulation of ____________________ in regions of the brain.

 

186. The ____________________ hemisphere excels in performance of logical, analytical, sequential, and verbal tasks, whereas the ____________________ hemisphere excels in nonlanguage skills, such as spatial perception and artistic and musical endeavours.

 

187. A(n) ____________________ organ is a muscle or gland carrying out a response.

 

188. The ____________________ of the brain maintains upright posture.

 

189. The cell bodies of afferent neurons synapsing in the spinal cord are located in the ____________________.

 

190. The nervous system is organized into the ____________________, consisting of the brain and ____________________; and the ____________________, consisting of nerve fibres that carry information between the CNS and other parts of the body.

 

191. ____________________ refers to increased responsiveness to mild stimuli following a strong or noxious stimulus.

 

192. Somatotopic mapping can be altered by ____________________ competition.

 

193. The largest portion of the human brain is the ____________________, which is divided into two halves.

 

194. The four major types of glial cells are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.

 

195. ____________________ is a decreased responsiveness to an indifferent stimulus that is presented repeatedly.

 

196. Stimulation of the nerve supply to one muscle and simultaneous inhibition of the nerves to its antagonistic muscle is known as ____________________.

 

197. The lobes of the cerebral cortex, basal nuclei, thalamus, and hypothalamus compose the ____________________ system.

 

198. ____________________ disease is associated with a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.

 

199. ____________________ matter consists predominantly of densely packaged cell bodies and dendrites, whereas ____________________ matter consists of bundles of myelinated nerve fibres.

 

200. The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system is divided into the ____________________, which consists of ____________________ that supply the skeletal muscles; and the ____________________, which innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.

 

201. The motor cortex is activated by the ____________________ potential, a widespread pattern of neural discharge.

 

202. A(n) ____________________ is any response that occurs automatically without conscious effort.

 

203. In the condition ____________________, letters of words are formed in reverse image.

 

204. A(n) ____________________ is a functional aggregation of neuronal cell bodies.

 

205. The ____________________ system coordinates rapid responses of the body, whereas the ____________________ system is responsible for regulating metabolic functions and activities that require duration rather than speed.

 

206. Logic performance is more the function of the ____________________ cerebral hemisphere.

 

207. The CNS comprises the brain and the ____________________.

 

208. A(n) ____________________ is a bundle of peripheral neuronal axons, some afferent and some efferent, that are enclosed by a connective-tissue covering and that are following the same pathway.

 

209. The inability to recall recent past events following a traumatic event is known as ____________________, whereas the inability to store new memories for later retrieval is called ____________________.

 

210. ____________________ are tumours of the meninges.

 

211. ____________________ area is responsible for speaking ability, whereas ____________________ area is concerned with language comprehension.

 

212. The brain normally uses only ____________________ as a source of fuel for energy production, yet it does not store any of this nutrient.

 

213. The ____________________ is a special cushioning fluid that surrounds the brain and the spinal cord.

 

214. ____________________ refers to the ability of the brain to be functionally remodelled in response to the demands placed on it.

 

215. The ____________________ contains CSF, which is reabsorbed through the arachnoid villi.

 

216. The ____________________ and the ____________________ compose the diencephalon of the brain.

 

 

Match the following functions, labelled a. through f., to their cranial nerves.

a. hearing; body balance
b. sense of smell
c. sensory and motor function to facial regions; chewing
d. controls many internal organs in the ventral body cavity
e. moves the eye
f. sense of vision

 

217. oculomotor

 

218. olfactory

 

219. optic

 

220. trigeminal

 

221. vagus

 

222. vestibulocochlear

 

Match the following structures, labelled a. through f., to their descriptions.

a. dorsal horn
b. dorsal root
c. dorsal root ganglion
d. ventral horn
e. ventral root
f. lateral horn

 

223. Afferent fibres enter the spinal cord through this structure.

 

224. Efferent fibres leave the spinal cord through this structure.

 

225. contains cell bodies of interneurons upon which afferent neurons terminate

 

226. contains cell bodies of afferent neurons

 

227. contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons supplying skeletal muscles

 

228. The cell bodies of autonomic nerve fibres originate here.

 

Match the following structures, labelled a. through e., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. arachnoid villi
b. subarachnoid space
c. choroid plexuses
d. dural sinuses
e. dura mater

 

229. tough, inelastic, outer meningeal layer

 

230. Venous blood draining from the brain empties here.

 

231. tissue across which CSF is reabsorbed into the blood

 

232. site of formation of CSF

 

233. location of CSF as it surrounds the brain

 

Match the following structures, labelled a. through j., to their descriptions.

a. temporal lobe
b. Wernicke’s area
c. somatosensory cortex
d. limbic association cortex
e. corpus callosum
f. primary motor cortex
g. occipital lobe
h. Broca’s area
i. supplementary motor area
j. prefrontal association cortex

 

234. a thick band of axons traversing between the two hemispheres

 

235. initial cortical processing for vision

 

236. initial cortical processing for hearing

 

237. initial cortical processing for sensations arising from the surface of the body

 

238. programs complex sequences of movement

 

239. triggers voluntary movement by activating motor neurons

 

240. responsible for speaking ability

 

241. responsible for comprehension and formulation of coherent patterns of speech

 

242. primarily concerned with motivation and emotion

 

243. Lesions in this area result in changes in personality and social behaviour.

 

Match the following structures, labelled a. through c., to their descriptions.

a. vestibulocerebellum
b. spinocerebellum
c. cerebrocerebellum

 

244. regulates muscle tone; compares intentions of higher centres with performance of muscles and corrects any errors, especially with rapid phasic movements

 

245. plays a role in planning and initiation of voluntary activity; important for learning and remembering procedural motor tasks

 

246. is important for balance and eye movement

 

Match the lobes, labelled a. through d., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. occipital lobes
b. temporal lobes
c. parietal lobes
d. frontal lobes

 

247. initially process sound input

 

248. initially process visual input

 

249. initially process somesthetic sensation and proprioception

 

250. contain primary motor cortex

 

251. contain the region responsible for personality traits

 

252. contain the limbic association cortex

 

253. located on the sides of the head

 

254. located at the back of the head

 

255. located in front of the central sulcus

 

256. located to the rear of the central sulcus

 

Match these brain structures, labelled a. through e., with their associated descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. cerebellum
b. hypothalamus
c. brain stem
d. basal nuclei
e. cerebral cortex

 

257. controls anterior pituitary hormone secretion

 

258. initiates all voluntary movement

 

259. inhibits muscle tone throughout the body

 

260. damage to this structure is associated with a resting tremor

 

261. controls thirst, urine output, food intake, and body temperature

 

262. contains centres for respiration, heart and blood vessel function, and many digestive activities

 

263. helps monitor and coordinate slow, sustained contractions, especially those related to balance and posture

 

264. contains the autonomic nervous system coordinating centre

 

265. Disorder of this structure is characterized by an intention tremor.

 

266. plays a role in emotion and behavioural patterns

 

267. is concerned with the coordination of motor activity initiated by higher brain centres; compares the “intentions” of the higher centres with the “performance” of the muscles, and corrects any “errors”

 

268. accomplishes final sensory perception

 

Match the glial cells, labelled a. through d., with their descriptions.

a. astrocytes
b. oligodendrocytes
c. ependymal cells
d. microglia

 

269. brain phagocytes

 

270. line the brain ventricles

 

271. form the insulative myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS

 

272. the main brain “glue”

 

Match the following structures, labelled a. through c., to their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. grey matter of spinal cord
b. white matter of spinal cord
c. dorsal root ganglion

 

273. location of ascending and descending tracts

 

274. location of cell bodies for efferent neurons

 

275. location of cell bodies for afferent neurons

 

276. location of short interneurons involved in integration of spinal reflexes

 

277. outer portion of spinal cord

 

278. inner portion of spinal cord

 

Match the nervous pathways, labelled a. through d., with their descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. ascending tracts
b. descending tracts
c. afferent neurons
d. efferent neurons

 

279. carry information from the periphery to the CNS

 

280. carry information up the spinal cord to the brain

 

281. carry information from the brain down the spinal cord

 

282. carry information from the CNS to the effector organs

 

Match the spinal tracts, labelled a. through e., with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. ventral spinocerebellar
b. rubrospinal
c. lateral corticospinal
d. fasciculus cuneatus
e. lateral spinothalamic

 

283. tract that terminates in the cerebellum

 

284. tract for motor impulses providing muscle tone control

 

285. tract for voluntary motor actions

 

286. largest sensory tract

 

287. sensory tract for pain and temperature

 

Match the system, labelled a. through c., with the characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. nervous system
b. endocrine system
c. both the nervous system and the endocrine system

 

288. coordinates rapid activities of the body

 

289. secretes hormones

 

290. primarily controls metabolic activities and other activities that require duration rather than speed

 

291. alters target cells by release of chemical messengers that interact with specific receptors of the target cells

 

292. chemical messengers travel long distances

 

293. chemical messengers travel short distances

 

294. chemical messengers released only in response to an action potential

 

Match the types of memory, labelled a. and b., to their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. short-term memory
b. long-term memory

 

295. very large storage capacity

 

296. limited storage capacity

 

297. site for initial deposition of new information

 

298. takes longer to retrieve information from this store

 

299. involves transient modifications in function of pre-existing synapses

 

300. probably involves relatively permanent functional or structural changes between existing neurons

 

 

301. Describe how memories are created.

 

302. Describe the organization of the nervous system.

 

303. Describe the structure and function of the cerebral cortex.

 

304. Describe points of decussation of spinal tracts.

 

305. Describe the structure and functions of the spinal cord.

 

306. Describe the structural aspects of the limbic system and its functions.

 

307. Compare and contrast the nervous and endocrine systems.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

1. Peptide hormones are often produced as prohormones.

a. True
b. False

 

2. Growth hormone is controlled by both releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus.

a. True
b. False

 

3. The somatomedins are insulin-like growth factors.

a. True
b. False

 

4. The thyroid hormone produces growth-promoting effects directly.

a. True
b. False

 

5. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor substance.

a. True
b. False

 

6. A tropic hormone acts primarily on nonendocrine tissues.

a. True
b. False

 

7. Secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is under the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

8. Chondrocytes are bone cells that are affected by the growth hormone.

a. True
b. False

 

9. The main control normally determining the plasma concentration of a particular hormone is its rate of inactivation and excretion.

a. True
b. False

 

10. Transmission of nerve impulses from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary causes the stored hormones to be released.

a. True
b. False

 

11. All hormones are first formed as preprohormones then are pruned into active hormones.

a. True
b. False

 

12. Tropic hormones target only other glands.

a. True
b. False

 

13. FSH has different functions in men and women.

a. True
b. False

 

14. Growth hormone promotes closure of the epiphyseal plate at adolescence.

a. True
b. False

 

15. Hormone activity is rapid compared to the effects of the nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

16. Permissiveness refers to the conversion of inactive enzymes into active enzymes by hormones, thus permitting the enzymes to perform their function.

a. True
b. False

 

17. Peptide hormones cause changes in solute permeability or alter intracellular protein activity at their targets.

a. True
b. False

 

18. Cholesterol is a common precursor for polypeptide hormones.

a. True
b. False

 

19. FSH and LH are collectively known as gonadotropins.

a. True
b. False

 

20. Minor differences in structure between hormones within each chemical category often result in profound differences in biological response.

a. True
b. False

 

21. Plasma concentrations of a hormone are normally regulated by changes in secretion rate.

a. True
b. False

 

22. Lipophilic (hydrophobic) hormones circulate in the blood largely bound to plasma proteins.

a. True
b. False

 

23. Growth hormone directly stimulates bone growth.

a. True
b. False

 

24. Neurohormones are hormones that specifically modify neural activity.

a. True
b. False

 

25. Metabolism of hormones always results in their inactivation.

a. True
b. False

 

26. Dwarfism may be due to growth hormone deficiency in adults.

a. True
b. False

 

27. Steroid hormones are first produced in an inactive form.

a. True
b. False

 

28. Insulin-like growth factors are produced in most tissues, but primarily in the liver.

a. True
b. False

 

29. All amine hormones are hydrophilic.

a. True
b. False

 

30. The pituitary gland produces melatonin.

a. True
b. False

 

31. Growth hormone secretion increases markedly about an hour after the onset of deep sleep.

a. True
b. False

 

32. Insulin is produced as a prohormone.

a. True
b. False

 

33. Once synthesized, all hormones are stored within the endocrine cell until an appropriate signal arrives for their release.

a. True
b. False

 

34. The role of MSH in humans is well understood.

a. True
b. False

 

35. Specialization of target-cell receptors explains the specificity of hormonal action.

a. True
b. False

 

36. Prolactin is the only anterior pituitary hormone that does not exert a tropic action.

a. True
b. False

 

37. Hypophysiotropic-hormone secretion by the hypothalamus is regulated only by hormonal negative feedback.

a. True
b. False

 

38. Clock proteins are essential for controlling circadian rhythms.

a. True
b. False

 

39. Once a steroid hormone binds with its intracellular receptor, the hormone-receptor complex binds with a specific hormone response element on DNA, thereby activating a particular gene.

a. True
b. False

 

40. Steroid hormones act through the second-messenger system.

a. True
b. False

 

41. The hypothalamus is the highest integrative centre in the hierarchical chain of command in endocrine control.

a. True
b. False

 

42. Oxytocin and vasopressin are carried in the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.

a. True
b. False

 

43. Hyposecretion of an endocrine gland may have a genetic basis.

a. True
b. False

 

44. The cells of Leydig secrete ICSH.

a. True
b. False

 

45. Hypothalamic hypophysiotropic hormones cause the release of oxytocin and vasopressin from the posterior pituitary.

a. True
b. False

 

46. An anterior pituitary gland produces inhibiting and stimulating signals that affect the hypothalamus.

a. True
b. False

 

47. Peptide hormone receptors are located inside the target cell.

a. True
b. False

 

48. Each steroidogenic organ is capable of producing all of the steroid hormones.

a. True
b. False

 

49. Hormones may be steroids, peptides, or amines.

a. True
b. False

 

50. The hypothalamus synthesizes and regulates the release of hormones from the posterior pituitary.

a. True
b. False

 

51. A “primary” defect in an endocrine system means that the defect is at the hypothalamus.

a. True
b. False

 

52. All hormones are synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi complex system.

a. True
b. False

 

53. One target cell receptor may bind with more than one type of hormone.

a. True
b. False

 

54. One of the effects of the growth hormone is the control of fat metabolism.

a. True
b. False

 

55. The same chemical messenger may be either a hormone or a neurotransmitter, depending on its source and mode of delivery to the target tissue.

a. True
b. False

 

56. Growth hormone is the only hormone that influences growth.

a. True
b. False

 

57. The nervous system exerts considerable control over the endocrine system, but hormones have no influence over the nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

58. A single endocrine gland may produce many hormones.

a. True
b. False

 

59. Negative-feedback control tends to maintain hormone levels at a relatively constant set point, whereas neuroendocrine reflexes usually produce a sudden increase in hormone secretion in response to a specific stimulus.

a. True
b. False

 

60. Light is a crucial factor in regulating circadian rhythms.

a. True
b. False

 

61. The posterior pituitary secretes LH.

a. True
b. False

 

62. Hypophysiotropic hormones are secreted into the systemic circulatory system.

a. True
b. False

 

63. Growth hormone exerts metabolic effects unrelated to growth.

a. True
b. False

 

64. Acromegaly develops from a deficiency of the growth hormone.

a. True
b. False

 

65. Each anterior pituitary hormone is controlled by a single hypophysiotropic hormone from the hypothalamus.

a. True
b. False

 

66. With down regulation, one hormone induces the loss of another hormone’s receptors.

a. True
b. False

 

67. The anterior pituitary is involved in the regulation of reproduction.

a. True
b. False

 

68. Growth hormone does not directly affect bone growth, but instead stimulates the release of somatomedins from the liver, which in turn promote bone growth.

a. True
b. False

 

69. TSH controls the amount of testosterone secreted by the testes.

a. True
b. False

 

70. All hormones secreted by the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are peptides.

a. True
b. False

 

71. Epinephrine produces diverse effects on the activity of smooth muscle.

a. True
b. False

 

72. Osteoclasts are cells that make new bone cells.

a. True
b. False

 

73. Cellular hypertrophy is accomplished by increased cell division.

a. True
b. False

 

74. Melanocyte-stimulating hormones play a role in determining the different amount of melanin in the skin of various human races.

a. True
b. False

 

75. Only hormones that are not bound to plasma proteins are biologically active.

a. True
b. False

 

76. Hydrophilic hormones exert their effects primarily by activating second-messenger systems within their target cells.

a. True
b. False

 

77. The hormones influence adjustments that require duration rather than speed, whereas the rapid coordinations of the body are controlled by the nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

78. Endocrine responses occur more slowly and last longer than neural responses.

a. True
b. False

 

79. There are no known growth-related signals that influence growth hormone secretion.

a. True
b. False

 

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

80. Which of the following statements correctly describes growth hormone?

a. Growth hormone levels in the blood are directly correlated with the rate of growth throughout life.
b. Growth hormone stimulates the secretion of somatomedins.
c. Growth hormone stimulates osteoclast activity.
d. Excessive growth hormone in adults will cause the disease called gigantism.

 

81. Which of the following disorders and hormonal imbalances are correctly matched?

a. diabetes insipidus: decreased insulin response
b. acromegaly: excessive growth hormone secretion after epiphyseal plates are closed
c. diabetes mellitus: decreased ADH secretion
d. dwarfism: excessive cortisol production

 

82. Which of the following statements correctly describes melanocyte-stimulating hormones?

a. They are secreted by the hypothalamus.
b. They are known to cause skin darkening in certain lower vertebrates.
c. They are believed to be responsible for the tanning phenomenon in humans.
d. They are responsible for circadian rhythm.

 

83. Which of these hormones is a neurohormone?

a. vasopressin
b. thyroid hormone
c. growth hormone
d. cortisol

 

84. Which of the following statements refers to permissiveness of hormones?

a. Hormones permit cellular processes to occur.
b. Hormones permit their target organs to function at the optimal rate.
c. In some instances, an adequate amount of one hormone must be present for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect.
d. Through numerous neuroendocrine relationships, the nervous system allows the endocrine system to function.

 

85. Which of the following circumstances results in somatomedins being released from the liver?

a. increased plasma growth hormone levels
b. increased plasma somatostatin levels
c. decreased plasma growth hormone levels
d. decreased plasma somatostatin levels

 

86. Why do hormones have specificity?

a. due to specialized hormone secretion
b. due to molecular rearrangement at the site of action
c. due to specific binding of hormones to plasma proteins
d. due to specialization of target-cell receptors

 

87. In addition to GH, which other hormone is essential for normal growth?

a. insulin
b. parathyroid hormone
c. calcitonin
d. glucagon

 

88. Which of the following events is stimulated by LH?

a. destruction of the cells of Leydig
b. enlargement of the follicles
c. development of the hypothalamus
d. formation of the corpus luteum

 

89. Which of the following statements correctly describes control of hormone secretion?

a. Normally the effective plasma concentration of a hormone is regulated by the rate of its synthesis.
b. In order to maintain homeostasis, the rate of hormone secretion remains constant.
c. All hormones are regulated with negative feedback controls.
d. Neuroendocrine reflexes produce a sudden increase in hormone secretion in response to a specific, usually external, stimulus.

 

90. Which of the following can influence the effective plasma concentration of a hormone?

a. the hormone’s rate of binding to receptors on target tissues
b. the hormone’s extent of binding to plasma proteins
c. the hormone’s rate of metabolic activity
d. the hormone’s rate of secretion

 

91. Which of the following statements correctly describes diurnal rhythms?

a. They are inherent cyclical peaks and ebbs of hormone secretion that are a function of time and are entrained to the 24-hour light–dark cycle.
b. They are important in maintaining hormone levels at a relatively constant set point, no matter the time of day.
c. They occur only with cortisol secretion.
d. They occur only with growth hormone secretion.

 

92. Which of the following statements correctly describes hormones?

a. They are released from exocrine glands.
b. They interact with receptors at target-cell sites.
c. They are synthesized in the lymph nodes.
d. They interact with receptors in the blood.

 

93. Which of these statements applies to the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system?

a. It carries vasopressin and oxytocin from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary for storage.
b. It carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary to control the release of posterior pituitary hormones.
c. It carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to control the release of anterior pituitary hormones.
d. It carries vasopressin and oxytocin from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to control the release of anterior pituitary hormones.

 

94. Which of the following statements correctly describes tropic hormones?

a. They are produced by the posterior pituitary.
b. They are secreted only by the hypothalamus.
c. They primarily regulate hormone secretion by certain other endocrine glands.
d. They all have non-tropic functions too.

 

95. Which class of hormones acts by means of a second-messenger system?

a. proteins
b. catecholamines
c. steroids
d. thyroid hormones

 

96. Estrogens, testosterone, cortisol, and aldosterone are derivatives of which molecular precursor?

a. DHEA
b. cholesterol
c. UDP-glucose
d. epinephrine

 

97. Which of the following statements correctly describes growth hormone?

a. It closes the epiphyseal plate of long bones.
b. It promotes hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
c. Its secretion is stimulated by an increased blood glucose level.
d. It is the only factor responsible for governing the growth of an individual.

 

98. Which of the following statements applies to TSH?

a. A build-up of the thyroid hormone stimulates its production by negative feedback.
b. It is secreted by the thyroid gland.
c. It is stored in the posterior pituitary.
d. It stimulates the thyroid gland.

 

99. Which statement does NOT describe vasopressin?

a. It is produced in the hypothalamus.
b. It stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction.
c. It increases kidney reabsorption of water.
d. It is a potent arteriolar vasoconstrictor.

 

100. Which of the following statements correctly describes neurosecretory neurons?

a. They release neurotransmitters.
b. They release hormones.
c. They release chemicals.
d. They are able to conduct action potentials.

 

101. Under which of these circumstances is synergism occurring?

a. when one hormone induces the loss of another hormone’s receptors
b. when the actions of several hormones are complementary, and their combined effect is greater than the sum of their separate effects
c. when one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect
d. when one hormone increases the number of target-tissue receptors for another hormone

 

102. Which of these hormones is NOT a tropic hormone?

a. ACTH
b. ADH
c. ICSH
d. LH

 

103. Which of the following happens in the second-messenger step?

a. A small amount of one hormone (the second messenger) is required to release another.
b. A tropic hormone (the first messenger) stimulates secretion of another hormone (the second messenger).
c. The hormone first binds to a specific surface receptor, whereupon the hormone–receptor complex moves into the cell to combine with a specific intracellular receptor.
d. A hormone (the first messenger) binds to surface receptors, activating adenylyl cyclase, which catalyzes cAMP formation.

 

104. Which of these pituitary hormones is NOT involved in reproductive physiology?

a. follicle-stimulating hormone
b. luteinizing hormone
c. oxytocin
d. vasopressin

 

105. Which of the following correctly describes hormones produced in the anterior pituitary?

a. They are synthesized by the hypothalamus.
b. They may be only non-tropic.
c. They are secreted into the blood.
d. They are secreted into ducts.

 

106. A portal system exists between which of the following glands?

a. adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla
b. hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
c. hypothalamus and posterior pituitary
d. thyroid gland and parathyroid gland

 

107. Which of the following is NOT an effect of GH?

a. increased fat breakdown
b. increased bone growth
c. decreased glucose entry into muscle cells
d. decreased protein synthesis

 

108. The transport of lipid-soluble hormones in the blood is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms?

a. loose binding with iodine
b. specific binding to some plasma proteins
c. binding to HDLs
d. binding to glycolipids

 

109. Which of the following statements correctly describes hormones?

a. All are regulated by the hypothalamus.
b. They are secreted by endocrine glands through ducts into the blood.
c. They must combine with specific receptors on their target cells in order to exert their effects.
d. They are produced in a gland and act on the target cells in different tissues.

 

110. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the hormone oxytocin?

a. It stimulates uterine contractions.
b. It promotes milk ejection from mammary gland ducts.
c. It influences bonding behaviour between mother and baby.
d. It is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

 

111. How does growth hormone exert its effects on growth?

a. by stimulating production of somatomedins
b. by directly invoking gene activity
c. by elevating blood glucose levels
d. by increasing fat metabolism

 

112. Which of the following statements concerning bone cells is correct?

a. Osteoclasts are cells that make new bone cells.
b. Chondrocytes are bone cells that are affected by prolactin-inhibiting hormone.
c. Osteoclasts are the bone cell types that dissolve bone.
d. Osteoblasts are mature, nongrowing bone.

 

113. A hormone can influence the activity of another hormone at a given target cell in one of three ways: permissiveness, synergism, or antagonism. Which of the following statements concerning the above concept is correct?

a. With permissiveness, one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect.
b. Synergism occurs when the action of one hormone is more dominant than another hormone.
c. Antagonism occurs when hormones compete for the hormone’s receptors.
d. ADH and oxytocin are a good example of antagonistic hormones.

 

114. Which of the following structures is neuroendocrine in nature?

a. anterior pituitary gland
b. thyroid gland
c. hypothalamus
d. adrenal cortex

 

115. Which of the following is NOT a correct association?

a. adrenal medulla and vasopressin
b. anterior pituitary and adenohypophysis
c. epinephrine and catecholamine
d. insulin and polypeptide

 

116. Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone?

a. to increase the uptake of amino acids by cells
b. to stimulate the synthesis of somatomedins
c. to enhance glucose uptake by muscle cells
d. to stimulate cell division

 

117. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to steroids?

a. They are hydrophilic.
b. They are derived from cholesterol.
c. They initiate synthesis of the second messenger system within their target cells.
d. Epinephrine is an example of a steroid.

 

118. Which statement does NOT refer to post-receptor events of hydrophilic hormones?

a. Adenylyl cyclase forms cyclic AMP.
b. Cyclic AMP is a secondary messenger.
c. Some hydrophilic hormones use Ca ions as a secondary messenger.
d. Specific genes are activated.

 

119. Which of the following substances is the most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones?

a. calcium
b. cyclic AMP
c. chromatin
d. messenger RNA

 

120. Which class of hormones is synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum–Golgi complex mechanism?

a. peptides
b. catecholamines
c. steroids
d. thyroid hormones

 

121. Which of these statements correctly describes osteoblasts?

a. They secrete the organic matrix components of bone.
b. They promote osteoclast activity.
c. They dissolve bone tissue.
d. They are cartilage cells.

 

122. Which of the following is the action of melatonin?

a. regulation of circadian rhythms
b. permissive action with glucocorticoids
c. induction of calcium reabsorption
d. stimulation of melanin pigment production

 

123. Which of the following statements applies correctly to circadian rhythms?

a. The hypothalamus’s supraoptic nucleus maintains them.
b. Melanin is responsible for generating them.
c. They are brought about by fluctuating levels of clock proteins.
d. The pituitary gland maintains them.

 

124. Which of the following statements correctly describes hypophysiotropic hormones?

a. Each hypophysiotropic hormone influences only one anterior pituitary hormone.
b. All hypophysiotropic hormones stimulate the release of anterior pituitary hormones.
c. Hypophysiotropic hormones are also produced outside the hypothalamus, where they serve different functions.
d. Hypophysiotropic hormones are secreted into the general circulation.

 

125. Which of these circumstances is the cause of too little activity of a particular hormone?

a. an abnormality within the endocrine gland that produces this hormone
b. overactivity of this hormone’s tropic hormone
c. overstimulation by the hypothalamus
d. overstimulation of the pituitary gland

 

126. Which of the following substances is NOT associated with the post-receptor events of hydrophilic hormones?

a. cyclic AMP
b. protein kinase
c. adenylate cyclase
d. chromatin

 

127. Lipophilic hormones interact with which of the following prior to gene activation?

a. membrane receptors
b. cAMP
c. hormone response elements
d. G proteins

 

128. Which one of these hormones signals the kidneys to control water balance?

a. vasopressin
b. ACTH
c. TRH
d. somatostatin

 

129. Which of the following statements correctly describes tropic hormones?

a. They may stimulate the secretion of other hormones.
b. They are secreted only by the hypothalamus.
c. They are all produced in the posterior pituitary gland.
d. Primary hyposecretion occurs when an endocrine gland isn’t receiving enough of its tropic hormone.

 

130. Which of the following statements applies to the posterior pituitary?

a. It secretes ADH.
b. It stores anterior pituitary hormones.
c. It stores ACTH and LH.
d. It secretes vasopressin and oxytocin into the hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system.

 

131. Which characteristic is NOT shared by both lipophilic and hydrophilic hormones?

a. amplification of hormone actions in the target cell
b. passing through the lipid membrane barriers of their target cells
c. synergistic actions
d. antagonistic actions

 

132. Growth hormone signals which of the following parts in a long bone to influence its length?

a. articular cartilage
b. endosteum
c. epiphyseal plate
d. medullary cavity

 

133. Which of the following statements correctly describes hormones?

a. They are all of similar chemical composition.
b. They combine with specific receptors on the target cell’s surface or inside the target cell.
c. They are secreted at a constant rate.
d. They all act by activating adenylate cyclase, which transforms ATP into cyclic AMP.

 

134. Which of the following occurs in the process of negative feedback?

a. TSH inhibits thyroid hormone secretion by the thyroid gland.
b. Thyroid hormone inhibits TSH secretion by the anterior pituitary.
c. Thyroid hormone directly inhibits further thyroid hormone secretion by the thyroid gland.
d. TRH inhibits TSH secretion by the anterior pituitary.

 

135. Which of the following statements correctly describes the anterior pituitary?

a. It is also known as the neurohypophysis.
b. It is composed primarily of nervous tissue.
c. It primarily secretes tropic hormones.
d. It secretes vasopressin

 

136. Which of the following statements correctly describes melanocyte-stimulating hormones?

a. They are responsible for the deposition of melanin in the skin during the process of tanning.
b. They are not present in significant amounts in adult humans.
c. They are present in varying amounts in races of different skin colour.
d. They are important for colour adaptations associated with camouflage in certain lower vertebrates.

 

137. Which of the following statements correctly describes the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system?

a. It carries anterior pituitary hormones from the anterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus to regulate the release of hypophysiotropic hormones.
b. It diverts blood directly to the pituitary, completely bypassing the hypothalamus.
c. It carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to regulate anterior pituitary hormone secretion.
d. It carries the anterior pituitary hormones into the general systemic circulation.

 

138. Which of the following situations represents negative feedback?

a. Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone C.
b. Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone A.
c. Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone A.
d. Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone C.

 

139. How is hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary gland controlled?

a. by neuronal cell bodies from the hypothalamus
b. directly, by neural innervation of anterior pituitary cells
c. by negative-feedback action of target-tissue hormones
d. only by inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus

 

140. Which of these statements does NOT apply to peptide hormones?

a. They include adrenal cortex hormones.
b. Insulin is an example of this type of hormone.
c. They are stored within secretory granules.
d. They are secreted from endocrine glands.

 

141. Which statement correctly describes growth hormone?

a. It directly stimulates bone growth.
b. It affects bones via somatomedin release.
c. It promotes closure of the epiphyseal plate.
d. It promotes low blood glucose level.

 

142. Which of these statements correctly describes the posterior pituitary?

a. It is composed of vascular tissue.
b. It stores anterior pituitary hormones, which are released into the blood upon hypothalamic stimulation.
c. It synthesizes and secretes vasopressin and oxytocin.
d. It stimulates the adrenal gland.

 

143. A deficiency in which of these hormones may result in dwarfism?

a. growth-hormone inhibiting hormone
b. GH
c. thyroid hormone
d. thyroid stimulating hormone

 

144. Which statement does NOT correctly describe IGF?

a. The concentration of IGF-1 in the blood plasma normally mimics the rate of secretion of GH.
b. Fasting decreases IGF-1 levels even though it increases GH secretion.
c. IGF-II, which is important during fetal development, is also influenced by GH.
d. Glycogen synthesis is decreased by GH through IGF.

 

145. Which one of the following hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary is non-tropic?

a. TSH
b. prolactin
c. LH
d. ACTH

 

146. What does excessive growth hormone secretion in an adult lead to?

a. gigantism
b. disproportionate growth, resulting in thickened bones and coarse features
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. central obesity

 

147. Which of these factors does NOT increase growth hormone secretion?

a. deep sleep
b. exercise
c. low blood amino acid level
d. stress

 

148. Hormones are classified into which of the following three types?

a. amines, peptides, and steroids
b. amides, steroids, and phospholipids
c. amines, phospholipids, and steroids
d. amides, amines, and peptides

 

149. Which of these activities happens in a short-loop, negative-feedback, control system?

a. The anterior pituitary hormone feeds back to the hypothalamus, suppressing releasing hormone.
b. The target gland’s hormone feeds back to the anterior pituitary, suppressing the tropic hormone.
c. The target gland’s hormone does not feed back to any other gland.
d. The anterior pituitary hormone feeds back to the posterior pituitary gland, stimulating the inhibiting hormone.

 

150. Which of these statements represents long-loop, negative feedback in the CRH–ACTH–cortisol system?

a. Cortisol inhibits CRH secretion.
b. CRH inhibits ACTH secretion.
c. ACTH inhibits CRH secretion.
d. ACTH inhibits cortisol secretion.

 

151. Which of these hormones is regulated by the anterior pituitary?

a. parathyroid hormone
b. cortisol
c. aldosterone
d. insulin

 

152. Which of these statements does NOT apply to peptide hormones?

a. They are synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum–Golgi complex system.
b. They circulate bound largely to plasma proteins.
c. They bind to surface receptors of their target cells.
d. They exert their effect largely by means of second-messenger systems.

 

153. Which of the following glands produces melatonin?

a. anterior pituitary
b. posterior pituitary
c. pineal
d. hypothalamus

 

154. Which of the following statements correctly describes amines?

a. They consist of a chain of specific amino acids of varying length.
b. They are derived from alanine.
c. They include the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland and the adrenal medulla.
d. They are derived from tyrosine.

 

155. Which class of hormones triggers the synthesis of new intracellular proteins within the target cell?

a. peptides
b. steroids
c. thyroid hormones
d. lipophilic hormones

 

156. Which of the following statements applies to melatonin?

a. It accelerates metabolism.
b. It defends against free radicals.
c. It lowers the concentration of blood sugar.
d. It serves as a secondary messenger.

 

157. Which of the following statements correctly describes endocrine glands?

a. They produce hormones into the ducts.
b. They act locally on nearby tissues.
c. They all can pass through the plasma membrane.
d. They are all controlled by the nervous system.

 

158. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe hormones?

a. Multiple hormones may be produced by a single endocrine gland.
b. More than one hormone may influence a single target cell.
c. A single hormone can influence only one type of target cell.
d. Hormones may be secreted by an endocrine organ that may also exert nonendocrine functions.

 

159. Which of the following are masculinizing hormones produced from the adrenal gland?

a. growth hormones
b. androgens
c. thyroid hormones
d. cortisols

 

160. Which of the following statements correctly describes hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus?

a. They control the release of oxytocin and vasopressin from the posterior pituitary.
b. They travel via neuron axons from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
c. They are carried in the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.
d. They are released upon positive-feedback stimulation via the anterior pituitary tropic hormones.

 

161. Which of these statements correctly describes growth hormone?

a. It increases the uptake of amino acids by cells.
b. It promotes lipid synthesis.
c. It works with insulin to lower blood sugar.
d. It is secreted by the hypothalamus.

 

162. Which of the following structures has a direct anatomical connection to the hypothalamus?

a. adrenal gland
b. posterior lobe of the pituitary
c. thyroid gland
d. parathyroid gland

 

163. Which of the following statements applies to lipophilic hormones?

a. They include catecholamines.
b. They bind with receptors located inside their target cells.
c. They activate second-messenger systems within their target cells.
d. They circulate as free hormones.

 

164. Which of the following hormone types does NOT require membrane receptors to invoke cell responses?

a. catecholamines
b. steroids
c. peptides
d. parathyroid hormones

 

165. Which one of the following hormones is released from the hypothalamus?

a. CRH
b. TSH
c. FS
d. LH

 

166. Which class of hormones is released by exocytosis upon appropriate stimulation?

a. peptides
b. thyroxins
c. steroids
d. insulins

 

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

 

167. All the blood supply to the anterior pituitary gland must first pass through the ____________________ of the brain.

 

168. Antidiuretic hormone is also called ____________________.

 

169. The ____________________ carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.

 

170. Most endocrine control systems involve ____________________ and hormonal components.

 

171. FSH and LH are collectively called ____________________ because they control secretion of sex hormones.

 

172. ____________________ is the process of forming bone in a long bone.

 

173. The SCN is located in the ____________________ of the brain.

 

174. ____________________ are hormones derived from the amino acid tyrosine.

 

175. The primary means of eliminating hormones and their metabolites from the blood is ____________________.

 

176. A(n) ____________________ hormone stimulates the effect of another endocrine gland.

 

177. Vasopressin and ____________________ are produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland.

 

178. In males, luteinizing hormone can be called ____________________, reflecting its function in stimulating the cells of Leydig.

 

179. ____________________ are the bone cell types that form bones.

 

180. ____________________ are hormones derived from cholesterol.

 

181. Unlike ____________________ hormones, steroid hormones are not stored after their formation.

 

182. Dwarfism develops from a ____________________ of growth hormone.

 

183. Steroid hormones are derived from ____________________.

 

184. ____________________ from the anterior pituitary stimulates cortisol secretion.

 

185. ____________________ are long-range chemical mediators secreted by endocrine glands into the blood, which carries them to distant target organs.

 

186. The specific site upon which a hormone exerts its effect is referred to as a ____________________ cell.

 

187. The ____________________ and ____________________ nuclei in the hypothalamus produce vasopressin and oxytocin.

 

188. The most common site for metabolism of hormones is the ____________________.

 

189. ____________________ are released into the blood by neurosecretory neurons.

 

190. This releasing hormone, called ____________________, ultimately causes secretion of adrenocorticosteroids.

 

191. ____________________ consist of a chain of specific amino acids of varying length.

 

192. TRH controls the release of ____________________.

 

193. ____________________ are the bone cell types that dissolve bone.

 

194. The ____________________ is the cylindrical shaft of a long bone.

 

195. Melatonin is secreted by the ____________________.

 

196. ____________________ is the hormone that inhibits the effect of the growth hormone.

 

197. The ____________________ is the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system, due to its control over secretory activities of the ____________________ glands.

 

198. The two growth spurts of children are ____________________ and ____________________.

 

199. With ____________________, one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect.

 

200. The majority of hormones fall into the class of ______________________.

 

201. Most hormone secretion is regulated by some form of ____________________ feedback.

 

202. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of ____________________ in a structure.

 

203. The ____________________hormones are derived from tyrosine.

 

204. The posterior pituitary secretes ____________________ and ____________________.

 

 

Match the types of bone cells, labelled a. through c., with their descriptions.

a. osteocytes
b. osteoblasts
c. osteoclasts

 

205. form bone

 

206. entombed in bone

 

207. dissolve bone

 

208. stimulated by growth hormone

 

Match the hormones, labelled a. through d., with the characteristics.

a. steroids
b. catecholamines
c. peptides
d. thyroid hormone

 

209. synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum–Golgi complex system

 

210. synthesized by enzymatic modification of cholesterol

 

211. synthesized within colloid

 

212. once synthesized, actively transported into preformed vesicles for storage

 

Match the solubility characteristics, labelled a. and b., with the classes of hormones. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. lipophilic (hydrophobic)
b. hydrophilic (lipophobic)

 

213. steroids

 

214. thyroid hormone

 

215. peptides

 

216. catecholamines

 

Match posterior and anterior pituitary, labelled a. through c., with their features. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. applies to the posterior pituitary
b. applies to the anterior pituitary
c. applies to both the posterior and the anterior pituitary

 

217. composed of glandular tissue

 

218. composed of nervous tissue

 

219. also known as adenohypophysis

 

220. also known as neurohypophysis

 

221. secretes MSHs in humans

 

222. contains pituicytes

 

223. stores hormones synthesized by the hypothalamus

 

224. releases hormones into the general circulation

 

225. Its release of hormones is directly controlled by action potentials.

 

226. Its release of hormones is directly controlled by hypothalamic hypophysiotropic hormones.

 

227. neurally connected to the hypothalamus

 

228. connected to the hypothalamus by a vascular link

 

229. synthesizes the hormones it secretes

 

230. releases vasopressin and oxytocin into the blood

 

231. releases primarily tropic hormones into the blood

 

232. may be directly inhibited by negative feedback from its target organ

 

Match the hormones, labelled a. through f., with their activities. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. vasopressin
b. oxytocin
c. TSH
d. ACTH
e. growth hormone
f. GnRH

 

233. stimulates somatomedin secretion by the liver

 

234. enhances H2O retention by the kidneys

 

235. responsible for ovulation

 

236. stimulates cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex

 

237. stimulates testosterone secretion

 

238. exerts a pressor effect on arterioles

 

239. stimulates growth of ovarian follicles and development of eggs

 

240. stimulates uterine contractions

 

241. regulates overall body growth

 

242. stimulates both estrogen and progesterone secretion

 

243. stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone

 

Match the systems, labelled a. through c. with their characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. the endocrine system
b. the nervous system
c. both the endocrine and nervous systems

 

244. structural continuity in the system

 

245. stores hormones for secretion

 

246. has an influence on other major control system

 

247. secretes chemical messengers that affect target cells

 

248. Chemical messengers act at a long distance from their site of secretion.

 

249. Specificity is dependent on specificity of target-cell receptors.

 

250. controls activities that require longer duration rather than speed

 

251. Duration of action is brief (milliseconds).

 

252. Speed of response is long (minutes to days or longer).

 

253. Cerebral cortex can influence activities.

 

254. releases factors such as CRH

 

255. Pancreas has ductless cells that secrete.

 

 

256. Describe how the hypothalamus and pituitary interact to control many endocrine glands.

 

257. Compare and contrast the receptor and postreceptor events for lipophilic and hydrophilic hormones.

 

258. Describe circadian rhythms and the mechanisms thought to control them.

 

259. What are the various ways in which endocrine disorders can manifest themselves?

 

260. Describe the primary factors involved in growth.
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

1. The right ventricle pumps out blood low in oxygen content, whereas the left ventricle pumps out blood high in oxygen content.

a. True
b. False

 

2. The bundle of His and Purkinje system facilitate the rapid spread of the action potential throughout the ventricles.

a. True
b. False

 

3. Stroke volume can vary by alterations in both intrinsic and extrinsic control mechanisms.

a. True
b. False

 

4. The tricuspid prevents regurgitation of blood from the right ventricle back into the right atrium.

a. True
b. False

 

5. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases calcium permeability.

a. True
b. False

 

6. Atrial repolarization does not occur.

a. True
b. False

 

7. The heart valves are innervated by the autonomic nervous system.

a. True
b. False

 

8. The only point of electrical contact between the atria and the ventricles is the AV valve.

a. True
b. False

 

9. According to the Frank–Starling law of the heart, the greater the stroke volume, the smaller the subsequent end-diastolic volume will be, because as more blood is squeezed out, the heart cannot fill as completely during the next diastole.

a. True
b. False

 

10. When ECF K+ levels fall below normal, the heart becomes weak, flaccid, and dilated.

a. True
b. False

 

11. Parasympathetic stimulation slows the rate of depolarization of the SA node and thus decreases the heart rate.

a. True
b. False

 

12. The T wave represents the depolarization of the ventricles.

a. True
b. False

 

13. Angina pectoris develops from the abundance of oxygen of blood in the coronary circulation.

a. True
b. False

 

14. Atrial systole lasts throughout ventricular systole.

a. True
b. False

 

15. With 2:1 rhythm, the atrial rate is very rapid and the ventricular rate is normal or above normal, whereas with 2:1 block, the atrial rate is normal but the ventricular rate is below normal

a. True
b. False

 

16. The semilunar valves are positioned between the atria and ventricles.

a. True
b. False

 

17. Parasympathetic stimulation of the AV node increases the speed of transmission of the impulse through the AV node.

a. True
b. False

 

18. The AV valve controls the amount of blood entering the atrium from the venous system.

a. True
b. False

 

19. The end-diastolic volume is the maximum amount of blood in the ventricle after ventricular filling is complete.

a. True
b. False

 

20. Ventricular filling occurs more rapidly early in diastole than it does later in diastole.

a. True
b. False

 

21. The plateau phase of the action potential in a contractile cardiac muscle cell occurs as a result of activation of slow Ca2+ channels.

a. True
b. False

 

22. Most ventricular filling is accomplished during atrial contraction.

a. True
b. False

 

23. Ventricular ejection occurs once the afterload has been overcome.

a. True
b. False

 

24. The rate of appearance of the QRS and T waves is unaffected if the heart develops a complete heart block.

a. True
b. False

 

25. Gap junctions are absent between atrial and ventricular cells.

a. True
b. False

 

26. The stroke volume is the total volume of blood ejected by both ventricles per minute.

a. True
b. False

 

27. The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart.

a. True
b. False

 

28. Left-sided congestive heart failure can lead to pulmonary edema.

a. True
b. False

 

29. The heart is posterior to the sternum.

a. True
b. False

 

30. A pacemaker potential depends on the increased inward current of calcium ions.

a. True
b. False

 

31. Diastole refers to the period of cardiac relaxation.

a. True
b. False

 

32. The action potential impulse passes through the AV node between the P wave and QRS complex.

a. True
b. False

 

33. One important function of the intrinsic control of the heart (Frank–Starling law of the heart) is to maintain the left and right cardiac outputs in balance.

a. True
b. False

 

34. The second heart sound is due to closure of the AV valves.

a. True
b. False

 

35. HDLs have less protein than LDLs.

a. True
b. False

 

36. The ESV of the heart averages about 140 mL.

a. True
b. False

 

37. The first heart sound signals the onset of ventricular systole.

a. True
b. False

 

38. The functional syncytia of the myocardium are offered by the intercalated discs.

a. True
b. False

 

39. Sympathetic stimulation increases the heart rate.

a. True
b. False

 

40. The ECG is an actual recording of cardiac electrical activity.

a. True
b. False

 

41. Normally, the stroke volume of the right side of the heart is the same as the stroke volume of the left side of the heart.

a. True
b. False

 

42. Stroke volume is determined by the extent of venous return and parasympathetic activity.

a. True
b. False

 

43. The function of the chordae tendineae and papillary muscles is to hold the AV valves wide open during diastole to ensure complete ventricular filling.

a. True
b. False

 

44. Not all forms of LDL are equally harmful to the heart.

a. True
b. False

 

45. The cardiac output is the same as the cardiac reserve of the heart.

a. True
b. False

 

46. The AV and semilunar valves are never open at the same time.

a. True
b. False

 

47. Increased EDV results in decreased stroke volume.

a. True
b. False

 

48. According to the Frank–Starling law of the heart, the shorter the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction, the more forceful will be the subsequent contraction because the fibres are already partially contracted.

a. True
b. False

 

49. The EDV of the heart averages about 65 mL.

a. True
b. False

 

50. Cardiac muscle receives its blood supply primarily during ventricular systole when blood is being pumped out into the aorta.

a. True
b. False

 

51. The ventricles always depolarize at the same rate as the SA node depolarizes.

a. True
b. False

 

52. The semilunar valves close to prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles.

a. True
b. False

 

53. The long refractory period of cardiac muscle prevents tetanic contractions of the heart.

a. True
b. False

 

54. Hypertension decreases the afterload and increases the preload.

a. True
b. False

 

55. The action potential spreads through the atria by gap junctions, but there are no gap junctions present in the ventricles, so the impulse must be propagated throughout the ventricular myocardium by the bundle of His and Purkinje system.

a. True
b. False

 

56. The aortic valve prevents backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole.

a. True
b. False

 

57. Most blood flow through the coronary vessels occurs during ventricular systole when the heart is driving blood forward.

a. True
b. False

 

58. Cardiac tamponade refers to failure of the AV node to transmit the action potential from the atria to the ventricles.

a. True
b. False

 

59. Pacemaker activity by the Purkinje fibres is an example of an ectopic focus.

a. True
b. False

 

60. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart during each beat is known as the cardiac output.

a. True
b. False

 

61. The heart muscle receives its oxygen and nutrients directly from the blood within its chambers during ventricular diastole.

a. True
b. False

 

62. The pulmonary circulation carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the body tissues.

a. True
b. False

 

63. The extent of ventricular filling is the preload of the heart, whereas the magnitude of the arterial blood pressure is the afterload of the heart.

a. True
b. False

 

64. Complete heart block results from a damaged AV node.

a. True
b. False

 

65. The average resting heart rate is normally established by the rhythm of the AV node.

a. True
b. False

 

66. The heart utilizes glucose almost exclusively for energy production.

a. True
b. False

 

67. The refractory period in cardiac muscle is much shorter than the refractory period in skeletal muscle to ensure that the heart can quickly be restimulated to produce alternate periods of contraction and relaxation.

a. True
b. False

 

68. Contraction of the spirally arranged cardiac muscle fibres produces a wringing effect for efficient pumping.

a. True
b. False

 

69. The atria and the ventricles contract at the same time to ensure efficient pumping action.

a. True
b. False

 

70. Cardiac output is stroke volume times the heart rate.

a. True
b. False

 

71. Arteries carry blood toward the ventricles.

a. True
b. False

 

72. All of the blood within the ventricles is ejected during ventricular systole.

a. True
b. False

 

73. The heart undergoes tetanic contraction during sympathetic stimulation to squeeze out more blood.

a. True
b. False

 

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

74. Which of these statements correctly describes the AV nodal delay?

a. It ensures that the atria contract and empty their contents into the ventricles prior to ventricular systole.
b. It ensures that the ventricles contract prior to atrial systole.
c. It ensures that tetanic contraction of cardiac muscle is impossible.
d. It is shortened by parasympathetic stimulation.

 

75. Twelve complete ECG patterns are recorded from a subject over 10 seconds. If this pattern continues, what is the rate of the heartbeat in the subject?

a. 60 beats per minute
b. 72 beats per minute
c. 90 beats per minute
d. 108 beats per minute

 

76. Which of these criteria must be met for the heart to function efficiently?

a. Excitation and consequently contraction of the cardiac muscle fibres of each heart chamber should be coordinated to ensure efficient pumping.
b. The ventricles should be excited and contract before the onset of atrial contraction to ensure that ventricular filling is complete.
c. The right side of the heart should contract first to ensure that oxygenated blood is delivered to the heart before the left side contracts.
d. The fluid pressure in the pericardial cavity must be high for the heart to function efficiently

 

77. Which of these statements correctly describes extrasystole of the heart?

a. The heart beats too slowly.
b. The heart fills with too much blood.
c. The heart has a complete heart block.
d. The heart produces a premature beat.

 

78. Which of the following is the cranial nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system that signals the heart?

a. cardiac
b. coronary
c. trigeminal
d. vagus

 

79. Which structures join adjacent cardiac muscle cells end-to-end in the ventricles?

a. intercalated discs
b. sarcomeres
c. Purkinje fibres
d. sinoatrial nodes

 

80. The right half of the heart pumps blood through the pulmonary circuit. Through which circuit does the left half pump blood?

a. diastolic
b. pulmonary
c. systolic
d. systemic

 

81. Which of these molecule(s) induces vasodilation of coronary arteries?

a. oxygen
b. adenosine diphosphate
c. nitric oxide
d. carbon dioxide

 

82. Which cardiac valve prevents regurgitation of blood from the right ventricle to the atrium?

a. tricuspid
b. mitral
c. bicuspid
d. aortic

 

83. Which of the following correctly describes ectopic focus?

a. It is the place where an abnormally excitable area of the heart initiates a premature action potential.
b. It is the place where all the electrical impulses of the heart normally terminate.
c. It is the place where an ECG lead is attached on the outside of the chest.
d. It is the place where a heart valve is attached.

 

84. Which of the following is correct for the first heart sound?

a. It occurs when the AV valves open.
b. It occurs when the semilunar valves close.
c. It signals the end of ventricular systole.
d. It signals the onset of ventricular systole.

 

85. Which of the following is the function of the ventricular conduction system of the heart?

a. to spread the action potential throughout the large ventricular mass to ensure a single, coordinated contraction of the ventricles
b. to spread the action potential in the absence of sympathetic stimulation
c. to set the heart rate
d. to spread the action potential throughout the atria and ventricles

 

86. Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism that comes into play in order to maintain the cardiac output for the failing heart?

a. decreased myocardial contractility
b. increased vagal stimulation
c. increased sympathetic stimulation
d. peripheral vasodilation

 

87. What component of the cardiac conduction system distributes electrical signals through the papillary muscles directly?

a. AV nodes
b. AV bundle
c. bundle of His
d. Purkinje fibres

 

88. The parasympathetic nervous system has little effect on which of these types of activity?

a. atrial activity
b. AV node activity
c. SA node activity
d. ventricular muscle activity

 

89. Which of these events occurs at rapid heart rates?

a. The lengths of systole and diastole shorten equally.
b. The length of systole stays almost constant, but the length of diastole shortens considerably.
c. The length of systole increases at the expense of diastolic time shortening.
d. Diastolic time lengthens, and systolic time shortens.

 

90. Which of these actions happens during heart failure?

a. The Frank–Starling curve is shifted to the left.
b. Blood flows faster in the arterioles.
c. A compensatory decrease in sympathetic activity increases the relaxation of the heart to normal in the early stages of the disease.
d. The heart pumps out a smaller stroke volume than normal for a given end-diastolic volume.

 

91. Why is the sinoatrial node the heart’s normal pacemaker?

a. It has the fastest natural rate of autorhythmicity.
b. It has both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation.
c. It is under the control of AV node.
d. Activation of K+ channels occurs more rapidly in this region than elsewhere in the heart.

 

92. What is the membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells at rest?

a. –110 mV
b. –90 mV
c. –60 mV
d. –50 mV

 

93. Which of the following occurrences causes the dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve?

a. a disturbance set up during closure of the aortic valve
b. a disturbance set up during closure of the left atrioventricular valve
c. elastic recoil of the arterial walls during ventricular diastole
d. turbulent flow through a stenotic valve

 

94. Which vessel carries blood with a comparatively high concentration of oxygen?

a. chordae tendineae
b. inferior vena cava
c. pulmonary artery
d. pulmonary vein

 

95. What does the QRS complex represent?

a. depolarization of the atria
b. depolarization of the ventricles
c. the AV nodal delay
d. repolarization of the ventricles

 

96. Which of these terms refers to the term systole?

a. closure
b. conduction
c. contraction
d. opening

 

97. Which of these events happens in an insufficient AV valve?

a. The AV valve fails to open completely.
b. The AV valve produces a gurgling diastolic murmur.
c. The AV valve produces a gurgling systolic murmur.
d. The AV valve fails to close completely.

 

98. A patient has an EDV of 85 mL and an ESV of 35 mL with a heart rate of 50. What is this patient’s cardiac output?

a. 2500 mL/min, or 2.5 L/min
b. 3500 mL/min, or 3.5 L/min
c. 4500 mL/min, or 4.5 L/min
d. 6500 mL/min, or 6.5 L/min

 

99. Which of these statements correctly describes cardiac fibrillation?

a. backflow of blood throughout the heart
b. coordinated function of nodal cells
c. failure of the heart valves and blood vessels to function
d. uncoordinated excitation and contraction of cardiac cells

 

100. What is a metabolic predictor of heart disease that is independent of one’s cholesterol/lipid profile?

a. HDL
b. VLDL
c. homocysteine
d. methionine

 

101. Which of the following factors will NOT increase cardiac output?

a. increased venous return
b. increased parasympathetic stimulation
c. increased preload
d. increased heart rate

 

102. According to the text, why is the wall of the left ventricle thicker than the wall of the right ventricle?

a. The left ventricle must pump much more blood than the right ventricle, so it must have stronger walls.
b. The right ventricle must pump much more blood than the left ventricle, so it has a larger chamber to accommodate the blood and a correspondingly thinner wall.
c. The left ventricle must pump the same amount of blood into the high-resistance, high-pressure systemic system as does the right ventricle into the low-resistance, low-pressure pulmonary system.
d. The right ventricle must create higher tension within its walls.

 

103. Which of these functions is done by the aortic valve?

a. prevent the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole
b. prevent the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole
c. prevent the backflow of blood into the right ventricle during ventricular diastole
d. close when the first heart sound is heard

 

104. Which of these events is happening during the isovolumetric phase of ventricular systole?

a. The ventricles are relaxed isometrically.
b. The atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed.
c. Blood is being ejected into the great vessels.
d. Venous blood is flowing back to the heart.

 

105. Which heart chamber has the greatest workload?

a. right ventricle
b. left ventricle
c. left atrium
d. right atrium

 

106. Which of these statements correctly describes action potentials in the heart?

a. The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac autorhythmic cells is due to a rapid Ca2+ influx.
b. The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid K+ influx.
c. The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid Ca2+ influx.
d. The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid K+ influx.

 

107. On an electrocardiogram, what represents depolarization of the ventricles?

a. P wave
b. T wave
c. S wave
d. QRS complex

 

108. When does the aortic semilunar valve open?

a. when ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure
b. at the start of systole
c. at the maximum ventricular pressure
d. immediately after atrial contraction

 

109. The electrocardiogram is most useful in determining which component of cardiac output?

a. stroke volume
b. end-diastolic volume
c. ejection fraction
d. heart rate

 

110. Which of the following situations will NOT increase stroke volume?

a. increased end-diastolic volume
b. increased contractility of the heart
c. increased end-systolic volume
d. increased stretch of the cardiac muscle fibres during ventricular filling

 

111. What is the primary function of the pericardial sac?

a. to prevent excessive expansion of the heart as it fills with blood
b. to secrete a fluid that reduces friction as the heart beats
c. to serve as a reservoir for blood to be used during strenuous exercise
d. to provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle

 

112. What is the normal direction of the impulse through the conduction system of the heart for each cardiac cycle?

a. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres
b. AV node, bundle of His, SA node, Purkinje fibres
c. bundle of His, AV node, Purkinje fibres, SA node
d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibres

 

113. Which is the result of vagal influences on the heart?

a. enhanced potassium permeability at the SA node
b. enhanced calcium permeability at the SA node
c. more frequent depolarization of the SA node
d. stimulation of the heart by epinephrine

 

114. The second heart sound occurs when the semilunar valves close. What does this mark?

a. the start of the ejection period
b. the start of systole
c. the end of the ejection period
d. the start of isovolumetric contraction

 

115. Which of the following actions is done by the chordae tendineae?

a. keep the AV valves from closing during ventricular contraction
b. hold the AV valves open during diastole
c. hold the right and left ventricles together
d. transmit the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles

 

116. Which of the following events occurs due to sympathetic stimulation of the heart?

a. The heart rate decreases.
b. The contractile strength of the heart muscle increases.
c. The Frank–Starling curve shifts to the right.
d. Cardiac output decreases.

 

117. On a normal ECG, a wave for repolarization of the atria is not recorded. Why?

a. The leads are not placed in a position to pick it up.
b. No repolarization of the atria occurs normally.
c. It occurs simultaneously with ventricular depolarization and is masked by the QRS complex.
d. It does not travel through body fluids.

 

118. When does blood flow occur through the coronary circulation?

a. mainly during systole
b. mainly during diastole
c. almost equally during systole and diastole
d. only during ventricular isovolumetric contraction

 

119. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Frank–Starling law of the heart?

a. The shorter the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction, the more forceful will be the subsequent contraction because the fibres are already partially contracted.
b. Increasing the venous return increases the end-diastolic volume, which leads to an increased stroke volume, so the heart normally pumps out all the blood returned to it.
c. As cardiac output is reduced, blood pools in the vasculature so that arterial blood pressure increases.
d. The output of the left side of the heart must always exceed that of the right side of the heart because the right side pumps blood only to the lungs, whereas the left side must pump blood to the rest of the body.

 

120. If the EDV were held constant, what could accomplish increased stroke volume?

a. increased sympathetic nerve activity to the heart
b. increased parasympathetic nerve activity to the heart
c. decreased contractility
d. increased arterial blood pressure

 

121. Which of these statements correctly describes the systemic circulation?

a. It receives more blood than the pulmonary circulation.
b. It receives blood from the right ventricle.
c. It is a low-pressure system compared to the pulmonary circulation.
d. It is a high-pressure system compared to the pulmonary circulation.

 

122. If the cardiac output is 4800 mL/min and the heart rate is 60 beats per minute, what is the average stroke volume in millilitres?

a. 60 mL
b. 70 mL
c. 80 mL
d. 120 mL

 

123. Which of these statements correctly describes cardiac output?

a. the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle during each contraction or beat
b. the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute
c. stroke volume × SVR (systemic vascular resistance)
d. the volume of blood pumped by each atrium into ventricles

 

124. What percentage of ventricular filling is normally accomplished before atrial contraction begins?

a. 0%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 80%

 

125. What is the function of the atrioventricular node?

a. to excite the left and right atria
b. to control the heart rate
c. to prevent the atria and ventricles from contracting simultaneously
d. to repolarize the heart after systole

 

126. What happens during isovolumetric ventricular contraction?

a. The ventricles fill rapidly.
b. No blood enters or leaves the ventricles.
c. The maximum volume of blood is ejected.
d. The maximum rate of ejection occurs.

 

127. What is the term for the period lasting from closure of the AV valve to opening of the aortic valve?

a. isovolumetric ventricular contraction
b. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
c. the rapid ejection phase
d. the rapid filling phase

 

128. Which of the following normally carries out the fastest rate of autorhythmicity?

a. AV bundle
b. AV node
c. bundle of His
d. SA node

 

129. Which of these statements correctly applies to the cardiac muscle?

a. It extracts oxygen and nutrients from the blood within its chambers.
b. It receives its blood supply primarily during ventricular systole when blood is forced into the vessels supplying the heart.
c. It receives its blood supply as the blood returning to the heart from the lung passes through the cardiac circulation before being pumped to the systemic circulation.
d. It receives most of its blood supply during ventricular diastole by means of the coronary circulation.

 

130. Which of the following actions is done by the semilunar valves?

a. prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria
b. prevent backflow of blood from the atria to the ventricles
c. prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles to the arterial trunks
d. prevent backflow of blood from the arterial trunks to the ventricles

 

131. Which of these statements correctly describes the refractory period of cardiac muscle?

a. It lasts longer than the contraction period.
b. It is much longer than the refractory period in skeletal muscle.
c. It allows tetanic contraction of the heart to occur to ensure smooth, coordinated ejection of blood from the ventricles.
d. It lasts longer than the relaxation period.

 

132. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe cardiac muscle cells?

a. All of them contract in the heart or none of them contract.
b. They are capable of graded strength of contraction.
c. They are produced constantly after infancy.
d. They have an abundance of mitochondria.

 

133. Why the heart does not require the nervous system to initiate contraction events?

a. because it is parasympathetically innervated via cardiac nerve fibres
b. because it is parasympathetically innervated by vagus nerve fibres
c. because it is innervated by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system only
d. because it is innervated by cortical nerve fibres

 

134. Which of these is the low-resistance pathway that permits electrical activity to pass from cell to cell in myocardial tissue?

a. desmosome
b. septum
c. gap junction
d. T-tubule
2

 

135. A condition in which the heart is contracting in an uncontrolled, rapid, and irregular manner _______________

a. is probably heart block.
b. is probably fibrillation.
c. is probably tachycardia
d. is called bradycardia.

 

136. Which of the following occurs when an individual is sympathetically stimulated?

a. The SA node depolarizes more rapidly.
b. More ATP results in more sarcomere cross-bridge attachments.
c. Ventricles contract harder than atria.
d. The SA node repolarizes more slowly.

 

137. What rhythm characterizes atrial flutter as impulses pass from the AV node to the ventricles?

a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 3:4
d. 5:2

 

138. Which of these ECG waves represents ventricular repolarization?

a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. Ventricular repolarization occurs simultaneously with atrial depolarization and consequently cannot be recorded.

 

139. Which of the following describes blood returning from the lungs?

a. It enters the right atrium.
b. It enters the left atrium.
c. It is poorly oxygenated.
d. It enters the left ventricle.

 

140. What does a whistling murmur heard between the second and first heart sounds indicate?

a. a stenotic AV valve
b. an insufficient AV valve
c. a stenotic aortic or pulmonary semilunar valve
d. an insufficient aortic or pulmonary semilunar valve

 

141. Why can’t tetany of the heart occur under normal conditions?

a. There are no distinct motor units in the heart.
b. There is inadequate oxygen supply via the coronary circulation to metabolically support a sustained contraction.
c. The refractory period in cardiac muscle lasts almost as long as the duration of the resultant contraction.
d. The heart contracts with maximal force every beat so it is impossible to increase the strength of the cardiac contraction.

 

142. Which of these sequences is the normal sequence of the spread of cardiac excitation?

a. SA node, atria, AV node, bundle of His , Purkinje fibres, ventricular myocardium
b. Atria, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibres, bundle of His, ventricular myocardium
c. SA node, atria, AV node, Purkinje fibres, bundle of His, ventricular myocardium
d. AV node, SA node, Atria, Purkinje fibres, bundle of His, ventricular myocardium

 

143. Which of these events happens when the heart is sympathetically stimulated?

a. ESV increases.
b. Norepinephrine is released from neurons.
c. K2+ channels open in greater numbers.
d. Cardiac output decreases.

 

144. Which of the following actions produces the second heart sound?

a. opening of the AV valves
b. closing of the AV valves
c. opening of the semilunar valves
d. closing of the semilunar valves

 

145. When does electrical activity occur at the AV node?

a. during the P wave
b. between the P wave and the QRS complex
c. during the QRS complex
d. between the QRS complex and the T wave

 

146. If a mitral valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to open completely, what is this called?

a. mitral stenosis
b. complete heart block
c. myocardial ischemia
d. mitral incompetence

 

147. Which of these statements correctly describes the AV node?

a. It is the normal pacemaker of the heart.
b. It is the only electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles.
c. It rapidly conducts the impulse from the atria to the ventricles so that they contract simultaneously.
d. It is not innervated by the vagus.

 

148. Which of the following is the normal pacemaker of the heart?

a. SA node
b. AV node
c. bundle of His
d. Purkinje system

 

149. Which of these terms refers to the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction?

a. end-diastolic volume
b. end-systolic volume
c. stroke volume
d. cardiac output

 

150. Which of these nerves to the heart alters cardiac output by increasing heart rate and contractility?

a. motor
b. sensory
c. sympathetic
d. parasympathetic

 

151. Cardiac output is equal to which of the following?

a. the difference between the end-diastolic volume (EDV) and the end-systolic volume (ESV × HR)
b. the product of heart rate and EDV
c. the difference between the stroke volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise
d. the stroke volume less the end-systolic volume

 

152. If stroke volume is 80 mL and the heart rate is 70 beats per minute, what is the cardiac output?

a. 150 mL/min
b. 560 mL/min
c. 5600 mL/min
d. 8700 mL/min

 

153. Patients with diastolic heart failure would present with ____________________

a. failure of the ventricles to fill normally.
b. decreased cardiac contractility.
c. their heart pumping out more blood than it should with each contraction.
d. their heart muscle relaxing longer than it should with each contraction.

 

154. Which of these events will happen if the connection between the SA node and the AV node becomes blocked?

a. The ventricles will beat faster.
b. The stroke volume will increase.
c. The ventricular rate of contraction will not be affected.
d. The ventricles will contract more slowly.

 

155. Which of these statements describes why the heart valves open and close?

a. They are attached to the heart muscle.
b. There is turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles.
c. Na+ and K+ fluxes occur during ventricular depolarization.
d. There is a pressure difference on the two sides of the valve.

 

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

 

156. Compared to cardiac muscle tissue, skeletal muscle tissue has a(n) ____________________ duration for its refractory period.

 

157. An increase in the length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction ____________________ the stroke volume.

 

158. Ninety-nine percent of the cardiac fibres are specialized for ____________________ whereas the remainder are specialized for ____________________.

 

159. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the velocity of impulse conduction through the heart.

 

160. An increase in heart rate ____________________ the cardiac output.

 

161. An increase in the parasympathetic activity ____________________ the AV-nodal delay.

 

162. An increase in venous return ____________________ the end-diastolic volume.

 

163. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the rate of depolarization of the SA node.

 

164. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the stroke volume.

 

165. The ____________________ ensures that atrial excitation and contraction are complete before ventricular excitation and contraction commence.

 

166. A(n) ____________________ is a clot attached to the wall of a vessel.

 

167. An increase in stroke volume ____________________ the cardiac output.

 

168. ____________________ is the insufficient circulation of oxygenated blood to cardiac muscle in order to maintain its aerobic metabolism.

 

169. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the stroke volume.

 

170. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the permeability of the SA node to K ions.

 

171. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the rate of depolarization of the SA node.

 

172. During exercise, the cardiac output ____________________.

 

173. An increase in venous return ____________________ the stroke volume.

 

174. The ____________________ is the volume of blood in the ventricle when ejection is complete.

 

175. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the contractility of the ventricles.

 

176. Vitamins ____________________ and ____________________ have been shown to slow plaque deposition.

 

177. A swishy murmur heard between the second and first heart sounds is indicative of a(n) ____________________ (stenotic or insufficient) ____________________ (AV or semilunar) valve.

 

178. ____________________ carries cholesterol to cells, whereas ____________________ transports it away from cells.

 

179. The ____________________ is the volume of blood in the ventricle when filling is complete.

 

180. The ____________________ is the normal pacemaker of the heart.

 

181. The extent of myocardial infarction is dependent on ____________________ and ____________________.

 

182. The ____________________ is the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle/minute.

 

183. The ____________________ is the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle/beat.

 

184. An increased ESV ____________________ the stroke volume.

 

185. The ____________________ is the difference between cardiac output at rest and maximal CO.

 

186. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the atrial contractility.

 

187. An increase in the end-diastolic volume ____________________ the stroke volume.

 

188. The ____________________ extracts cholesterol from the blood and converts it into ____________________, which are secreted into the bile.

 

189. PAF is released from the ____________________ lining of vessels.

 

190. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the heart rate.

 

191. The condition in which the pericardial sac becomes distended with excess fluid to the point that it impinges upon cardiac filling is known as ____________________.

 

192. The ____________________ are the kinds of blood vessels that experience congestion for congestive heart failure.

 

 

Match the cardiovascular features, labelled a. through d., with their correct characteristic.

a. angina pectoris
b. embolus
c. atherosclerosis
d. thrombus

 

193. consists of abnormal smooth muscle cells, cholesterol deposits, scar tissue, and possible calcium deposits plaque

 

194. referred cardiac pain

 

195. freely floating clot

 

196. abnormal clot attached to a vessel wall

 

Match the effects with sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation (or neither) of the heart. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. effect caused by sympathetic stimulation
b. effect caused by parasympathetic stimulation
c. not brought about by either sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation

 

197. increases the heart rate

 

198. decreases the contractility of the atrial muscle

 

199. increases the AV nodal delay

 

200. decreases the rate of depolarization to threshold of the SA node

 

201. increases the contractility of the atrial and ventricular muscle

 

202. decreases the contractility of the ventricular muscle

 

Match the factor involved in the initiation and spread of cardiac excitation, labelled a. through d. with the description. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. SA node
b. AV node
c. bundle of His and Purkinje system
d. gap junction

 

203. has the fastest rate of pacemaker activity

 

204. allows the impulse to spread from cell to cell

 

205. delays conduction of the impulse

 

206. the only point of electrical contact between the atria and ventricles

 

207. the normal pacemaker of the heart

 

208. rapidly conducts the impulse down the ventricular septum and throughout much of the ventricular musculature

 

Match the EKG features, labelled a. through f., with their correct characteristic.

a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. PR interval
e. TP interval
f. ST segment

 

209. ventricular depolarization

 

210. time during which ventricles are contracting and emptying

 

211. atrial depolarization

 

212. time during which atria are repolarizing

 

213. time during which impulse is travelling through the AV node

 

214. time during which ventricles are filling

 

215. ventricular repolarization

 

Match the pressure relationships, labelled a. through e., with the times in question. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. aortic pressure > ventricular pressure > atrial pressure
b. ventricular pressure > aortic pressure > atrial pressure
c. aortic pressure > atrial pressure > ventricular pressure
d. ventricular pressure > atrial pressure > aortic pressure
e. atrial pressure > ventricular pressure > aortic pressure

 

216. during ventricular diastole

 

217. when the atrioventricular valve closes

 

218. during isovolumetric ventricular contraction

 

219. when the aortic valve opens

 

220. when ventricular ejection is occurring

 

221. when the aortic valve closes

 

222. during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

 

223. when the atrioventricular valve opens

 

Match the anatomical structures, labelled a. through e., with the heart characteristics. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. tricuspid valve
b. myocardium
c. aortic semilunar valve
d. AV node
e. sinoatrial node

 

224. contains Purkinje

 

225. its cells have slow Ca2+ channels

 

226. the ventricles’ left is much thicker

 

227. its fast Ca2+ channels help initiate

 

228. during systole, it is forced closed by papillary muscle action

 

229. overcomes the afterload of the circuits

 

230. its closing partially creates the heart sound “lub”

 

231. contraction of this generates blood pressure

 

232. electrically connects the atria to the ventricles

 

Match the terms, labelled a. through f., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. stroke volume
b. end-diastolic volume
c. cardiac output
d. heart rate
e. end-systolic volume
f. sympathetic activity

 

233. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle each minute is known as the _____.

 

234. The two main determinants of cardiac output are stroke volume and _____.

 

235. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle each beat is known as the _____.

 

236. The stroke volume may be calculated by end-diastolic volume minus _____.

 

237. The maximum volume of blood that the ventricle contains after filling is complete is the _____.

 

238. The minimum volume of blood that the ventricle contains after emptying is complete is the _____.

 

239. Stroke volume can be increased by increasing end-diastolic volume and _____.

 

240. The number of times the heart contracts each minute is the_____.

 

241. Heart rate can be increased by increasing _____.

 

Match the valve abnormalities, labelled a. and b., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. valvular stenosis
b. valvular insufficiency

 

242. produces a “gurgling” murmur

 

243. produces a “whistling” murmur

 

244. valve does not close completely

 

245. valve does not open completely

 

Match the ions, labelled a. through c., with the events being described. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. K+
b. Na+
c. Ca2+

 

246. Inactivation of _____ channels brings about the slow drift of membrane potential to threshold in the cardiac autorhythmic cells.

 

247. Explosive increase in membrane permeability to _____ brings about the rapidly rising phase of the action potential in contractile cardiac cells.

 

248. Slow inward diffusion of _____ is largely responsible for the plateau portion of the cardiac action potential.

 

249. The rapid falling phase of the cardiac action potential is brought about primarily by the outward diffusion of _____.

 

250. Changes in cytosolic _____ concentration bring about changes in the strength of cardiac contraction.

 

251. Parasympathetic stimulation increases the permeability of the SA node to _____, whereas sympathetic stimulation decreases the permeability to this same ion.

 

Match the term, labelled a. through g., with their correct characteristic.

a. gap junction
b. HDL
c. functional syncytium
d. heart valve
e. pericardial sac
f. LDL
g. adenosine

 

252. encircles the heart and secretes a lubricating fluid

 

253. carries cholesterol to cells

 

254. prevents backflow of blood

 

255. area of low electrical resistance that allows an action potential to spread from one cardiac cell to surrounding cells

 

256. muscle mass that becomes excited and contracts as a unit

 

257. induces coronary vasodilation

 

258. carries cholesterol away from cells

 

 

259. What is the proper sequence of blood flow through the circulatory system?

1. right atrium 6. pulmonary vein
2. left atrium 7. lungs
3. right ventricle 8. systemic tissues
4. left ventricle 9. aorta
5. pulmonary artery 10. venae cavae

 

260. Compare the magnitude of the items in question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all):
a. A is greater than B
b. B is greater than A
c. A and B are equalA. resistance and pressure in the pulmonary circulation
B. resistance and pressure in the systemic circulationA. volume of blood pumped out by the left side of the heart
B. volume of blood pumped out by the right side of the heart

A. spontaneous rate of depolarization in the SA node
B. spontaneous rate of depolarization in the ventricles

A. velocity of impulse through the bundle of His and Purkinje system
B. velocity of impulse conduction through the AV node

A. rate of depolarization of the SA node on parasympathetic stimulation
B. rate of depolarization of the SA node on sympathetic stimulation

A. duration of systole at resting heart rate
B. duration of systole at rapid heart rate during exercise

A. duration of diastole at resting heart rate
B. duration of diastole at rapid heart rate during exercise

A. rate of ventricular filling in early diastole
B. rate of ventricular filling in late diastole

A. stroke volume when end-diastolic volume equals 130 mL
B. stroke volume when end-diastolic volume equals 160 mL

A. normal stroke volume
B. stroke volume on sympathetic stimulation

A. volume of blood in the ventricles at the onset of isovolumetric ventricular contraction
B. volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of isovolumetric ventricular contraction

A. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the aortic valve opens
B. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the aortic valve closes

A. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the left AV valve opens
B. volume of blood in the left ventricle when the left AV valve closes

A. duration of the refractory period in cardiac muscle
B. duration of contraction in cardiac muscle

A. duration of the refractory period in cardiac muscle
B. duration of the refractory period in skeletal muscle

A. coronary blood flow during systole
B. coronary blood flow during diastole

 

261. Indicate the proper order of the events during the cardiac cycle by placing numbers in the blanks preceding the events in sequence. The first and last events are already indicated as a guide.

  1__ AV valve open; aortic valve closed; ventricular filling occurring
_____ blood ejected from the ventricle
_____ isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
_____ atrial contraction
_____ aortic valve opens
_____ SA node discharges
_____ ventricular filling complete
_____ ventricular relaxation begins
_____ aortic valve closes
_____ isovolumetric ventricular contraction
_____ ventricular contraction begins; AV valve closes
_12__ AV valve opens; ventricular filling occurs again; one cardiac cycle is complete

 

 

262. Describe the primary factors that influence cardiac output.

 

263. Compare and contrast intrinsic and extrinsic controls of cardiac activity.

 

264. Describe generation of pacemaker action potentials and the cardiac conduction pathway.

 

265. Describe the cardiac cycle.

 

266. Describe the mechanism of decompensated heart failure.

 

267. How does hypertension influence heart activity?
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

1. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centres are located in the cerebellum.

a. True
b. False

 

2. In the absence of pulmonary surfactant, smaller alveoli display a larger inward-directed pressure than do larger alveoli.

a. True
b. False

 

3. Administering O2 to patients with severe chronic lung disease will not depress their drive to breathe.

a. True
b. False

 

4. Newborn respiratory distress syndrome is caused by an excess of pulmonary surfactant.

a. True
b. False

 

5. The inspiratory and expiratory neurons both display pacemaker activity.

a. True
b. False

 

6. During hyperventilation, arterial PCO2 levels decrease because CO2 is blown off more rapidly than it is being produced in the tissues.

a. True
b. False

 

7. The 500 mL of air that is inspired is the same 500 mL of air that enters the alveoli during a single breath.

a. True
b. False

 

8. The peripheral chemoreceptors are not activated during carbon monoxide poisoning despite the fact that the total O2 content in the blood can become lethally low.

a. True
b. False

 

9. Increased acidity at the tissue cells stimulates increased dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

a. True
b. False

 

10. Exhaled air passes from the larynx through the trachea.

a. True
b. False

 

11. If there is a deficient supply of pulmonary surfactant, the lungs become more compliant.

a. True
b. False

 

12. Boyle’s law states that the pressure exerted by a gas varies directly with the volume of the gas.

a. True
b. False

 

13. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by Type II alveolar cells.

a. True
b. False

 

14. Systemic arterial PO2 is greater than tissue PO2.

a. True
b. False

 

15. The partial pressure of nitrogen in the atmosphere is greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere.

a. True
b. False

 

16. An increase in airway resistance and an increase in alveolar surface tension both increase the work of breathing.

a. True
b. False

 

17. Pulmonary surfactant decreases surface tension to a greater degree in large alveoli than in small alveoli.

a. True
b. False

 

18. The most important factor that determines the extent to which haemoglobin is saturated with oxygen is the blood PO2.

a. True
b. False

 

19. Arterial PO2 remains normal or may even increase slightly during exercise, despite the fact that O2 consumption by the tissues is greatly increased.

a. True
b. False

 

20. Slow, deep breathing is more effective for increasing alveolar ventilation than is rapid, shallow breathing.

a. True
b. False

 

21. The bronchioles are rigid, nonmuscular airways encircled by a series of cartilaginous rings.

a. True
b. False

 

22. Inspiration is always an active process.

a. True
b. False

 

23. Intrapleural pressure normally does not equilibrate with the intra-alveolar pressure.

a. True
b. False

 

24. Respiration is reflexively inhibited by alkalosis caused by a reduction in concentration of non-carbon dioxide–generated H+, the result of which is accumulation of H+-generating carbon dioxide to restore the acid–base balance toward normal.

a. True
b. False

 

25. Elastic recoil refers to the tendency of the chest wall to expand.

a. True
b. False

 

26. Pulmonary surfactant reduces the work of breathing and increases lung stability by increasing alveolar surface tension.

a. True
b. False

 

27. A slight decrease in arterial PO2 below normal is a more potent stimulus toward increasing respiration than is a slight increase in PCO2 above normal.

a. True
b. False

 

28. At the end of inspiration and at the end of expiration, intrapleural pressure is always equal to atmospheric pressure.

a. True
b. False

 

29. A molecule of nitrogen gas exerts more pressure than a molecule of oxygen gas because nitrogen gas is a larger molecule.

a. True
b. False

 

30. At the systemic capillaries, the PO2 is in the range of the steep portion of the O2–Hb curve.

a. True
b. False

 

31. The combination of Hb and CO2 is known as carbamino haemoglobin.

a. True
b. False

 

32. At a constant temperature, the pressure that a gas exerts depends on the volume that it occupies.

a. True
b. False

 

33. Gases are transported during external respiration by active transport mechanisms.

a. True
b. False

 

34. To produce a normal tidal volume, the expiratory muscles must be stimulated.

a. True
b. False

 

35. Intrapleural pressure is usually less than atmospheric pressure.

a. True
b. False

 

36. At the end of inspiration and at the end of expiration, intra-alveolar pressure is always equal to atmospheric pressure.

a. True
b. False

 

37. Alveolar PO2 is higher following inspiration than following expiration.

a. True
b. False

 

38. Respiration is accomplished entirely by the respiratory system.

a. True
b. False

 

39. The skeletal muscles for breathing are located in the walls of the lungs.

a. True
b. False

 

40. The alveoli are encircled by capillaries.

a. True
b. False

 

41. The tidal volume is the sum of the vital capacity, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume.

a. True
b. False

 

42. In the plateau region of the O2–Hb curve, a large decrease in PO2 results in a small decrease in Hb saturation, whereas in the steep portion of the curve, a small decrease in PO2 results in a large decrease in percent Hb saturation.

a. True
b. False

 

43. Deep and slow breaths usually result in the greatest alveolar ventilation rates.

a. True
b. False

 

44. The respiratory system provides a route for water and heat elimination.

a. True
b. False

 

45. A highly compliant lung is easier to stretch than a less compliant one.

a. True
b. False

 

46. Emphysema can be brought on by recurrent episodes of asthma and/or chronic bronchitis.

a. True
b. False

 

47. O2 levels are much more closely regulated than CO2 levels in the arterial blood.

a. True
b. False

 

48. If a person is breathing rapidly, it is safe to assume that he or she is getting adequate ventilation.

a. True
b. False

 

49. Both the respiratory system and the circulatory system are involved in the process of respiration.

a. True
b. False

 

50. Patients suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease generally have more trouble exhaling than inhaling.

a. True
b. False

 

51. The internal intercostal muscles are inspiratory muscles because they lift the ribs upward and outward to enlarge the thoracic cavity.

a. True
b. False

 

52. Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the formation of the oxyhaemoglobin.

a. True
b. False

 

53. The respiratory centre is located in the cerebral cortex.

a. True
b. False

 

54. Expiration is always a passive process.

a. True
b. False

 

55. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and release of epinephrine lead to an increase in airway resistance.

a. True
b. False

 

56. Air flow through the smaller bronchioles can be adjusted by varying the contractile activity of the smooth muscle within their walls.

a. True
b. False

 

57. During external respiration, the PCO2 is greater in the blood of the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli.

a. True
b. False

 

58. During external respiration, the PO2 is greater in the alveoli than in the blood of the pulmonary capillaries.

a. True
b. False

 

59. If the tidal volume is 500 mL and the anatomic dead space volume is 150 mL, only 350 mL of air enters the alveoli during inspiration.

a. True
b. False

 

60. The partial pressure of a gas in blood depends on the amount that is physically dissolved and not on the total content of the gas present in the blood.

a. True
b. False

 

61. Receptors in the CNS that detect changes in arterial PCO2 are actually sensitive to the H+ concentration of the brain extracellular fluid.

a. True
b. False

 

62. In the breathing cycle, the atmospheric pressure normally does not change.

a. True
b. False

 

63. All respiratory airways are held open by cartilaginous rings.

a. True
b. False

 

64. The most important factor controlling respiration is the PO2 of arterial blood.

a. True
b. False

 

65. The residual volume is the amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration.

a. True
b. False

 

66. Pneumothorax develops from the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli.

a. True
b. False

 

67. When the inspiratory neurons stop firing, the expiratory muscles contract.

a. True
b. False

 

68. Alveolar partial pressures do not fluctuate to any extent between inspiration and expiration.

a. True
b. False

 

69. The quantity of air that will flow into and out of the lungs depends solely on the radius of the respiratory airways.

a. True
b. False

 

70. Pulmonary surfactant increases alveolar surface tension and does not affect lung expansion.

a. True
b. False

 

71. O2 moves from the alveoli to the blood by active transport.

a. True
b. False

 

72. The primary factor believed to be responsible for stimulating the profound and abrupt increase in ventilation during exercise is increased arterial PCO2.

a. True
b. False

 

73. Pores of Kohn permit air flow between adjacent alveoli, a process known as collateral ventilation.

a. True
b. False

 

74. The pleural cavity normally is not in direct communication with the lungs or atmosphere.

a. True
b. False

 

75. The respiratory system is the only system involved with the exchange of gas between the cells of an organism and the external environment.

a. True
b. False

 

76. According to the law of LaPlace, the magnitude of the inward-directed collapsing pressure of a spherical bubble is directly proportional to both the surface tension and the radius of the bubble.

a. True
b. False

 

77. The quantity of O2 that will diffuse between the alveolar air and pulmonary blood depends solely on the partial pressure gradients that exist between the alveoli and the blood.

a. True
b. False

 

78. The respiratory airways filter, warm, and humidify incoming air.

a. True
b. False

 

79. Intrapleural pressure is negative to maintain lung inflation.

a. True
b. False

 

80. Systemic arterial PCO2 is less than tissue PCO2.

a. True
b. False

 

81. Alveolar collapse may occur when pulmonary surfactant secretion drops.

a. True
b. False

 

82. The intrapleural cavity is located inside the lungs.

a. True
b. False

 

83. The abdominal muscles are expiratory muscles.

a. True
b. False

 

84. O2 is much more soluble in blood than CO2 is.

a. True
b. False

 

85. For inspiration to occur, the intra-alveolar pressure must be lower than the atmospheric pressure.

a. True
b. False

 

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

86. Where does the pacemaker activity that establishes the rhythmicity of breathing reside?

a. lung tissue
b. respiratory muscles
c. dorsal respiratory group
d. phrenic nerve

 

87. Which one of these factors would reduce the alveolar ventilation rate the most?

a. increased alveolar dead space
b. decreased alveolar dead space
c. increased tidal volume
d. increased vital capacity

 

88. If the pulmonary ventilation rate is 3200 mL/minute, with a tidal volume of 400, what is the respiratory rate per minute?

a. 2.8 breaths per minute
b. 8 breaths per minute
c. 12.5 breaths per minute
d. 16 breaths per minute

 

89. Which of these factors will NOT result in lower oxygen saturation of haemoglobin?

a. an increase in PO2
b. an increase in temperature
c. an increase in PCO2
d. an increase in acidity

 

90. What is the term for the minimum volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration?

a. tidal volume
b. functional residual capacity
c. residual volume
d. vital capacity

 

91. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe alveoli?

a. Alveoli are the sites of gas exchange in the lungs.
b. Alveoli are very thin and are surrounded by a network of capillaries so that air and blood are separated by a very thin barrier.
c. Alveolar Type II cells secrete pulmonary surfactant.
d. Interdependence of alveoli refers to air flow between adjacent alveoli through the pores of Kohn.

 

92. What is the respiratory quotient?

a. the rate at which gases diffuse across the alveolar capillary membrane
b. the respiratory rate times the tidal volume
c. the ratio of O2 consumed to CO2 produced
d. the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed

 

93. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe haemoglobin?

a. It combines with oxygen at the lungs.
b. It contains iron.
c. It forms an irreversible association with oxygen.
d. It is located inside the red blood cell.

 

94. Which of these actions brings on normal expirations?

a. contraction of the external intercostals
b. contraction of the internal intercostals
c. contraction of the diaphragm
d. elastic recoil of stretched lung tissues and relaxation of inspiratory muscles

 

95. Which one of these conditions exists at high altitudes?

a. histotoxic hypoxia
b. hypocapnia
c. anaemic hypoxia
d. hypoxic hypoxia

 

96. Which of these statements correctly describes haemoglobin?

a. It combines preferentially with O2 over any other molecules.
b. When combined with carbon dioxide, it is known as oxyhaemoglobin.
c. It plays a critical role in determining the amount of O2 that is exchanged between alveoli and blood.
d. It combines preferentially with CO2 when partial pressure of O2 is high in arterial blood.

 

97. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe pulmonary surfactant?

a. It is secreted by Type I alveolar cells.
b. It decreases surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli.
c. It resists elastic recoil of the lungs.
d. It is a lipoprotein.

 

98. Which activity below is NOT a respiratory event?

a. Carbon dioxide is exchanged in the alveoli.
b. Gas exchange occurs between tissues and the blood.
c. Cells produce nitrogen by their metabolism.
d. Oxygen is exchanged in the alveoli.

 

99. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe the partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary veins?

a. It is about 100 mmHg.
b. It is equivalent to alveolar partial pressure.
c. It is the same as pulmonary arteries’ partial pressure.
d. It is highest in the pulmonary veins.

 

100. How is ventilation increased the most?

a. by a small increase in arterial PCO2
b. by a small decrease in arterial PCO2
c. by a small increase in arterial PO2
d. by a small decrease in arterial PO2

 

101. What is the primary form in which CO2 is transported in the blood?

a. physically dissolved
b. bound to haemoglobin
c. bound to plasma protein
d. as bicarbonate

 

102. If 20 percent of the air is composed of O2, what is the partial pressure of oxygen at sea level where atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg?

a. 20 mmHg
b. 70 mmHg
c. 152 mmHg
d. 760 mmHg

 

103. If the alveolar PO2 is 100 mmHg, what will be the PO2 of the blood leaving the pulmonary capillaries in a normal person?

a. 20 mmHg
b. 46 mmHg
c. 100 mmHg
d. 760 mmHg

 

104. Which of these statements does NOT indicate why a chloride shift occurs in red blood cells?

a. to prevent development of an electrical gradient
b. in response to bicarbonate movement into the plasma
c. to prevent an increase in blood pH

 

105. Which of these conditions would result in the lowest alveolar ventilation rate?

a. quiet breathing
b. a normal respiratory rate and normal tidal volume
c. a low respiratory rate and high tidal volume
d. a low respiratory rate and very low tidal volume

 

106. What is the term for the entire sequence of events involved in the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the body cells and the environment?

a. internal respiration
b. external respiration
c. ventilation
d. diffusion

 

107. Which one of these circumstances causes intrapleural pressure to exceed airway pressure?

a. normal quiet breathing
b. maximal forced expiration
c. pneumothorax
d. pleural effusion

 

108. Which of these skeletal muscles is innervated by the phrenic nerve?

a. rectus abdominis
b. diaphragm
c. external intercostal
d. sternocleidomastoid

 

109. Which of the following does NOT bring about increased airway resistance?

a. asthma
b. epinephrine and norepinephrine
c. slow-reactive substance of anaphylaxis
d. emphysema

 

110. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe carbonic anhydrase?

a. It is found in the red blood cells.
b. It catalyzes the formation of carbonic acid from carbonic dioxide and water.
c. It catalyzes the formation of oxyhaemoglobin from oxygen and reduced haemoglobin.
d. It accelerates the reaction of carbon dioxide and water.

 

111. Which of these statements correctly describes expiratory neurons?

a. They are found in both the DRG and the VRG.
b. They send impulses to the expiratory muscles during normal quiet breathing.
c. They are stimulated by the pneumotaxic centre.
d. They are stimulated by the inspiratory neurons, and in turn inhibit the inspiratory neurons.

 

112. A person has a tidal volume of 400 mL, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute, and an anatomic dead space volume of 150 mL. What is his alveolar ventilation rate?

a. 3500 mL/minute
b. 3920 mL/minute
c. 5450 mL/minute
d. 7700 mL/minute

 

113. During which of the following would intrapleural pressure be greater than atmospheric pressure?

a. forced inspiration
b. passive expiration
c. forced expiration
d. pneumothorax

 

114. What is the location of the brain region that provides output to the respiratory muscles?

a. pons
b. medulla
c. cerebral cortex
d. hypothalamus

 

115. Which of the following does NOT happen during inspiration?

a. Intra-alveolar pressure falls below atmospheric pressure.
b. The diaphragm contracts.
c. The internal intercostal muscles contract.
d. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases.

 

116. Which of the following does NOT occur when blood flow to an area of the lungs is reduced but the area receives normal air flow?

a. The concentration of CO2 in this area decreases.
b. The change in CO2 concentration causes the smooth muscles of the local airways to relax.
c. The change in CO2 concentration leads to increased resistance of local airways.
d. The change in O2 concentration leads to dilation of local blood vessels.

 

117. Which of the following does NOT happen during forceful expirations?

a. The accessory expiratory muscles contract.
b. The external intercostals contract.
c. The abdominal muscles contract.
d. The diaphragm contracts.

 

118. Which of these statements correctly describes residual volume?

a. It helps prevent lung collapse.
b. It is the normal volume of air inhaled.
c. It is the normal volume of air exhaled.
d. It is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired.

 

119. Which of these statements correctly describes the apneustic centre?

a. It is located in the medulla.
b. It stimulates the inspiratory neurons.
c. It inhibits inspiratory activity.
d. It is located in the midbrain.

 

120. Which of the following does NOT contribute to keeping the alveoli open?

a. alveolar surface tension
b. transmural pressure gradient
c. pulmonary surfactant
d. alveolar interdependence

 

121. What does pulmonary compliance refer to specifically?

a. effort required to stretch the lungs
b. elasticity of the lung tissue
c. energy requirements for an inspiration
d. surface area of the alveoli

 

122. Which of these factors will NOT make breathing more difficult?

a. increased pulmonary compliance
b. increased airway resistance
c. decreased elastic recoil
d. pleural effusion

 

123. Which of these values is the atmospheric PO2?

a. approximately 25 mmHg
b. approximately 120 mmHg
c. approximately 160 mmHg
d. approximately 220 mmHg

 

124. Which are the muscles controlling inhalation?

a. diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
b. internal and external intercostal muscles
c. diaphragm and abdominal muscles
d. diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

 

125. What factor in the arterial blood has the largest effect on increasing the rate of respiration?

a. The hydrogen ion concentration in the kidney ECF increases.
b. The partial pressure of oxygen generally drops to 90.
c. The partial pressure of carbon increases.
d. The hydrogen ion concentration in the ECF generally increases.

 

126. A person has a tidal volume of 400 mL/breath, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and an anatomic dead space volume of 120 mL. What is her pulmonary ventilation rate?

a. 3000 mL/minute
b. 3920 mL/minute
c. 4260 mL/minute
d. 5600 mL/minute

 

127. Which of the following does NOT happen when the diaphragm contracts?

a. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
b. Lung volume increases as the lungs are forced to expand.
c. The intra-alveolar pressure increases.
d. The intrathoracic pressure decreases.

 

128. Which of these conditions applies to alveolar PO2 at high altitudes?

a. PO2 is higher than normal.
b. PO2 is lower than normal.
c. PCO2 is higher than normal.
d. PCO2 is lower than normal.

 

129. Which of these statements correctly describes inspiratory neurons?

a. They activate the phrenic nerve, bringing about contraction of the diaphragm.
b. They are stimulated by stretch receptors.
c. They are inhibited by the expiratory neurons.

 

130. Approximately what percentage of oxygen is transported in the blood dissolved in free form?

a. 1.5 percent
b. 15 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 72 percent

 

131. Which statement is correct for Type I alveolar cells?

a. They form the wall of the alveoli.
b. They secrete pulmonary surfactant.
c. They contract during expiration to force air out of the alveoli.
d. They are responsible for surface tension.

 

132. What happens when intra-alveolar pressure becomes greater than atmospheric pressure?

a. Air flows out of the lungs.
b. Air flows into the lungs.
c. There is no air flow.
d. The lung collapses.

 

133. Which of these factors would reduce the amount of oxygen transferred across the respiratory membrane?

a. a higher partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere
b. an abnormally high partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
c. a reduced partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d. a low pulmonary capillary, partial pressure of oxygen

 

134. For which of these gases does haemoglobin have the greatest affinity?

a. carbon dioxide
b. oxygen
c. carbon monoxide
d. nitrogen

 

135. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe hypercapnia?

a. It refers to excess CO2 in the arterial blood.
b. It is seen with most pulmonary diseases.
c. It may be caused by hypoventilation.
d. It occurs when CO2 is blown off to the atmosphere at a rate faster than it is being produced by the tissues.

 

136. Which of these statements is correct when outward airflow has ceased at the end of a normal expiration?

a. Intra-alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric pressure.
b. Intra-alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.
c. Intra-alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure.
d. Intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

 

137. Approximately what percentage of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in dissolved form?

a. 1.5 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 60 percent

 

138. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe haemoglobin?

a. It plays a critical role in determining the total amount of O2 that is exchanged because it acts as a storage depot, removing dissolved O2 and thus keeping the PO2 low so that net diffusion is allowed to continue.
b. It combines only with O2.
c. It is found in erythrocytes.

 

139. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe PO2 in the blood?

a. It refers to the pressure exerted by the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
b. It is the most important factor determining the percent saturation of haemoglobin.
c. It is normal in carbon monoxide poisoning.
d. It is highest in the pulmonary vein.

 

140. Which one of these spirometry results would NOT be expected of a patient suffering from obstructive lung disease?

a. normal total lung capacity
b. increased functional residual capacity
c. decreased residual volume
d. decreased FEV1

 

141. In which of these ways is carbon dioxide NOT transported in the blood?

a. via bicarbonate ion
b. via carbonic acid
c. directly dissolved
d. as a gas

 

142. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe haemoglobin?

a. Its presence keeps the blood PO2 low and favours O2 movement into the blood, despite a very large transfer of O2, until haemoglobin is completely saturated.
b. It can combine with O2, CO2, H+, and CO.
c. It unloads less O2 in the presence of increased tissue acidity.

 

143. Which of these statements correctly describes the percent of haemoglobin saturation?

a. It decreases as PO2 increases.
b. It decreases as body temperature decreases.
c. It decreases as H+ decreases.
d. It decreases as PCO2 increases.

 

144. If 20 percent of the air is composed of O2, what is the partial pressure of oxygen at an altitude of 20000 feet where atmospheric pressure is 350 mmHg?

a. 20 mmHg
b. 70 mmHg
c. 152 mmHg
d. 760 mmHg

 

145. Which of the following does NOT occur during expiration when a person is breathing quietly?

a. The size of the thoracic cavity is reduced.
b. The intra-alveolar pressure becomes greater than the atmospheric pressure.
c. Air flows out of the lungs.
d. The expiratory muscles contract.

 

146. What is the location of the receptors that are stimulated by a large drop in the blood PO2 level?

a. respiratory centre of the brain
b. arterioles
c. tissue capillaries
d. carotid and aortic bodies

 

147. Which one of these situations occurs if the oxygen–haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right?

a. Partial pressure of oxygen is increased.
b. pH is decreased.
c. Temperature is decreased.
d. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is decreased.

 

148. Which structure serves as a common passageway for both the respiratory and the digestive systems?

a. nose
b. pharynx
c. trachea
d. esophagus

 

149. Where are the stretch receptors for the Breuer–Hering reflex located?

a. midbrain
b. elastic tissue of the lungs
c. medulla
d. smooth muscle layer of the airways

 

150. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe the peripheral chemoreceptors?

a. They are stimulated whenever the arterial PO2 falls below normal.
b. They are weakly stimulated by a rise in arterial PCO2.
c. They are stimulated by an increase in arterial H+, which plays an important role in acid–base balance.
d. They are located at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries and in the aortic arch.

 

151. Without pulmonary surfactant, which one of these actions would happen?

a. Small alveoli would tend to collapse.
b. Larger alveoli would tend to empty into smaller alveoli.
c. All alveoli would be easier to inflate.
d. The surface tension in the alveoli would be reduced.

 

152. Which one of these factors would decrease the diffusion of a gas across the alveolar/pulmonary capillary membrane?

a. an increase in thickness of the membrane
b. an increase in surface area of the membrane
c. an increase in the partial pressure gradient
d. the gas’s smaller molecular size

 

153. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe pulmonary surfactant?

a. It is secreted by Type II alveolar cells.
b. It is deficient in newborn respiratory distress syndrome.
c. It promotes elastic recoil of the lungs.
d. The cohesive force between a water molecule and an adjacent pulmonary surfactant molecule is much lower than the cohesive force between two adjacent water molecules.

 

154. Which type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by a breakdown of alveolar walls and collapse of the smaller airways?

a. asthma
b. chronic bronchitis
c. emphysema
d. bronchiectasis

 

155. Which of the following does NOT promote elastic recoil of the lungs?

a. elastic fibres in the lung
b. surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli
c. pulmonary surfactant
d. elastic fibres in the bronchiole

 

156. Which of these statements correctly describes the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)?

a. The DRG consists of both inspiratory neurons and expiratory neurons.
b. The neurons of the DRG remain inactive during normal quiet breathing.
c. The DRG is called into play by the VRG when the demand for ventilation is increased.
d. Inspiration takes place when DRG inspiratory neurons fire.

 

157. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate?

a. It is produced within red blood cells.
b. Its production is inhibited by HbO2.
c. Its concentration gradually decreases whenever Hb in the arterial blood is chronically undersaturated.
d. It affects the degree of binding of oxygen to haemoglobin.

 

158. Which of these statements correctly describes functional residual capacity?

a. It is the extra volume of air that can be actively expired.
b. It is the minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a maximal expiration.
c. It is the volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal passive respiration.
d. It is the volume of air entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath.

 

159. What is the primary regulator of the magnitude of ventilation in normal circumstances?

a. H+ concentration of the brain extracellular fluid, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors
b. PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors
c. PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by peripheral chemoreceptors
d. PCO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors

 

160. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe the plateau portion of the O2–Hb curve?

a. It is within the blood PO2 range that exists at the pulmonary capillaries.
b. It means that haemoglobin becomes almost nearly saturated in the lungs unless the pulmonary capillary PO2 falls below 60 mmHg.
c. It is within the blood PO2 range that exists at the systemic capillaries.
d. It is the range that exists at the pulmonary capillaries.

 

161. Which of these statements correctly describes vital capacity?

a. It is the volume normally entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath.
b. It is the minimum volume the lungs can hold.
c. It is the maximum volume the lungs can hold.
d. It is the maximum volume that can be moved in or out during a single breath.

 

162. Which of these factors would result in bronchoconstriction?

a. sympathetic stimulation
b. increased carbon dioxide concentration
c. epinephrine secretion
d. parasympathetic stimulation

 

163. What is the last step that produces an inspiration?

a. The atmospheric pressure becomes lower than the intrapleural pressure.
b. The diaphragm contracts.
c. The intercostal muscles contract.
d. The intra-alveolar pressure becomes lower than the atmospheric pressure.

 

164. Which of the following does NOT make breathing more difficult?

a. increased pulmonary compliance
b. increased airway resistance
c. decreased elastic recoil
d. decreased surfactant production

 

165. Which of these statements correctly describes intrapulmonary pressure?

a. It is the pressure within the air sacs of the lung.
b. It is always greater than atmospheric pressure.
c. It is always less than intrapleural pressure.
d. It is the pressure within the bronchi.

 

166. What does it mean to say that haemoglobin is fully saturated?

a. There is an oxygen molecule attached to each of the four heme groups.
b. Oxygen is attached to both the heme and the globin portions of the molecule.
c. The red blood cells contain as many haemoglobin molecules as possible.
d. Haemoglobin is carrying both oxygen and carbon dioxide simultaneously.

 

167. Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?

a. to transport O2 to the tissues
b. to contribute to maintenance of normal acid–base balance
c. to provide a route for heat and water elimination
d. to enable speech, singing, and other vocalization

 

168. Which of the following does NOT hold the lungs against the thoracic wall?

a. negative intrapleural pressure
b. negative intrapulmonary pressure
c. cohesiveness of the pleural fluids
d. positive intrapulmonary pressure

 

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

 

169. ____________________ refers to air in the pleural cavity.

 

170. The ____________________ serves as a common passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems.

 

171. As the resistance of the air passages increases, the airflow through them ____________________ if the pressure gradient remains constant.

 

172. The ____________________ is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal, quiet expiration.

 

173. The volume occupied by the conducting airways is known as the ____________________.

 

174. Contraction of the ____________________ muscles elevates the ribs.

 

175. When it relaxes, the diaphragm resumes an elevated, ____________________-shaped position.

 

176. ____________________ is inflammation of the pleural sac.

 

177. ____________________ is a respiratory disease characterized by collapse of the smaller airways and a breakdown of alveolar walls.

 

178. The apneustic and pneumotaxic centres are located in the ____________________.

 

179. A drop in the oxygen levels in arterial blood ____________________ the central chemoreceptors.

 

180. The respiratory quotient is the ratio of ____________________ to ____________________.

 

181. ____________________ refers to a ventilation rate that exceeds the metabolic needs of the body.

 

182. The ____________________ pressure is the pressure exerted by the weight of the air in the atmosphere.

 

183. The primary factor that determines the percent Hb saturation is the ____________________.

 

184. The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the external environment and tissue cells is known as ____________________.

 

185. The ____________________ effect refers to the reduced affinity of Hb for O2 in the presence of increased CO2 and H+.

 

186. ____________________ shifts into the red blood cells to maintain electric neutrality when HCO3 moves out of the cells down its concentration gradient.

 

187. If the concentration of carbon dioxide at sea level (760 mmHg) is 0.04 of 1.0 percent, the partial pressure of this gas is ____________________ mm of Hg.

 

188. The vocal folds are found in the ____________________, among the respiratory passages.

 

189. The peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the ____________________ and aortic bodies.

 

190. The ____________________ nerve supplies the diaphragm.

 

191. Pulmonary surfactant contributes to lung stability by ____________________ the surface tension.

 

192. The maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs in a single breath is known as the ____________________.

 

193. ___________________ is normally the most important input in regulating the magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions.

 

194. The ____________________ is a double-walled, closed sac that separates each lung from the thoracic wall and other surrounding structures.

 

195. A(n) ____________________ pressure across the chest wall influences lung movements.

 

196. ____________________ is the transient cessation of breathing.

 

197. The ____________________ serve as the conducting portion of the respiratory system, and the ____________________ are the gas-exchanging portion.

 

198. The most profound changes in thoracic volume can be accomplished by contraction of the ____________________.

 

199. If a person ascended a mountain where the atmospheric pressure was only 500 mmHg, assuming that the air consisted of 21 percent O2, what would the PO2 of the air be?

 

200. The primary respiratory control centre that provides output to the respiratory muscles is located in the ____________________.

 

201. The DRG consists mostly of ____________________ neurons.

 

202. The VRG consists of ____________________ and ____________________ neurons.

 

203. According to ____________________ law, at any constant temperature, the pressure of a gas varies inversely with the volume of the gas.

 

204. ____________________ refers to a collapsed lung.

 

205. The ____________________ effect refers to the increased affinity of Hb for CO2 and H+ after O2 unloading.

 

206. An increase of ____________________ ions in the arterial blood changes the respiratory rate by increasing it.

 

207. The alveolar wall is ____________________ [how many?] cell layer(s) thick. The wall of the pulmonary capillaries surrounding an alveolus is ____________________ cell [how many?] layer(s) thick.

 

208. If the vital capacity of a person is 4800 mL, while the TV is 500 mL and the ERV is 900 mL, the IRV is ____________________ mL.

 

209. The subjective sensation of not getting enough air is known as ____________________.

 

210. ____________________ refers to air flow between adjacent alveoli through the pores of Kohn.

 

211. Pulmonary ventilation is another name for the mechanical act of ____________________.

 

 

Match the physiological factors, labelled a. through e., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. arterial PO2 between 60 to 100 mmHg
b. arterial PO2 less than 60 mmHg
c. arterial PCO2 increased above normal
d. brain ECF H+ increased above normal
e. arterial H+ increased above normal

 

212. stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors

 

213. directly depresses the central chemoreceptors

 

214. weakly stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors

 

215. stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors as an emergency mechanism

 

216. directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors

 

217. represents the dominant control of ventilation

 

218. blood-borne factor that has no effect on the peripheral chemoreceptors

 

Match the types of hypoxia, labelled a. through d., with the circumstances. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. anaemic hypoxia
b. circulatory hypoxia
c. histotoxic hypoxia
d. hypoxic hypoxia

 

219. cyanide poisoning

 

220. high altitude

 

221. carbon monoxide poisoning

 

222. emphysema

 

223. haemoglobin deficiency

 

224. congestive heart failure

 

Match the lung volume/capacity terms, labelled a. through m., with the descriptions. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. vital capacity
b. respiratory rate
c. FEV1
d. tidal volume
e. residual volume
f. total lung capacity
g. functional residual capacity
h. alveolar ventilation
i. pulmonary ventilation
j. inspiratory reserve volume
k. expiratory reserve volume
l. inspiratory capacity
m. anatomic dead space volume

 

225. respiratory rate × (tidal volume – dead space volume)

 

226. maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold

 

227. volume of air entering or leaving the lungs in a single breath during quiet breathing

 

228. minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration

 

229. extra volume of air that can be maximally inspired over and above the tidal volume

 

230. amount of air breathed in and out in one minute

 

231. maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out during a single breath

 

232. volume of air that can be expired during the first second of expiration during determination of vital capacity

 

233. maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal expiration

 

234. inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume

 

235. vital capacity + residual volume

 

236. volume of air in the respiratory airways

 

237. extra volume of air that can be actively expired by contraction of expiratory muscles beyond that normally expired

 

238. respiratory rate × tidal volume

 

239. volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal passive expiration

 

240. amount of air that is available for exchange of gases with the blood per minute

 

241. breaths/minute

 

Match the effects on the rate of gas transfer, labelled a. through c., with the changes listed. (Options may be used more than once or not at all.)

a. This change would increase the rate of gas transfer.
b. This change would decrease the rate of gas transfer.
c. This change would have no effect on the rate of gas transfer.

 

242. the effect of pulmonary fibrosis on O2 and CO2 exchange within the lungs

 

243. the effect of emphysema on O2 and CO2 exchange within the lungs

 

244. the effect of a fall in atmospheric PO2 on O2 exchange within the lungs

 

245. the effect on O2 exchange in the lungs by replacing part of the nitrogen with helium so that the inspired air consists of 60 percent N, 19 percent He, and 21 percent O2

 

246. the effect of increased metabolism of a cell on O2 and CO2 exchange between the cell and blood

 

247. the effect of tissue oedema on O2 and CO2 exchange between the surrounding cells and blood

 

248. the effect of reduced systemic venous PO2 on O2 exchange within the lungs

 

 

249. How are respiratory events regulated?

 

250. Describe the mechanics of ventilation.

 

251. Describe how haemoglobin’s saturation behaviour varies.

 

252. What factors influence the amount of gas exchange occurring at the respiratory membrane?

 

253. In addition to providing for gas exchange, what are the other functions of the respiratory system?