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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
 
Learning And Memory From Brain To Behavior 2nd Edition by Mark A. Gluc -Test Bank
 
Sample  Questions

 

1. If “black” is said, it might make one think of the word “white.” The connection in one’s memory between these concepts is known as:
A) associationism.
B) dualism.
C) empiricism.
D) nativism.

 

 

2. Which theorist was considered an empiricist?
A) Plato
B) Charles Darwin
C) Francis Galton
D) Aristotle

 

 

3. If one believes that all babies are born with the potential to become great musicians, one would agree with the ideas of:
A) Plato.
B) Gottfried Leibniz.
C) John Locke.
D) Francis Galton.

 

 

4. Charles Darwin proposed three criteria for traits to evolve through natural selection. Which statement is an example of the criterion of relevance to survival?
A) Giraffe necks can range from short to long across members of the species.
B) Finch beaks range in shape from thin to thick.
C) Fawns with camouflaging spots will be protected from predators.
D) Neck length is a trait passed from giraffe parent to offspring.

 

 

5. In experimental psychology, the group that receives the treatment is referred to as the:
A) control group.
B) independent variable.
C) correlational group.
D) dependent variable.

 

 

6. In Ebbinghaus’s studies of memory, what was the dependent variable?
A) length of delay between learning and relearning
B) length of time it took to relearn a list
C) length of the list being learned
D) amount of practice done before being tested

 

 

7. One problem with Ebbinghaus’s studies was that:
A) he did not manipulate any variables.
B) he used a double-blind design.
C) he used a blind design.
D) there was a possibility of subject bias.

 

 

8. If experimenters play a very loud buzzer, a rat will be startled. If they repeatedly flash a light before the buzzer is played, the rat will eventually be startled by the light alone. This is an example of:
A) generalization.
B) classical conditioning.
C) the law of effect.
D) instrumental conditioning.

 

 

9. Which statement predicts the law of effect?
A) If a tone is played while the dog is given food, the dog will eventually salivate in response to the tone.
B) If a child is bitten by a large black dog, the child will start to fear all dogs, not just large black dogs.
C) If a teenager is grounded for staying out past his curfew, he will come home on time in the future.
D) If one can remember a list of words for a few hours after studying it, one will be less likely to forget the list later on.

 

 

10. Behaviorism places the GREATEST emphasis on:
A) interpersonal relationships.
B) unconscious emotions.
C) observable behavior.
D) mental processes.

 

 

11. In the movie Trading Places, a millionaire bets his brother that he can turn a beggar and thief into an upstanding citizen and turn a wealthy, moral man into a common criminal, just by altering the circumstances and environment of the two men. This view reflects the ideas of:
A) John Watson.
B) Charles Darwin.
C) Plato.
D) René Descartes.

 

 

12. Emily believes that babies learn language simply by being rewarded for making the correct language-like sound in response to something they hear. Her idea about learning language is MOST similar to the ideas of:
A) B. F. Skinner.
B) Edward Tolman.
C) Herbert Simon.
D) George Miller.

 

 

13. Edward Tolman’s research on the formation of cognitive maps in rats was important because it:
A) demonstrated that learning is based on stimulus–response association.
B) emphasized the importance of studying the role of internal representations in learning.
C) enabled him to devise a comprehensive mathematical model of animal learning.
D) demonstrated the importance of insight in learning.

 

 

14. George Miller demonstrated that short-term memory capacity for digits was:
A) between 10 and 20 digits.
B) virtually unlimited.
C) about 3 digits.
D) between 5 and 9 digits.

 

 

15. Who proposed the idea that learning relies on network connections between simple processing units?
A) Herbert Simon
B) W. K. Estes
C) Edward Tolman
D) David Rumelhart

 

1. If one stubs one’s toe, the painful sensation is carried to the brain by neurons in the:
A) occipital lobe.
B) frontal lobe.
C) central nervous system.
D) peripheral nervous system.

 

 

2. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for processing things that one hears?
A) frontal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) parietal

 

 

3. Comparative neuroanatomy refers to the examination of the similarities and differences among the:
A) brains of people of different ages.
B) cerebral hemispheres.
C) different lobes of the cerebral cortex.
D) brains of different organisms.

 

 

4. The ability of worms and jellyfish to learn is notable because they each have:
A) a CNS but not a PNS.
B) no recognizable brain.
C) no neurons.
D) very large brainstems.

 

 

5. Which part(s) of a neuron send(s) signals to other neurons?
A) dendrites
B) the cell body
C) the axon
D) glia

 

 

6. Phrenology involves:
A) scanning the brains of living humans using a magnetic field.
B) associating deficits in mental abilities with damage to specific brain regions.
C) associating bumps on the skull with abilities and personality traits.
D) examining which parts of the brain are damaged after a head injury.

 

 

7. A doctor is concerned that Martha has a dysfunction involving the axons of her brain. Which neuroimaging technique would BEST be able to detect this problem?
A) phrenology
B) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
C) computed tomography (CT) scan
D) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

 

 

8. Which behavior is reflexive?
A) a dog salivating in response to food
B) a student studying hard after receiving a poor grade
C) a pigeon pecking at a light to obtain food
D) a child saying “please” in order to get a cookie

 

 

9. The Bell-Magendie law:
A) applies to the brainstem but not to the spinal cord.
B) proposes one nerve system for sensing and another for responding.
C) applies to the central nervous system but not to the peripheral nervous system.
D) proposes that the brain is divided into two hemispheres.

 

 

10. When one recognizes a friend at a party, which brain area is the first to receive the information from one’s visual receptors?
A) the primary visual cortex (V1)
B) the primary sensory cortex
C) the thalamus
D) the frontal cortex

 

 

11. Suppose researchers train a pigeon to peck at a blue disc to obtain food. They then lesion a very small part of its brain and find that the pigeon has forgotten that it needs to peck the blue disc for food. Such a finding would be evidence for:
A) the theory of equipotentiality.
B) the Bell-Magendie law of neural specialization.
C) synaptic plasticity.
D) the engram.

 

 

12. In neuroimaging studies, researchers use a(n) _____ to determine how activity at each point in the image has changed relative to a baseline.
A) engram
B) event-related potential
C) lesion
D) difference image

 

 

13. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI):
A) directly measures neural activity.
B) usually picks up more areas of brain activation than does positron emission tomography (PET).
C) requires injecting radioactive materials into the participant’s bloodstream.
D) is faster than positron emission tomography (PET).

 

 

14. Which mechanism is NOT one by which drugs alter synaptic transmission?
A) increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
B) increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to receive neurotransmitter
C) decreasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
D) altering the mechanisms for clearing neurotransmitter from the synapse

 

 

15. Long-term potentiation:
A) was first observed in the thalamus.
B) occurs when the postsynaptic neuron is stimulated with a high-frequency burst.
C) can last for hours or even longer.
D) involves a weakening in synaptic transmission following recent activity.

 

 

1. Suppose a person never buys eggs because he doesn’t like them. One weekend, he has guests who love eggs, and so he decides to buy some at the store. Even though he has never bought eggs at this store, he knows exactly where they are in the store from all the times he has shopped there before. The fact that he has learned where the eggs are during those past trips is an example of:
A) sensitization.
B) habituation.
C) latent learning.
D) perceptual learning.

 

 

2. When Brenda and Don first got married, she was bothered by his snoring, but after 15 years of marriage she barely notices it anymore. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) priming.
D) dishabituation.

 

 

3. Sarah woke up from a frightening dream. Lying awake in bed, she is overly frightened by the normal noises in her house. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) priming.
D) dishabituation.

 

 

4. Under which condition would there be a skin-conductance response to reveal sensitization?
A) playing a quiet noise right before a neutral musical tone
B) playing a loud noise right before a neutral musical tone
C) playing a neutral musical tone repeatedly
D) playing a loud noise repeatedly

 

 

5. According to the dual process theory of learning:
A) there are two mechanisms, only one of which is activated at any given time.
B) there are two mechanisms, both of which are activated to some degree.
C) the habituation mechanism is only activated by intense stimuli.
D) there is just one mechanism that accounts for learning.

 

 

6. Over the first several weeks of teaching a class, the teacher becomes better at telling her students apart. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) perceptual learning.
D) priming.

 

 

7. People are generally better at distinguishing individuals belonging to racial groups that they frequently encounter than individuals belonging to racial groups with whom they don’t interact. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) priming.
C) mere exposure learning.
D) discrimination training.

 

 

8. Regarding spatial learning, it has been found that:
A) conscious effort is required for people to learn spatial layout.
B) rats can learn spatial layout even if they are not rewarded during learning.
C) wasps rely on an internal sense of direction, rather than environmental cues, to navigate to and from their nests.
D) rats learn to navigate mazes primarily by learning a sequence of movements.

 

 

9. In Aplysia touching the siphon causes the gill to withdraw. If the siphon is touched repeatedly, eventually the gill will not withdraw anymore. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) mere exposure learning.
D) learned non-use.

 

 

10. In Aplysia, sensitization results from a(n):
A) decrease in glutamate released from the sensory neurons.
B) increase in glutamate released from the sensory neurons.
C) decrease in the number of sensory neurons.
D) increase in the number of motor neurons.

 

 

11. When visual input is absent from birth, it is often seen that other cortical areas take over the areas of the brain normally devoted to vision. This demonstrates:
A) habituation.
B) perceptual learning.
C) learned non-use.
D) cortical plasticity.

 

 

12. Which statement is TRUE regarding place cells?
A) They are hardwired at birth.
B) There are sufficient numbers of neurons to assign a place cell to every place one will ever encounter.
C) They respond to an internal sense of location in space but not to external location cues.
D) They each have a preferred location called a place field.

 

 

13. Learned non-use occurs when a stroke patient stops using a body part because:
A) that body part being physically restrained.
B) of damage to the hippocampus.
C) of damage to the motor areas controlling that body part.
D) of lack of sensory input from that body part.

 

 

14. Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of constraint-induced movement therapy to treat learned non-use?
A) It exploits mechanisms of cortical plasticity.
B) It is less effective than encouraging people to use their affected limb.
C) It helps muscles to recover but has little effect on brain activity.
D) It is used when motor control is lost but sensation is retained.

 

 

15. An example of a sensory prosthesis is a:
A) cochlear implant.
B) place cell.
C) place field.
D) receptive field.

 

 

1. Every day when Isabelle returns home from work, her son gives her a big hug as soon as she walks through the front door. Now, the sight of the front door makes Isabelle feel happy. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is:
A) Isabelle’s son.
B) the front door.
C) a big hug.
D) Isabelle.

 

 

2. In eyeblink conditioning the puff of air is the:
A) CS.
B) US.
C) CR.
D) UR.

 

 

3. Suppose a child acquired a fear of the doctor’s office because the office came to be associated with getting shots. To remove this fear, the child’s parents decide to bring the child to the doctor’s office several times each week without the child getting a shot. What technique are the parents using to eliminate the child’s fear?
A) extinction
B) blocking
C) trace conditioning
D) latent inhibition

 

 

4. Because Carrie’s friend Emily often brings home-baked goodies when she visits, Carrie feels her mouth water at the sight of Emily. For one week Emily, brought her cousin Michelle with her whenever she visited Carrie. A few weeks later, Carrie bumped into Michelle at the store. In this scenario, blocking would be demonstrated if Carrie:
A) no longer feels her mouth water when she sees Emily.
B) still feels her mouth water when she sees Emily.
C) does not feel her mouth water when she sees Michelle at the store.
D) feels her mouth water when she sees Michelle at the store.

 

 

5. According to the Rescorla-Wagner model, an increase in the association between the CS and US occurs when:
A) the prediction error is zero.
B) an unexpected US follows a CS.
C) the prediction error is negative.
D) a predicted US follows a CS.

 

 

6. If a US occurs just as often without the tone as it does in the presence of the tone, then little or no conditioning will accrue to the tone. This would suggest that animals are sensitive to _____ of the potential CS and US.
A) causality
B) contingency
C) cue-outcome
D) frequency

 

 

7. A theory of learning in which all of the cues that occur during a trial and all of the changes that result are considered a single event is known as:
A) interstimulus interval.
B) trial-level model.
C) delay conditioning.
D) trace conditioning.

 

 

8. In trace conditioning, the:
A) CS begins before the US and ends before the onset of the US.
B) US begins before the CS and ends before the onset of the CS.
C) CS begins before the US and stays on until the US has occurred.
D) US begins before the CS and stays on until the CS has occurred.

 

 

9. In Garcia and Koelling’s taste-aversion studies, which was an unconditioned stimulus?
A) a tone
B) an unfamiliar taste
C) a shock
D) feeling sick

 

 

10. The US first activates which brain area?
A) inferior olive
B) pontine nuclei
C) cerebellar cortex
D) interpositus nucleus

 

 

11. Recordings of activity in the _____ during eyeblink conditioning in rabbits show activity that occurs _____ the response is made.
A) cerebellar cortex; a few milliseconds before
B) cerebellar cortex; at the same time as
C) interpositus nucleus; a few milliseconds before
D) interpositus nucleus; at the same time as

 

 

12. Removing the interpositus nucleus results in:
A) small, poorly timed conditioned responses.
B) complete loss of conditioned responses.
C) small, poorly timed unconditioned responses.
D) complete loss of unconditioned responses.

 

 

13. The hippocampus:
A) must be intact for normal eyeblink conditioning to occur.
B) is especially active during the early phases of classical conditioning.
C) is important in mediating response timing.
D) computes the degree to which the US is unexpected.

 

 

14. The mechanisms for classical conditioning in Aplysia involve _____ changes in the neural circuits that connect the _____.
A) presynaptic; CS and UR
B) postsynaptic; CS and UR
C) presynaptic and postsynaptic; CS and UR
D) presynaptic and postsynaptic; CS and CR

 

 

15. It has been suggested that drug addicts should use small amounts of their drug during therapy to extinguish their habit. This is because:
A) the addict will experience less withdrawal.
B) drug use is part of the context.
C) drug use has become a US.
D) the addict will experience fewer cravings.

 

 

1. According to the law of effect, Thorndike’s cats learned to escape the puzzle box because they:
A) learned the correct sequence of responses that led to a desirable outcome.
B) instinctively knew how to escape.
C) acquired an understanding of what they needed to do in order to escape.
D) learned the correct sequence of responses by watching other cats escape from similar boxes.

 

 

2. What is the main difference between classical and operant conditioning?
A) Operant conditioning shows extinction but classical conditioning does not.
B) Classical conditioning shows extinction but operant conditioning does not.
C) In operant conditioning, the outcome depends on the response, while, in classical conditioning, the outcome occurs, regardless of the response.
D) In classical conditioning, the outcome depends on the response, while, in operant conditioning, the outcome occurs, regardless of the response.

 

 

3. If a little boy can hear his mother moving around in the kitchen downstairs in the morning, he can be fairly certain that it is time to get up and have his breakfast. The discriminative stimulus in this example is the:
A) breakfast.
B) sounds of his mother moving around.
C) little boy.
D) kitchen.

 

 

4. Darren is trying to get his young son to eat his peas. At first, Darren praises him whenever he moves his fork near the peas; after the child does this reliably, Darren praises him only if he actually puts a pea on his fork; then Darren’s praise is only given when the child puts a pea on his fork and moves the fork toward his mouth. Darren carries on this way until the child eats his peas. Darren is using _____ to get his son to eat his peas.
A) the matching law
B) a token economy
C) shaping
D) chaining

 

 

5. Which is an example of a primary reinforcer?
A) money
B) praises
C) grades
D) food

 

 

6. Six-year-old Timmy was misbehaving in class one morning. Which punishment is likely to be the MOST effective in preventing Timmy from misbehaving again?
A) making Timmy stay after school
B) making Timmy sit in the corner
C) taking Timmy aside at lunchtime and asking him to stop misbehaving
D) giving Timmy a warning, and making the punishment more severe if he misbehaves again

 

 

7. Swatting a dog with a newspaper would be _____ of the behavior of chewing up one’s favorite socks.
A) positive reinforcement
B) positive punishment
C) negative reinforcement
D) negative punishment

 

 

8. If it rains, opening the umbrella keeps one from getting wet. Escaping from getting wet would be _____ of the behavior of opening the umbrella.
A) positive reinforcement
B) positive punishment
C) negative reinforcement
D) negative punishment

 

 

9. In which example would one MOST likely see a steady rate of responding without any noticeable pauses?
A) A charitable organization receives a donation for every 10 phone calls it makes on average.
B) A teenager receives an allowance every Saturday.
C) A college student gets a call from home every Friday morning.
D) A blueberry picker receives $1 each time he fills three boxes.

 

 

10. If one buys lottery tickets, one may win on average every 15 times one plays. This is an example of a _____ schedule of reinforcement.
A) fixed-ratio
B) fixed-interval
C) variable-ratio
D) variable-interval

 

 

11. According to the Premack principle, if a teenager would rather go shopping than clean her room:
A) her desire to clean her room will be increased by restricting her access to going shopping.
B) her desire to go shopping will be increased by restricting her access to cleaning her room.
C) allowing her to go shopping could be used as a reward for cleaning her room.
D) cleaning her room could be used as a reward for going shopping.

 

 

12. The dorsal striatum seems to be especially important for learning:
A) whether an outcome is pleasant or unpleasant.
B) the identity of an expected outcome.
C) R–O associations.
D) S–R associations.

 

 

13. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Only primary reinforcers trigger dopamine release in the ventral tegmental area/substantia nigra pars compacta.
B) Animals will continue to work for electrical brain stimulation if dopamine transmission is blocked.
C) Dopamine seems to be involved in liking, rather than wanting, a reinforcer.
D) A trained animal will reduce its response rate if dopamine transmission is blocked.

 

 

14. The major difference between an individual who uses cocaine weekly and tried to stop and can’t and an individual that skydives weekly and can’t stop is that:
A) they both have a bad habit and can’t stop it.
B) the first individual is experiencing a pathological addiction, while the second individual is experiencing a behavioral addiction.
C) both individuals are seeking a “high,” but the skydiver isn’t worried about becoming addicted.
D) There is no difference—both individuals are suffering from a type of dysfunction.

 

 

15. Malcolm’s 2-year-old daughter throws a tantrum when she doesn’t get what she wants. Malcolm has decided to ignore his daughter whenever she has a tantrum. This is an example of:
A) extinction.
B) distancing.
C) reinforcement of alternative behaviors.
D) delayed reinforcement.

 

1. Jasmine quickly learned that she needed to use different techniques to calm her second child than those that had worked with her first child. This is an example of:
A) generalization.
B) discrimination.
C) sensory preconditioning.
D) negative patterning.

 

 

2. As a child, Hunter had a favorite pet, a black furry cat that made him very happy. Based on the concept of a generalization gradient, which type of cat would be MOST likely to make Hunter happy now?
A) a dark gray cat
B) a yellow cat
C) a white cat
D) a calico cat

 

 

3. Discrete-component representations provide a good description of:
A) the generalization gradient.
B) how animals learn negative patterning.
C) learning about highly dissimilar stimuli.
D) configural learning in categorization.

 

 

4. A distributed representation is one in which:
A) stimuli are represented by overlapping pools of nodes or stimulus elements.
B) nodes or neurons responding to physically similar stimuli are near each other.
C) a unique node is used to represent each individual stimulus feature.
D) all of the nodes detect unique combinations of cues.

 

 

5. In a topographic representation:
A) each possible stimulus is represented by its own unique node.
B) stimuli are represented by overlapping pools of nodes.
C) neighboring cortical regions respond to similar stimuli.
D) weights are changed according to the Rescorla-Wagner rule.

 

 

6. The mediation of behavior through responses to cues in the world is known as:
A) stimulus sampling theory.
B) distributed representation.
C) discrimination learning.
D) stimulus control.

 

 

7. In the peak shift effect, discrimination training results in a maximum response to:
A) the nonrewarded stimulus.
B) the rewarded stimulus.
C) a stimulus value that is closer to the nonreinforced stimulus value.
D) a stimulus value that is far away from the nonreinforced stimulus value.

 

 

8. Sienna learned that many vegetables tend to be green in color. When she later learned in school that vegetables are healthy, she inferred that foods that are green are healthy. That she made this inference is an example of:
A) acquired equivalence.
B) sensory preconditioning.
C) discrimination training.
D) negative patterning.

 

 

9. Preston enjoys listening to piano music, and he enjoys listening to violin music, but he dislikes hearing both instruments played together in a duet. This is an example of:
A) discrimination training.
B) negative patterning.
C) sensory preconditioning.
D) acquired equivalence.

 

 

10. A detector for a unique configuration of two cues such as a certain tone and light is known as:
A) similarity-based generalization.
B) acquired equivalence.
C) negative patterning.
D) configural nodes.

 

 

11. To enable a network to accomplish negative patterning, one can:
A) use combinatorial explosion.
B) include consequential regions.
C) include shared elements.
D) use configural nodes.

 

 

12. The primary sensory cortices are involved in determining:
A) which stimuli deserve expanded cortical representation.
B) what consequence has occurred following a response.
C) what information has been received in other sensory modalities.
D) what type of behavioral response should be made to a stimulus.

 

 

13. Lesions to the hippocampus lead to:
A) impaired performance on sensory preconditioning tasks but not on acquired equivalence tasks.
B) impaired performance on acquired equivalence tasks but not on sensory preconditioning tasks.
C) impaired performance on both acquired equivalence and sensory preconditioning tasks.
D) normal performance on both acquired equivalence and sensory preconditioning tasks.

 

 

14. The hippocampal region seems to be important for:
A) learning a stimulus-response association.
B) determining what information is allowed to enter memory.
C) maintaining a topographic map of sensory stimuli.
D) encouraging cortical remapping to enhance the response to a stimulus.

 

 

15. If one tells a person with schizophrenia that both Julie and Stephanie like apples more than oranges, and Julie also likes carrots more than peppers, what would the patient have the MOST trouble with?
A) remembering that Julie prefers apples
B) remembering that Julie prefers carrots
C) inferring that Stephanie prefers carrots
D) inferring that Stephanie prefers peppers

 

 

1. Knowing that the speed limit on a highway is 65 kmph is an example of _____ memory.
A) nondeclarative
B) implicit
C) semantic
D) episodic

 

 

2. Remembering that one received a B in one’s last math test is an example of _____ memory.
A) nondeclarative
B) implicit
C) semantic
D) episodic

 

 

3. Declarative memory:
A) includes both semantic and episodic memory.
B) is the same as implicit memory.
C) is not consciously accessible.
D) includes semantic memory but not episodic memory.

 

 

4. Which statement is TRUE regarding episodic and semantic memory?
A) Semantic memory has autobiographical content, while episodic memory does not.
B) Episodic memory is acquired in a single exposure, while semantic memory usually requires multiple exposures.
C) Semantic memory is accessible to conscious recall, while episodic memory is not.
D) Episodic memory can be communicated in a format other than that in which it was acquired, while semantic memory cannot be communicated in a different format.

 

 

5. The finding that scrub jays can remember what type of food they stored in different locations as well as how long ago it was stored demonstrates that scrub jays may have _____ memory.
A) an episodic
B) a semantic
C) declarative
D) nondeclarative

 

 

6. Which statement is TRUE regarding the level of processing idea?
A) One remembers information better when one thinks about its meaning than when one focuses on more superficial characteristics.
B) It is clear how to determine whether information is processed deeply.
C) One remembers information best when it is presented multiple times.
D) There does not seem to be any difference in brain activity during “deep” versus “superficial” processing of information.

 

 

7. Which principle was demonstrated by Godden and Baddeley’s finding that divers remembered material best if they learned and were tested in the same environment?
A) interference
B) transfer-appropriate processing
C) consolidation
D) false memory

 

 

8. If one studies for a psychology test, then studies for a biology test, one’s memory for the biology material can make it harder to remember the psychology material. This is an example of:
A) false memory.
B) transfer-appropriate processing.
C) proactive interference.
D) retroactive interference.

 

 

9. The findings regarding the effect of electroconvulsive shock on memory have been used to support the idea that:
A) information is remembered best when it can be related to prior knowledge.
B) memory is best when the encoding and retrieval contexts are the same.
C) memories have a consolidation period.
D) memory is better when more cues are present.

 

 

10. Tanya remembers that her favorite celebrity is going to have twins, but she can’t recall where she heard this bit of gossip. This is an example of:
A) proactive interference.
B) retroactive interference.
C) source amnesia.
D) false memory.

 

 

11. Francis has no memory for what he did today, although he can remember his childhood well. Which type of amnesia is Francis suffering from?
A) source
B) infantile
C) anterograde
D) retrograde

 

 

12. Which brain area is involved in forming new episodic and semantic memories?
A) hippocampus
B) frontal cortex
C) diencephalon
D) basal forebrain

 

 

13. Which brain area is involved in determining which information has to be stored?
A) hippocampus
B) frontal cortex
C) diencephalon
D) basal forebrain

 

 

14. Damage to the diencephalon can lead to:
A) retrograde amnesia, but not anterograde amnesia.
B) difficulty determining what information to store.
C) anterograde amnesia and confabulation.
D) difficulty remembering one’s identity.

 

 

15. Transient global amnesia:
A) is one of the rarest forms of amnesia.
B) is psychological in nature.
C) usually lasts a few hours or days.
D) involves forgetting one’s identity.

 

 

1. Which action is an example of a cognitive skill?
A) running
B) tying one’s shoes
C) climbing a ladder
D) balancing a checkbook

 

 

2. An example of a closed skill is _____, and an example of an open skill is _____.
A) surfing; tying one’s shoes
B) tying one’s shoes; playing pat-a-cake
C) surfing; playing pat-a-cake
D) playing pat-a-cake; surfing

 

 

3. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Massed practice is more effective than spaced practice for long-term retention.
B) Constant practice is more effective than variable practice overall.
C) Massed practice requires less total practice time than spaced practice.
D) It is unclear whether constant practice or variable practice is more effective.

 

 

4. If one is driven from home to school, one may learn the route without consciously trying to do so. This is an example of:
A) massed practice.
B) implicit learning.
C) skill decay.
D) the power law of practice.

 

 

5. A person who is just learning to drive a car needs to listen carefully to all of the steps involved as his instructor is telling. Which stage of skill acquisition is the person in?
A) cognitive
B) associative
C) autonomous
D) expert

 

 

6. A person who has a very hard time learning to play the piano but, with practice, becomes a concert pianist:
A) has talent but is not an expert.
B) has talent and has become an expert.
C) does not have talent but has become an expert.
D) does not have talent and is not an expert.

 

 

7. Suppose a baby learns to eat using a spoon. According to the idea of transfer specificity, which action would the baby have the easiest time learning?
A) eating with a slightly larger spoon
B) eating with a fork
C) cutting her food with a knife
D) drinking from a cup

 

 

8. Which statement is TRUE regarding skill decay?
A) It can occur because of interference from newer skills.
B) It happens more for perceptual-motor skills than for cognitive skills.
C) It occurs at a fairly steady rate.
D) There is less decay if multiple skills are practiced on the same day.

 

 

9. The basal ganglia:
A) are especially important for performing skills that require precise timing.
B) are active when people learn cognitive skills.
C) send most of their output to the spinal cord.
D) are mainly involved in controlling complex actions.

 

 

10. Imagine a ballerina who has performed a particular ballet so many times that she doesn’t even need to think about the movements anymore. She has developed:
A) apraxia.
B) an open skill.
C) a motor program.
D) a talent.

 

 

11. Which statement is TRUE regarding the cerebral cortex?
A) Animals without much cerebral cortex cannot learn perceptual-motor tasks.
B) Practicing a perceptual-motor skill leads to increased cortical activity.
C) Practicing a skill leads to a decrease in the amount of cortical gray matter.
D) It is particularly important for tasks that involve tracking a target.

 

 

12. According to the power law of practice, performance during learning:
A) starts slowly and then rapidly improves.
B) improves rapidly at first and then slows down.
C) improves at a steady rate.
D) improves rapidly at first and then declines.

 

 

13. The cerebellum is:
A) important for learning motions that involve precise timing.
B) only present in a few species.
C) particularly important for linking sensory events to motor responses.
D) involved in performing skills but not in learning them by watching others perform them.

 

 

14. A procedure that delivers an electrical current into a patient’s brain through one or more implanted electrodes is known as:
A) transcranial therapy.
B) deep brain stimulation.
C) electroconvulsive therapy.
D) perceptual motor therapy.

 

 

15. Which treatment is used to alleviate tremors and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease?
A) electroconvulsive therapy
B) perceptual motor therapy
C) transcranial therapy
D) deep brain stimulation

 

 

1. Sensory memory:
A) lasts for several minutes.
B) uses rehearsal to maintain information.
C) decays rapidly.
D) lasts longer when a whole-report procedure is used.

 

 

2. In his studies of visual sensory memory, George Sperling found that participants could remember more items from an array if:
A) there was a 1-minute delay between presentation of the array and recall.
B) a tone was played at the very start of each trial to catch their attention.
C) after the array disappeared, a tone was played to indicate which row to recall.
D) they were instructed to recall all of the items, rather than just a specific row.

 

 

3. If one wants to retain a list of letters in one’s short-term memory, one should:
A) make sure there are no more than two or three letters on the list.
B) interrupt the rehearsal frequently.
C) try to group them so they form words.
D) use the partial-report technique.

 

 

4. In Baddeley’s working-memory model, the two short-term memory buffers are called the:
A) phonological loop and central executive.
B) visuospatial sketchpad and iconic memory.
C) iconic memory and short-term memory.
D) phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad.

 

 

5. The phonological loop can retain information for about how long?
A) 1/2 second
B) 2 seconds
C) 10 seconds
D) 2 minutes

 

 

6. Which component of working memory would be responsible for remembering the locations of objects?
A) the phonological loop
B) the visuospatial sketchpad
C) the iconic memory
D) the central executive

 

 

7. Suppose a young man is dating two different women. Which part of his working memory would be responsible for keeping track of when and where he has dated with each of them?
A) the phonological loop
B) the visuospatial sketchpad
C) the iconic memory
D) the central executive

 

 

8. Tina needs to stop at the store on her way to work one day. To go to the store, she has to remember to turn right out of her driveway instead of turning left like she normally would when she goes straight to work. The task her central executive is MOST concerned with in this example is:
A) controlled updating of short-term memory buffers.
B) setting goals.
C) task switching.
D) supervisory attentional system.

 

 

9. Which part of the brain seems to be critical for working memory and executive control?
A) the cerebellum
B) the thalamus
C) the prefrontal cortex
D) the hippocampus

 

 

10. Which action is NOT a problem for patients with frontal-lobe damage?
A) the N-back task
B) a digit-span task
C) planning and organizing
D) skill learning

 

 

11. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex seems to be involved in the functions of which component of working memory?
A) the central executive
B) the phonological loop
C) the visuospatial sketchpad
D) transient memory

 

 

12. Which part of the brain seems to be involved in encoding and retrieval?
A) the orbital prefrontal cortex
B) the medial prefrontal cortex
C) the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex
D) the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

 

 

13. Which task would activate the left-anterior ventrolateral prefrontal cortex?
A) deciding whether two words sound the same
B) rehearsing nonsense words
C) listening to backwards speech
D) deciding whether two words have the same meaning

 

 

14. In people with schizophrenia, the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is _____ and the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex is _____.
A) normal; dysfunctional
B) dysfunctional; normal
C) dysfunctional; dysfunctional
D) normal; normal

 

 

15. People with ADHD may have deficits in the _____ cortex, which is the region associated with _____.
A) right-prefrontal; verbal and semantic processing
B) left-prefrontal; verbal and semantic processing
C) right-prefrontal; spatial attention and working memory
D) left-prefrontal; spatial attention and working memory

 

 

1. The active maintenance and manipulation of short-term memory is known as:
A) cognitive control.
B) working memory.
C) sensory memory.
D) short-term memory.

 

 

2. Where does information automatically and rapidly decay?
A) short-term memory
B) working memory
C) long-term memory
D) sensory memory

 

 

3. Permanent or near permanent storage of memory that last beyond a period of conscious attention is known as:
A) sensory memory.
B) long-term memory.
C) cognitive control.
D) short-term memory.

 

 

4. The manipulation and application of working memory for planning, task switching, attention, stimulus selection, and the inhibition of inappropriate reflexive behaviors is known as:
A) sensory memory.
B) iconic memory.
C) cognitive control.
D) short-term memory.

 

 

5. In Atkinson and Shiffrin’s model of memory, information flows from:
A) sensory memory, to short-term memory, to long-term memory.
B) short-term memory, to sensory memory, to long-term memory.
C) long-term memory, to sensory memory, to short-term memory.
D) sensory memory, to long-term memory, to short-term memory.

 

 

6. Which type of memory is NOT considered to be a transient memory?
A) sensory
B) iconic
C) long-term
D) short-term

 

 

7. Which memory system stores brief sensations of what one has just perceived?
A) short-term memory
B) sensory memory
C) long-term memory
D) iconic memory

 

 

8. The initial temporary storage for information perceived by the visual system is known as _____ memory.
A) visual sensory
B) iconic.
C) transient
D) short-term

 

 

9. When George Sperling (1960) used the partial report procedure, he found that participants could report _____ of the letters in the array.
A) all
B) none
C) about 30 percent
D) about 75 percent

 

 

10. George Sperling’s (1960) experiments on visual sensory memory demonstrated that:
A) briefly presented information cannot be recalled.
B) iconic memory lasts for a very long time.
C) people could not learn to associate a tone with a visual stimulus.
D) people have a very brief visual memory that decays rapidly.

 

 

11. Which memory system maintains information temporarily using active rehearsal?
A) sensory memory
B) long-term memory
C) short-term memory
D) iconic memory

 

 

12. Suppose one’s roommate asks him to pick up five items at the grocery store, but he has no place to write the items down. He keeps repeating the items over and over in his mind until he can get a pencil and piece of paper to write them down. In this example, he would be relying primarily on his _____ memory.
A) sensory
B) long-term
C) short-term
D) iconic

 

 

13. Compared with long-term memory, short-term memory is:
A) slower to access.
B) forgotten more quickly.
C) larger in capacity.
D) outside of conscious awareness.

 

 

14. According to the findings of George Miller, the capacity of short-term memory is about _____ items.
A) three
B) seven
C) fifteen
D) five

 

 

15. The ability to hold information in short-term memory is limited by:
A) the capacity of STM.
B) what one can pay attention to.
C) how one encodes the information.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

16. When short-term memory is used as a buffer for maintaining information briefly before it is manipulated, it is referred to as _____ memory.
A) long-term
B) sensory
C) working
D) transient

 

 

17. How many independent short-term memory buffers are included in Baddeley’s working-memory model?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10

 

 

18. In Baddeley’s working memory model which system holds visual and spatial images for manipulation?
A) the visuospatial sketchpad
B) the phonological loop
C) the central executive
D) the iconic memory

 

 

19. In Baddeley’s working-memory model which system maintains auditory memories through subvocal rehearsal?
A) the visuospatial sketchpad
B) the phonological loop
C) the central executive
D) the iconic memory

 

 

20. In Baddeley’s working-memory model which system monitors and manipulates the working-memory buffers?
A) the visuospatial sketchpad
B) the phonological loop
C) the central executive
D) the iconic memory

 

 

21. Suppose one’s boss catches him in the hallway and asks him to attend a meeting the next day. In order to remember the time and location of the meeting, he repeats it over and over to himself until he gets back to his office and can write it down in his schedule. In his rehearsal, he is using the:
A) visuospatial sketchpad.
B) phonological loop.
C) long-term memory.
D) iconic memory.

 

 

22. Which statement is TRUE regarding the phonological loop?
A) If the material is rehearsed, it can be held in the phonological loop for about 2 seconds.
B) If the material is not rehearsed, it disappears from the phonological loop after about 2 seconds.
C) If the material is rehearsed, it can be held in the phonological loop for about 10 seconds.
D) If the material is not rehearsed, it disappears from the phonological loop after about 10 seconds.

 

 

23. On short-term verbal memory tasks, people with slow rates of speech but normal intelligence perform:
A) better than people of normal intelligence who speak at a normal rate.
B) worse than people of normal intelligence who speak at a normal rate.
C) about the same as people of normal intelligence who speak at a normal rate.
D) worse than people of normal intelligence who speak at a normal rate, but only if rehearsal is disrupted.

 

 

24. The word-length effect is when one can remember more _____ words than _____ words.
A) short; long
B) long; short
C) medium-length; short
D) long; medium-length

 

 

25. What does the word-length effect demonstrate about working memory?
A) The central executive is required for storing long words.
B) The visuospatial sketchpad is used when long words are remembered.
C) The phonological loop can only store short words.
D) The phonological loop holds verbal information for only a short time.

 

 

26. The children’s game Concentration involves finding pairs of cards that match by turning over two at a time, and replacing them if they do not match. The game requires memory for the locations of the cards. This game makes particular use of the:
A) visuospatial sketchpad.
B) phonological loop.
C) long-term memory.
D) sensory memory.

 

 

27. In Brooks’s task involving visualizing a block letter F, the participants who performed the worst were those who responded by:
A) saying “yes” or “no” out loud.
B) saying “yes” or “no” silently to themselves.
C) tapping their “yes” or “no” response with their fingers.
D) pointing to “yes” or “no” on a screen.

 

 

28. In Brooks’s task involving visualizing a block letter F, it was reasoned that:
A) remembering the F used the visuospatial sketchpad, while making the response used the phonological loop.
B) remembering the F used the phonological loop, while making the response used the visuospatial sketchpad.
C) remembering the F and making the response both used the phonological loop.
D) remembering the F and making the response both used the visuospatial sketchpad.

 

 

29. In the delayed nonmatch-to-sample task, the subjects must select the stimulus that is:
A) the same color and shape as the one they remember.
B) different from the one they remember.
C) the most similar to the one they remember.
D) the same size as the one they remember.

 

 

30. Which aspect of memory is often conceptualized as the mind’s active workplace?
A) transient
B) working
C) sensory
D) iconic

 

 

31. The metaphor of memory as a computer compares RAM with _____ memory and a hard drive with _____ memory.
A) long-term; working
B) working; long-term
C) sensory; iconic
D) short-term; long-term

 

 

32. Place models of memory are known as:
A) executive control.
B) cognitive control.
C) multi-store.
D) unitary-store.

 

 

33. State-based models of memory are known as:
A) executive control.
B) cognitive control.
C) multi-store.
D) unitary-store.

 

 

34. All of the functions of the central executive involve:
A) maintaining verbal information.
B) maintaining visuospatial information.
C) manipulation of information in sensory memory.
D) manipulation of information in short-term memory.

 

 

35. Suppose one is performing a 2-back test where the target is the number 9. What number would one have to report if presented with the sequence 2 8 5 4 7 9 1 6 3?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9

 

 

36. Larissa is visiting an amusement park. She moves from ride to ride skipping the ones with very long lines with the intent of returning later on. To make sure she gets on all the rides she wants to go on, she needs to keep track of which rides she’s already been on and which ones she hasn’t. The task her central executive is most concerned with in this example is:
A) controlled updating of short-term memory buffers.
B) setting goals and planning.
C) task switching.
D) stimulus selection and response inhibition.

 

 

37. Which task is used to study the controlled updating of working memory?
A) an N-back task
B) the Tower of Hanoi
C) the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
D) the Stroop task

 

 

38. The Tower of Hanoi puzzle is often used to examine the:
A) controlled updating of the memory buffers.
B) ability to plan and set goals.
C) ability to switch tasks.
D) ability to select stimuli and inhibit responses.

 

 

39. Charles must study for two exams and write a term paper. He needs to decide how to distribute his work during the day, including how much time to spend studying each subject, when to work on the term paper, how much he needs to accomplish before taking a break, and so forth. The task his central executive is MOST concerned with in this example is:
A) controlled updating of short-term memory buffers.
B) setting goals and planning.
C) task switching.
D) stimulus selection and response inhibition.

 

 

40. Which task is used to study task shifting in working memory?
A) an N-back task
B) the Tower of Hanoi
C) the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
D) the Stroop task

 

 

41. Jackie is trying to balance her checkbook while at the same time helping her son with his homework. She works on her checkbook when she can, while also watching for signals that her son has finished a particular assignment; then she can stop working on her checkbook for a moment and help her son. The task her central executive is MOST concerned with in this example is:
A) controlled updating of short-term memory buffers.
B) setting goals and planning.
C) stimulus selection and response inhibition.
D) task switching.

 

 

42. Which task is used to study stimulus selection and response inhibition in working memory?
A) an N-back task
B) the Tower of Hanoi
C) the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
D) the Stroop task

 

 

43. Rebecca takes a dance class in which the first exercise the class does is always the same. But one day, the dance instructor changed the first exercise. Out of habit, Rebecca persisted in doing the exercise she was used to, until she realized everyone else was doing something different. The task her central executive is MOST concerned with in this example is:
A) controlled updating of short-term memory buffers.
B) setting goals and planning.
C) task switching.
D) stimulus selection and response inhibition.

 

 

44. Automatic processes:
A) determine what cues should be attended to.
B) occur with minimal conscious awareness.
C) inhibit reflexive behaviors.
D) require focused attention.

 

 

45. The Stroop task demonstrates that:
A) working memory is enhanced when information is in conflict.
B) working memory is impaired when information is in conflict.
C) reading is an attentional process.
D) reading is an automatic process.

 

 

46. Which system modifies behavior when the automatic responses are inappropriate and inhibit automatic routines in favor of more appropriate behaviors?
A) supervisory attentional
B) stimulus selection
C) response inhibition
D) prioritization model

 

 

47. The research relating working memory to intelligence has shown that:
A) speed of processing is an important determinant of one’s score on an intelligence test.
B) general intelligence is associated with a strong working memory.
C) people with low scores on working memory tests tend to achieve high verbal SAT scores.
D) the ability to use the phonological loop is an important determinant of intelligence level.

 

 

48. Which area of the brain seems to play an especially important role in working memory?
A) the prefrontal cortex
B) the cerebellum
C) the sensory cortices
D) the basal ganglia

 

 

49. Cats and many other mammals get through life with a frontal lobe that occupies less than _____ percent of their cerebral cortex.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

 

 

50. One noted characteristic of frontal-lobe damage is:
A) loss of ability to plan and organize.
B) loss of conceptual understanding.
C) decrease in speed.
D) decrease in interconnections.

 

 

51. Wilder Penfield described the changes in his sister after she had a brain tumor removed. She went from being an accomplished cook to losing all ability to organize her cooking, moving from one dish to another leaving some uncooked. The removal of the tumor caused damage to what area of her brain?
A) the cerebellum
B) the frontal lobe
C) the occipital lobe
D) the parietal lobe

 

 

52. Elliot is a successful and happily married accountant who had always been viewed by others as reliable and responsible. He developed a large tumor that surgeons were able to remove. However, soon after the surgery, he divorced his wife, remarried and divorced again, lost touch with most of his friends and family, got involved in corrupt business deals, and was soon bankrupt. It’s logical to say that Elliot’s _____ was damaged by the tumor.
A) cerebellum
B) frontal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) parietal lobe

 

 

53. Which is a characteristic of someone with dysexecutive syndrome?
A) disrupted ability to think and plan
B) impaired language abilities
C) below-average intelligence scores
D) disrupted ability to remember facts and events

 

 

54. People with damage to the frontal lobes are impaired on:
A) the N-back task.
B) self-ordered tasks.
C) short-term memory for objects.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

55. The existence of perseveration in patients with frontal-lobe damage provides evidence for the involvement of executive-control processes in:
A) the updating of working memory.
B) setting goals and planning.
C) stimulus selection and response inhibition.
D) task switching.

 

 

56. Which part of the prefrontal cortex seems to be particularly involved in working memory functions?
A) orbital
B) medial
C) lateral
D) posterior

 

 

57. In a delayed-response task, Fuster found that monkey prefrontal neurons fired only:
A) when a particular object was initially displayed.
B) during a delay period when the monkey had to remember the location of an object.
C) during a delay period when the monkey had to remember an object but not its location.
D) after the monkey had chosen an object in the correct location.

 

 

58. In a task requiring monkeys to move their gaze to the former position of a visual cue, it was found that neurons in the prefrontal cortex fired during:
A) presentation of the visual cue.
B) the monkey’s response.
C) the delay between presentation of the cue and the response.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

59. Prefrontal neurons that fire during a delay period seem to encode:
A) the prior location of a target.
B) both the prior location of a target and the motor movements needed to make a response.
C) the identity of a target.
D) both the identity of a target and the motor movements needed to make a response.

 

 

60. In what way does the involvement of the prefrontal cortex during delays differ from the involvement of sensory and motor cortices?
A) Only neurons in the prefrontal cortex show sustained activity during delay periods.
B) Only neurons in the sensory and motor cortexes show sustained activity during delay periods.
C) Only neurons in the prefrontal cortex maintain their activity despite distractions.
D) Only neurons in the sensory and motor cortexes maintain their activity despite distractions.

 

 

61. Research suggests that phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad processes take place in the _____ prefrontal cortex, while central executive functions take place in the _____ prefrontal cortex.
A) ventrolateral; dorsolateral
B) dorsolateral; ventrolateral
C) orbital; ventrolateral
D) ventrolateral; orbital

 

 

62. Which working-memory process occurs in the right ventrolateral prefrontal cortex?
A) the central executive
B) the phonological loop
C) the visuospatial sketchpad
D) both the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad

 

 

63. Which memory task is likely to be the MOST difficult following damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex?
A) remembering the name of someone one recently met
B) recognizing one’s third grade teacher after many years
C) remembering to send a card on one’s mother’s birthday
D) remembering which friends one already invited to a party

 

 

64. The area of the brain that is active during rehearsal is the:
A) posterior parietal region.
B) occipital area.
C) ventrolateral prefrontal cortex.
D) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

 

 

65. The _____ is involved in manipulation of information, while the _____ is involved in maintenance/rehearsal of information.
A) ventrolateral PFC; dorsolateral PFC
B) dorsolateral PFC; ventrolateral PFC
C) dorsolateral PFC; posterior cortical areas
D) posterior cortical areas; ventrolateral PFC

 

 

66. The results of functional brain imaging studies suggest that the:
A) left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is specialized for processing verbal material.
B) right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is specialized for processing verbal material.
C) left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex has a dominant role in all monitoring processes.
D) right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is specialized for processing visual material.

 

 

67. Patients with damage to the _____ side of the frontal lobe are MOST likely to show specialized deficits in _____ tasks.
A) left; visuospatial
B) left; verbal
C) right; verbal
D) right; analytical

 

 

68. It is often easier to remember words if one can also picture them in their minds. This is because one is using one’s:
A) verbal memory store.
B) visuospatial memory store.
C) central executive.
D) verbal and visuospatial memory stores.

 

 

69. If one wants to use one’s working memory MOST effectively, one should:
A) try to multitask as much as possible.
B) keep one’s stress levels relatively high.
C) focus on one task at a time.
D) try to use just one’s verbal memory store.

 

 

70. The most abstract plans depend on the _____ areas of the frontal lobes, and the most concrete plans depend on the _____ areas of the frontal lobes.
A) posterior; lateral
B) anterior; posterior
C) lateral; anterior
D) posterior; anterior

 

 

71. If one is driving to a friend’s house, one’s specific goal of turning the steering wheel at a given moment is mainly relying on the _____ areas of the frontal lobes.
A) medial
B) anterior
C) lateral
D) posterior

 

 

72. Disruption of performance on domain-specific motor learning tasks is seen with damage to the _____ regions of the frontal lobes.
A) posterior
B) anterior
C) anterior and posterior
D) anterior and medial

 

 

73. Which statement is TRUE regarding goal abstraction in the frontal lobes?
A) Activation of the frontal lobes during abstract goal-directed tasks that proceeds from the posterior to the anterior regions.
B) Posterior regions are involved mainly in processing the most abstract goals.
C) Frontal lobe development throughout childhood proceeds from the posterior regions to the anterior regions.
D) Activation of the frontal lobes during highly-specific goal-directed tasks proceeds from the posterior to the anterior regions.

 

 

74. Which part of the brain is activated when a person tries to remember past events?
A) the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
B) the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex
C) the orbital prefrontal cortex
D) the medial prefrontal cortex

 

 

75. Which task is an example of one that would activate the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex?
A) rehearsing a phone number one just looked up
B) memorizing the definition of a new word by repeating it to oneself
C) remembering who told one about a major news event
D) remembering where one parked their car

 

 

76. The year is 2016 and one is listening to a newscast about September 11, and a friend is trying to remember who told him about the event since he wasn’t near a television to see it. What area of the brain would be activated as the friend attempts to remember?
A) the orbital prefrontal cortex
B) the medial prefrontal cortex
C) the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex
D) the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

 

 

77. When one consciously tries to remember a fact or event for later retrieval, one is storing the information:
A) executively.
B) iconically.
C) intentionally.
D) incidentally.

 

 

78. The _____ prefrontal cortex seems to be active during _____ encoding.
A) dorsolateral; incidental
B) dorsolateral; intentional
C) ventrolateral; incidental
D) ventrolateral; intentional

 

 

79. Functional imaging studies have shown that the _____ ventrolateral prefrontal cortex is activated during tasks that involve semantic processing, while the _____ ventrolateral prefrontal cortex is activated during tasks that involve phonological processing.
A) right posterior; left anterior
B) left anterior; right posterior
C) left posterior; left anterior
D) left anterior; left posterior

 

 

80. Which statement suggests that the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is dysfunctional in people with schizophrenia?
A) People with schizophrenia are impaired on phonological memory tasks.
B) People with schizophrenia show increased blood flow to this area when they perform the Wisconsin Card Sort task.
C) People with schizophrenia display disturbance in both cognition and memory.
D) People with schizophrenia are impaired on tasks requiring memory for a small number of items after a short delay.

 

 

81. During working-memory tasks, schizophrenic patients seem to:
A) recruit the ventrolateral PFC to compensate for a dysfunctional dorsolateral PFC.
B) recruit the dorsolateral PFC to compensate for a dysfunctional ventrolateral PFC.
C) use the ventrolateral PFC less than normal.
D) use all parts of the PFC less than normal.

 

 

82. A neuromodulator that alters neuron-to-neuron communication is known as:
A) serotonin.
B) dopamine.
C) epinephrine.
D) glutamic acid.

 

 

83. Deficits in working memory in people with schizophrenia may be caused by a(n) _____ in the prefrontal cortex.
A) increased amount of dopamine
B) lack of sufficient dopamine
C) lack of dopamine receptors
D) inactive dopamine receptor

 

 

84. An individual suffering from _____ would exhibit deficits in his/her working memory due to insufficient levels of dopamine.
A) ADHD
B) anxiety
C) depression
D) schizophrenia

 

 

85. Brain imaging studies show that people with _____ copies of the COMT allele show _____ prefrontal cortex activity during a 2-back task.
A) one or two; lower
B) one or two; higher
C) zero; lower
D) zero, one, or two; equal amounts of

 

 

86. Which psychiatric problem is one of the most commonly diagnosed in children?
A) depression
B) anxiety
C) schizophrenia
D) ADHD

 

 

87. Neuroimaging studies of children with ADHD have shown that these children have a(n) _____prefrontal cortex region.
A) enlarged right
B) enlarged left
C) smaller right
D) smaller left

 

 

88. Medications for ADHD work by:
A) decreasing the amount of glutamate.
B) increasing the amount of glutamate.
C) decreasing the amount of dopamine.
D) increasing the amount of dopamine.

 

 

89. It has been suggested that, in ADHD, the basal ganglia:
A) send inappropriate signals to the prefrontal cortex.
B) do not seem to communicate with the prefrontal cortex at all.
C) suppress genes that normally regulate attention.
D) do not send enough information to the cerebellum.

 

 

90. If an individual’s basal ganglia are sending inappropriate signals to the prefrontal cortex, the individual is probably suffering from what disorder?
A) depression
B) ADHD
C) schizophrenia
D) anxiety

 

 

1. Which statement is an example of social learning?
A) A chimpanzee copies the hand motions made by its trainer.
B) A cat learns through trial and error to escape from a puzzle box.
C) A rat learns the correct route through a maze by being rewarded with food on reaching the end.
D) A dog learns to salivate in response to a bell after the bell is repeatedly followed by food.

 

 

2. _____ is defined as learning from others and often used as a synonym for observational learning.
A) Social learning
B) Emulation
C) Social conformity
D) True imitation

 

 

3. A process in which the learner actively monitors events and then chooses later actions based on those observation is known as:
A) true imitation.
B) observational learning.
C) cognitive learning.
D) social conformity.

 

 

4. In observational learning, it is difficult to predict what an organism will learn because:
A) learning occurs during copying but not during observation.
B) it is not always possible to determine what the organism perceives from the model.
C) the behavior can often be explained by instrumental conditioning rather than by observational learning.
D) it is hard to determine whether feedback is being provided to the observer.

 

 

5. _____ is the act of doing what one observes another organism doing.
A) Simulation
B) Emulation
C) Copying
D) Perspective taking

 

 

6. Why does social learning differ from most other forms of learning?
A) Most learning occurs individually.
B) It relies heavily on an individual’s personality.
C) It is not always possible to determine what an organism is perceiving.
D) Not all species can learn by reproducing what they observe.

 

 

7. When children imitate acts that reveal what they have learned from watching someone demonstrate an action, this demonstration is called:
A) emulation.
B) true imitation.
C) copying.
D) modeling.

 

 

8. A theory of human behavior that proposed that the kinds of reinforcement an individual has experienced in past social contexts will determine how that individual will act in a given situation is known as _____ theory.
A) social-learning
B) two-action
C) stimulus matching
D) mind-blindness

 

 

9. In Bandura’s Bobo doll study, it was found that:
A) aggressive behavior transferred to other contexts.
B) for girls, aggression was more common when they observed a female model than a male model.
C) only the children who were first provoked showed aggression toward the Bobo doll.
D) the attack styles of the children who behaved aggressively were different from the attack styles of the models they observed.

 

 

10. In Bandura’s Bobo doll study, Bandura believed that the children were learning the aggressive acts:
A) after being rewarded for their behavior.
B) when they were imitating the model.
C) while they were observing the model.
D) right before they observed the model.

 

 

11. In the basic process to explain how people copy, which step takes into consideration the actions of others as cues that act as a magnet for attention?
A) presence of a model
B) accessible format
C) ability to reproduce the action
D) motivation for reproducing

 

 

12. In the basic process to explain how people copy, it is very important that what is being observed is encoded correctly so that it can be accessible and reproduced at a later time. This step in the process is known as:
A) presence of a model.
B) accessible format.
C) ability to reproduce the action.
D) motivation for reproducing.

 

 

13. One might remember very well what it looks like when one drives, but unless one get into a car, one won’t be able to imitate this action. Bandura referred to this step in the process of copying as:
A) presence of a model.
B) accessible format.
C) ability to reproduce the action.
D) motivation for reproducing.

 

 

14. One of the most important elements in copying a behavior is having a reason to repeat the observed action. Bandura referred to this as:
A) presence of a model.
B) accessible format.
C) ability to reproduce the action.
D) motivation for reproducing.

 

 

15. Bandura listed four basic steps to explain people copying what they see. The four steps are:
A) presence of a model, accessible format, ability to reproduce the action, and motivation for reproducing the action.
B) accessible format, presence of a model, ability to reproduce the action, and motivation for reproducing the action.
C) accessible format, presence of a model, motivation for reproducing the action, and ability to reproduce the action.
D) motivation for reproducing the action, ability to reproduce the action, presence of a model, and accessible format.

 

 

16. Maxwell is excited to see that a graduate from his high school works at a digital company designing games. He selects computer programing and engineering as his major at college, hoping to enjoy the same excitement when he succeeds. This example illustrates that individuals are likely to copy models when:
A) the model is present.
B) the model’s actions are remembered.
C) they have a chance to copy the behavior.
D) the outcome they observe is a positive one.

 

 

17. Copying that involves reproducing motor acts is called:
A) true imitation.
B) emulation.
C) social conformity.
D) perspective taking.

 

 

18. One-year-old Callie observed her mother eating green beans by poking them with a fork and bringing them to her mouth. Callie picked up a fork, used her fingers to balance some beans on the fork, and brought them to her mouth. This is an example of:
A) perspective taking.
B) stimulus matching.
C) emulation.
D) true imitation.

 

 

19. Payton observed his father raking up leaves in the front yard. Payton proceeded to get a rake and raked up leaves just like his father did. This is an example of:
A) perspective taking.
B) stimulus matching.
C) emulation.
D) true imitation.

 

 

20. The two-action test involves training two animals to perform:
A) the same action, leading to the same outcome.
B) two different actions, leading to two different outcomes.
C) the same action, leading to two different outcomes.
D) two different actions, leading to the same outcome.

 

 

21. Which statement is an example of a task that would be required in a two-action test?
A) A pigeon has to first turn in a circle and then peck at a light to obtain access to food.
B) Two pigeons have to peck at the same light for either of them to obtain access to food.
C) Two dolphins are taught to swim to a trainer for a fish reward, one by swimming through a tunnel and the other by swimming in a wiggly path.
D) Two apes are trained to retrieve a toy using a stick. One is rewarded with a banana, and the other is rewarded with an orange.

 

 

22. Studies of copying in humans and chimpanzees have shown that _____ copy the details of actions modeled by an adult human.
A) chimpanzees and human children
B) chimpanzees but not human children
C) human children but not chimpanzees
D) neither human children nor chimpanzees

 

 

23. When chimpanzees were trained to copy a behavior whenever a researcher said, “Do this!” the chimpanzees could:
A) only copy behaviors with which they were already familiar.
B) copy one or two new behaviors.
C) copy many new behaviors.
D) not copy any behaviors.

 

 

24. Perspective taking is an ability:
A) that requires visual acknowledgement of the situation.
B) that depends on the individual’s observation of the event.
C) that occurs only for relatively complex behaviors.
D) to imagine oneself in the place of another.

 

 

25. Perspective taking is an ability that:
A) requires visual feedback.
B) occurs in most mammals and birds.
C) occurs only for relatively complex behaviors.
D) is possessed by few species other than humans.

 

 

26. Studies of copying in humans and chimpanzees have shown that _____ are more likely to emulate a model’s behavior than _____.
A) human adults; chimpanzees
B) human children; human adults
C) human children; chimpanzees
D) chimpanzees; human children

 

 

27. The inborn tendency to react emotionally to stimuli that indicate emotion in other members of one’s species is called:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) imitation.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

28. Which statement is TRUE regarding emotional contagion?
A) It usually involves motor acts that have been learned.
B) The actions that result from emotional contagion are usually different from the observed actions.
C) The copied reaction is an unconditioned response.
D) All of the statements are true.

 

 

29. Which scenario is an example of emotional contagion?
A) A baby cries in the pediatrician’s office, and the other babies begin to cry as well.
B) A dog salivates at the sound of a bell.
C) A young child cries at the site of her mom.
D) Repeated shocks have taught the mouse to stay in the corner whether or not a shock is received.

 

 

30. In a nursery, if one baby starts crying, there is a tendency for the other babies to also start crying. This is an example of:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) vocal learning.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

31. An individual learns an emotional response after observing it in others. This is known as:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) imitation.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

32. Mia saw a movie with her friend and observed her friend crying during the sad parts. When Mia went to another movie with her parents the following weekend, she began to cry during the sad parts. This is an example of:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) social conformity.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

33. Linda has never been afraid of spiders, but she constantly sees her mom scream at the site of one. Eventually, Linda develops a fear of spiders; this is an example of:
A) phobia.
B) classical conditioning.
C) emotional contagion.
D) observational conditioning.

 

 

34. Direction of one organism’s attention toward specific objects, events, or locations within an environment as a result of another organism’s action is called:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) imitation.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

35. Zachary’s dog Buddy, like many dogs, enjoys chasing the little red spot of light from a laser pointer when Zachary moves the light around the carpet. Zachary’s new puppy Zoe observed Buddy chasing the light, which drew her attention to the light, and she began chasing it just like Buddy did. This is an example of:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) social conformity.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

36. It was observed that some birds in England were learning to puncture the tops of milk bottles to get the cream. One explanation was that the birds’ attention was being drawn to the milk bottles by other birds that had discovered this “trick.” Which phenomenon does this explanation demonstrate?
A) observational conditioning
B) emotional contagion
C) imitation
D) stimulus enhancement

 

 

37. The copying that involves the reproduction of sound is known as:
A) ventriloquism.
B) vocal imitation.
C) vocal emulation.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

38. Which are the only mammals other than humans that have the flexibility to imitate sounds?
A) rats
B) whales
C) birds
D) dolphins

 

 

39. Which statement is TRUE?
A) No mammals other than humans can imitate vocalizations as well as birds can.
B) There are a lot of mammals that are good at imitating vocalizations.
C) Humans do not begin to imitate vocalizations until they are about 8 months old.
D) Animals that do not naturally imitate vocalizations can learn the skill.

 

 

40. The ability to be good at singing karaoke seems to depend on having:
A) good vocal imitation abilities.
B) a near-perfect memory of what the original song sounds like.
C) practiced a lot in the past.
D) many friends who are good at singing karaoke.

 

 

41. The act of modifying vocal outputs using memories of previously experienced sounds is known as vocal:
A) imitation.
B) emulation.
C) learning.
D) assessment.

 

 

42. What is the MOST extensively studied form of vocal learning?
A) speech learning in human infants
B) vocalizations in dolphins
C) song learning in birds
D) speech learning in chimpanzees

 

 

43. Which statement is TRUE?
A) All animals that can vocalize can learn to do it by using vocal imitation.
B) All animals that can vocalize can learn vocally to some extent.
C) All animals can learn vocally.
D) All animals that vocally learn must be able to vocally imitate.

 

 

44. Which statement is TRUE regarding vocal learning in songbirds?
A) Baby birds raised without contact with their own species still learn their own song.
B) If young birds are exposed to both the songs of their own species and the songs of a different species, they will readily learn both species’ songs.
C) The songs that birds sing are genetically predetermined.
D) The songs that birds sing can show differences in dialect.

 

 

45. According to the template model of song learning, the first phase of song learning in songbirds involves:
A) memorizing songs.
B) practicing songs.
C) comparing a bird’s own songs with memories of songs it has heard in the past.
D) learning when it is appropriate to sing.

 

 

46. A model of learning that consists of three basic phases that are song memorization, song practice, and song utilization is known as:
A) social learning.
B) template model.
C) social transition.
D) classical conditioning.

 

 

47. The only mammals other than humans that can learn to sing a song by hearing it are:
A) chimpanzees.
B) dolphins.
C) gorillas.
D) whales.

 

 

48. Learning to speak or sing may not only make easier to communicate but serve:
A) to increase one’s ability to “fit in.”
B) participate in social activities.
C) increase opportunities for learning.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

49. The process in which an observer learns something new through experiences with others is called:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) social transmission of information.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

50. If one is waiting to purchase an item from the vending machine and the person in front loses some money and one decides not to risk losing one’s money and use another machine, this is known as social:
A) discrimination.
B) transmission.
C) learning.
D) conformity.

 

 

51. Imagine that one is attending a very fancy dinner for the first time. One learns which utensils to use for each course of the meal by watching which utensils the other guests use. This demonstrates:
A) observational conditioning.
B) stimulus enhancement.
C) social transmission of information.
D) emotional contagion.

 

 

52. Studies of social transmission of food preferences in rats have shown that:
A) rats are more likely to eat a novel food if they smell the food on another rat’s breath after observing the other rat eating the food.
B) a novel food can become a preferred food if a rat observes another rat eating the food, even if the observer rat never smells the food.
C) food preferences that are learned through observation are not passed down to subsequent generations.
D) rats can learn to eat, but not to avoid, novel foods by observing another rat eating the food.

 

 

53. When Matthew first arrived at China, he found it very difficult to adapt. Fifteen years later, his family is coming to see him and they are having a hard time recognizing him. He has not only learned the language, but also adapted his attire and personality to his new home. This is an example of:
A) emulation.
B) true imitation.
C) observational learning.
D) social conformity.

 

 

54. Which scenario is an example of social conformity?
A) Everyone in the class raises their hand to answer the question.
B) John wasn’t sure what spoon to use at the table so he looked around.
C) After attending a few meetings, John dresses like everyone in the group.
D) Everyone at the ceremony knew the Pledge of Allegiance.

 

 

55. The tendency to adopt the behavior of the group is known as:
A) observational conditioning.
B) social conformity.
C) emulation.
D) perspective taking.

 

 

56. Which statement is TRUE regarding violent entertainment and aggressive behavior?
A) The rate of homicides increased after TV was introduced, even in countries where TV was banned.
B) Level of arousal does not seem to play a role in the likelihood of a person behaving aggressively.
C) Children who play violent video games behave more aggressively than children who play nonviolent video games.
D) Children who watch the same violent TV show multiple times are more likely to behave aggressively than children who watch that same show only once.

 

 

57. Research suggests that viewing violence on TV:
A) can increase the likelihood that a child will behave aggressively immediately after watching it.
B) can lead to positive outcomes when people imitate nonviolent “heroes” in otherwise violent TV shows.
C) is much more likely to lead to aggression than is reading about violence or seeing violence in a play.
D) can decrease a person’s arousal level such that the person behaves less aggressively.

 

 

58. According to modern social-learning theory, in order for a teenage boy to learn to do his homework, he must:
A) observe someone else being rewarded for doing homework.
B) observe someone else being rewarded for doing homework and be rewarded himself for imitating that behavior.
C) be rewarded for doing his homework without having observed anyone else doing homework.
D) observe someone else being rewarded for doing homework, be rewarded himself for imitating that behavior, and be able to take the perspective of the person he observed doing homework.

 

 

59. If one wanted to encourage 8-year-old Tina to read, who would be the BEST person to serve as a model?
A) another 8-year-old girl
B) an 8-year-old boy
C) a teenage girl
D) a teenage boy

 

 

60. John’s friends don’t smoke, but many of John’s favorite movie stars do smoke. John has decided to take up smoking. His behavior demonstrates that people are more likely to copy models:
A) who are similar to themselves.
B) whom they admire.
C) when the outcome is desirable.
D) when they have stored a memory of the model performing the behavior.

 

 

61. Watching the TV show Teletubbies is MOST likely to lead to imitation by child viewers if the:
A) environment in which the Teletubbies live is simple and colorful.
B) Teletubbies occasionally behave aggressively rather than cooperatively.
C) Teletubbies speak using a normal adult voice.
D) children perceive the Teletubbies as being similar to themselves.

 

 

62. What do commercials promote by portraying attractive people having fun drinking a particular brand?
A) observational learning
B) behavior processes
C) social conformity
D) social learning

 

 

63. The repeated pairing of an image and the name of a specific company with individuals celebrating and drinking may lead to what type of conditioning?
A) observational
B) classical
C) operant
D) visual

 

 

64. The emotional excitement associated with annual events such as the Super Bowl can amplify memories during exposure to advertisements. This suggests that alcoholic preferences of football fans are likely to be a result of:
A) conditioning disguised as entertainment.
B) social understanding of the product.
C) visual expectations.
D) emulation.

 

 

65. Correlational studies generally look for associations between familiarity with the content of commercials and drinking behavior. Such studies have shown that:
A) this product placement is conditioning disguised as entertainment.
B) greater exposure to alcohol advertising is correlated to a higher likeliness of drinking in young adults.
C) it introduces young adults to the dangers of alcohol and promotes a deters behavior.
D) if properly timed, advertisements serve to promote a positive behavior in young adults that is passed on with social situations.

 

 

66. According to the _____ hypothesis memories for perceived actions are stored in the cortical regions that map observed actions onto the motor representations of those actions.
A) template
B) visual
C) direct-matching
D) stimulus-matching

 

 

67. _____ neurons respond during both performance of an action and during visual observations of that same action.
A) Template
B) Mirror
C) Echolalia
D) Modeling

 

 

68. Which statement is TRUE regarding mirror neurons?
A) The most common type is those that respond to actions involving the legs and feet.
B) They provide the neural links needed for imitation but not emulation.
C) They respond to the observation of an action performed by a model but not to the performance of the action by the observer.
D) Some respond most strongly to observation of the outcome, rather than the specific action.

 

 

69. In humans:
A) there is an overlap between the cortical regions activated by performance of an action and by observing that action being performed.
B) researchers have been able to record directly from mirror neurons in the cortex.
C) cortical regions associated with mirror neurons are different from those in monkeys.
D) researchers have had difficulty in locating any brain regions that behave as if they contain mirror neurons.

 

 

70. The areas of the brain that become active during both the observation and performance of actions are located in what region of the brain in both humans and monkeys?
A) the lower regions
B) the lateral region
C) the occipital lobe
D) the cortical regions

 

 

71. Researchers hypothesized that mirror neurons provide a basic mechanism for simple _____, allowing researchers to directly examine the mechanisms better.
A) conditioning
B) association
C) emulation
D) imitation

 

 

72. In songbirds, what part or parts of the brain control the production of songs?
A) Area X
B) the high vocal center (HVC) and the robust nucleus of the archistriatum (RA)
C) the lateral magnocellular nucleus of the anterior neostriatum (LMAN)
D) the frontal cortex

 

 

73. Neurons in _____ respond when a bird hears a song and when it produces the song.
A) the high vocal center (HVC) and the robust nucleus of the archistriatum (RA)
B) Area X
C) the basal ganglia
D) the frontal cortex

 

 

74. The disrupting activity in the lateral magnocellular nucleus of the anterior neostriatum (LMAN) region when a bird hears another bird’s song for the first time _____ song learning.
A) enhances
B) impairs
C) prevents
D) has no effect on

 

 

75. When observer rats were exposed to a novel food odor on a demonstrator rat’s breath and then had their hippocampus lesioned, what happened to the lesioned rats’ preferences for the novel food?
A) Their preference was reduced the most if the lesion occurred 30 days after their being exposed to the odor.
B) Their preference was reduced the most if the lesion occurred one day after their being exposed to the odor.
C) Their preference was enhanced the most if the lesion occurred 30 days after their being exposed to the odor.
D) Their preference was enhanced the most if the lesion occurred one day after their being exposed to the odor.

 

 

76. Studies of social transmission of food preferences in rats have shown that hippocampal lesions result in:
A) anterograde amnesia but not retrograde amnesia.
B) anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia.
C) retrograde amnesia that is worse for older memories than for newly acquired memories.
D) retrograde amnesia that is worse for newly acquired memories than for older memories.

 

 

77. Studies of social transmission of food preferences in rats have shown that damage to the neurons in the:
A) basal forebrain that modulate hippocampal activity disrupts their future ability to learn about novel foods from other rats.
B) basal forebrain that modulate hippocampal activity disrupts previously-acquired food preferences.
C) hippocampus that modulate cortical activity disrupts their future ability to learn about novel foods from other rats.
D) hippocampus that modulate cortical activity disrupts previously acquired food preferences.

 

 

78. A set of disorders characterized with deficits in social interaction and learning are known as:
A) learning disorders.
B) autism spectrum disorders.
C) social disorders.
D) anxiety disorders.

 

 

79. _____ suggests that children with autism have problems with perspective taking that prevent them from imagining themselves in someone else’s shoes.
A) Social learning
B) Theory of social awareness
C) Mind-blindness theory
D) Two-action theory

 

 

80. Which characteristic is a symptom of autism?
A) reduced intellectual abilities
B) normal social skills
C) normal behavior patterns
D) the need for highly consistent routines

 

 

81. Repetition of words or phrases immediately after hearing them spoken is known as:
A) echolalia.
B) emotional contagion.
C) emulation.
D) observational conditioning.

 

 

82. Children with autism:
A) cannot recognize when they are being imitated.
B) show more impairment of meaningful gestures than meaningless ones.
C) have problems with perspective taking.
D) have more trouble imitating individual actions than sequences of actions.

 

 

83. Children with autism:
A) have reduced intellectual abilities.
B) have more trouble imitating individual actions than sequences of actions.
C) cannot recognize when they are being imitated.
D) show more impairment of meaningless gestures than meaningful ones.

 

 

84. Which statement is TRUE regarding the brains of individuals with autism?
A) They show more overall activity-related circulation of blood within the temporal lobes.
B) Cortical activation patterns are normal.
C) Their hippocampus is normal in size.
D) Many brain areas are abnormal in size.

 

 

85. Since individuals with autism spectrum disorder have difficulty imitating only certain actions, that deficit can be related to _____ function in a subset of mirror neurons, rather than to a general dysfunction of the _____ neural circuits involved in imitation.
A) lateral; prefrontal
B) abnormal; cortical
C) cortical; abnormal
D) prefrontal; lateral

 

 

86. Which statement is TRUE regarding people with frontal-lobe damage who exhibit deficits in the ability to imitate?
A) They often lack the motor control necessary to imitate actions.
B) They are less likely to have echolalia.
C) They have a tendency to imitate actions involuntarily.
D) They are completely unable to imitate actions.

 

 

87. The findings about patients with frontal-lobe damage who exhibit deficits in the ability to imitate suggest that the frontal lobes:
A) are important for visually matching an observed action to the memory of that action.
B) are important for matching a sound produced by someone else to the memory of that sound.
C) play a role in inhibiting imitation.
D) play a role in enhancing imitation.

 

 

1. The process by which changes in behavior arise as a result of experience and interaction in the world is known as:
A) natural selection.
B) survival of the fittest.
C) learning.
D) sampling.

 

 

2. _____ is a record of one’s past experiences.
A) Memory
B) Learning
C) Experience
D) Motivation

 

 

3. Which method is NOT a good way to remember something?
A) Repeat the information many times.
B) Pay attention when one is first learning the information.
C) Focus on just one sense, such as vision or hearing.
D) Get enough sleep.

 

 

4. Which factor plays a role in helping the individual concentrate allowing the brain to encode information in order to organize and store memories?
A) learning
B) sleeping
C) diet
D) exercise

 

 

5. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Philosophers gain insight through scientific experiments.
B) The study of learning and memory has always been a scientific pursuit.
C) Insights gained through philosophy are more important than those gained through science.
D) Today, people who study learning and memory consider themselves to be scientists.

 

 

6. Sets of statements devised to explain a collection of facts are called:
A) data.
B) theories.
C) associations.
D) symbols.

 

 

7. Gary attended a party and bumped into a friend he had not seen in years. Seeing the friend immediately triggered memories of things they had done together. Which idea about memory does this example demonstrate?
A) nativism
B) dualism
C) associationism
D) empiricism

 

 

8. If I say “up,” it might make one think of the word “down.” The connection in one’s memory between these concepts is known as:
A) nativism.
B) dualism.
C) associationism.
D) empiricism.

 

 

9. According to Aristotle’s principle of frequency, the ideas of “chair” and “table” are linked because people see chairs and tables together:
A) at the same time.
B) in the same place.
C) very often.
D) in kitchens.

 

 

10. The view that all the ideas are the result of experience is called:
A) associationism.
B) dualism.
C) empiricism.
D) nativism.

 

 

11. Barry was in a car accident in which he was not wearing a seatbelt. He was not injured, and now, based on this experience, he believes that seatbelts are unnecessary. Barry exhibits the views of:
A) empiricism.
B) nativism.
C) associationism.
D) dualism.

 

 

12. Bonita believes that one learns about the mind mainly by using logic and intuition; Miguel believes it would be better to measure the activity of the brain. Bonita is following the philosophy of _____, while Miguel is following the philosophy of _____.
A) Aristotle; Locke
B) Plato; Aristotle
C) Descartes; Plato
D) James; Locke

 

 

13. Who was considered a nativist?
A) Aristotle
B) René Descartes
C) John Locke
D) William James

 

 

14. The principle that the mind and body exist as separate entities, each with different characteristics and governed by its own laws, is called:
A) associationism.
B) contiguity.
C) dualism.
D) nativism.

 

 

15. René Descartes:
A) was an empiricist.
B) introduced the idea of associationism.
C) claimed that a newborn’s mind was a blank slate.
D) believed in dualism.

 

 

16. René Descartes believed that the:
A) mind controls the body.
B) mind and body are governed by the same laws.
C) body works through a system of reflex arcs.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

17. Which description is an example of a stimulus in René Descartes’ reflex arc?
A) a person being tapped on the shoulder
B) spirits flowing from the shoulder to the brain
C) spirits being reflected back from the brain to the muscles
D) a person turning around to see who has tapped him on the shoulder

 

 

18. Who would argue that the complex idea of “dog” is comprised of a combination of simpler ideas such as “furry,” “bark,” and “friendly”?
A) René Descartes
B) Plato
C) John Locke
D) Gottfried Leibniz

 

 

19. Who believed that children are born a “blank slate”?
A) Gottfried Leibniz
B) Plato
C) John Locke
D) René Descartes

 

 

20. Who believed that human ability is due to a combination of both nature and nurture?
A) Gottfried Leibniz
B) Plato
C) John Locke
D) Aristotle

 

 

21. Jenny has three children. She believes that, as long as she treats them exactly the same, they will all grow up to have the same personality and intelligence level. Jenny’s idea resembles that of which philosopher?
A) Plato
B) René Descartes
C) Gottfried Leibniz
D) John Locke

 

 

22. Who was a proponent of associationism?
A) Gottfried Leibniz
B) René Descartes
C) William James
D) Plato

 

 

23. According to _____, attending a soccer game might activate a memory of having attended a hockey game the previous day because there would be an association between some of the components the two events have in common.
A) William James
B) Charles Darwin
C) René Descartes
D) Francis Galton

 

 

24. Someone who believes that humans and animals are fundamentally different from each other would agree with the views of:
A) Plato.
B) Charles Darwin.
C) Aristotle.
D) Francis Galton.

 

 

25. Charles Darwin observed that finches on different islands had different types of beaks that were most suited to coping with the environment of their particular island. From this insight, he concluded that:
A) life on Earth is immutably fixed.
B) life on Earth is evolving.
C) animals were created in their present form by God.
D) animals migrate to locations that are most suitable.

 

 

26. Charles Darwin proposed three criteria for traits to evolve through natural selection. Which statement is relevant to survival?
A) The shape of the finch beak ranges from thick to thin.
B) The neck of the giraffe ranges in length across the species.
C) The eagle’s eyes allow it to see prey from very far distances.
D) The moth’s colors allow it to camouflage in with the tree bark.

 

 

27. Which statement is NOT one of Charles Darwin’s proposed criteria for traits to evolve through natural selection?
A) The trait must be inheritable.
B) The trait must be able to be learned.
C) The trait must vary.
D) The trait must make the individual more fit to survive.

 

 

28. While most bacteria are eliminated by antibiotics, some can possess mutations that are resistant to antibiotics, leading to more drug-resistant strains of bacteria. Such a mutation is an example of which of Charles Darwin’s proposed criteria for traits to evolve through natural selection?
A) The trait must be inheritable.
B) The trait must be able to be learned.
C) The trait must vary.
D) The trait must make the individual more fit to survive.

 

 

29. Suppose two moths are colored such that they blend in with the trees in the forest where they live. If one moth’s coloring blends in much better than the other, that moth will have less chance of being eaten by predators, and will therefore be more likely to reproduce, thus passing its beneficial coloring on to its offspring. This is an example of:
A) natural selection.
B) a reflex arc.
C) eugenics.
D) the law of effect.

 

 

30. Why was Charles Darwin’s view of natural selection controversial?
A) It suggested that there was not a major distinction between man and other species.
B) Darwin had no data to back up his claims.
C) Nobody believed that traits could be inherited.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

31. The theory of evolution is relevant to the study of learning and memory because:
A) learned information is passed on to offspring.
B) the type of information people learn varies across individuals.
C) people are born as “blank slates.”
D) learning is useful in allowing organisms to adapt to the environment.

 

 

32. Who conducted the FIRST rigorous experimental studies of human memory?
A) William James
B) Francis Galton
C) Charles Darwin
D) Hermann Ebbinghaus

 

 

33. In studying memory, Ebbinghaus was concerned that his data would be affected by the fact that he was more familiar with some words than others. He avoided this problem by using:
A) real words that were familiar but very short.
B) real words that were unfamiliar to him.
C) three-letter nonsense words.
D) strings of digits.

 

 

34. Hermann Ebbinghaus measured forgetting by:
A) measuring how long it took him to relearn a previously learned list.
B) measuring how long it took him to learn a list perfectly.
C) seeing how long a list he could remember after hearing the list just once.
D) counting the number of times he needed to hear a list before he could recall it perfectly.

 

 

35. Suppose one is trying to learn a list of words. It takes eight minutes to learn the list the first time. One studies the list again the next day and finds that it takes only two minutes. How much of a time savings has occurred?
A) 25 percent
B) 75 percent
C) 100 percent
D) 125 percent

 

 

36. In Ebbinghhaus’s retention curve:
A) the greatest savings occurred with short delays between learning and relearning.
B) most forgetting occurred when relearning took place after about 150 hours.
C) forgetting occurred very gradually over several days.
D) the greatest savings occurred when relearning took place after about 100 hours.

 

 

37. In Ebbinghaus’s studies of memory, the length of delay between learning and relearning was the _____ variable.
A) independent
B) dependent
C) confounding
D) extraneous

 

 

38. In Ebbinghaus studies of memory, what was the dependent variable?
A) the length of delay between learning and relearning
B) the amount of practice done before being tested
C) the length of the list being learned
D) the length of time it took to relearn the list

 

 

39. That Ebbinghaus served as his own participant was problematic because:
A) his expectations might have influenced the results.
B) he could not manipulate an independent variable.
C) his studies were double-blind.
D) he didn’t have any experimenter bias.

 

 

40. Which statement is TRUE about subject bias?
A) It is possible to gain insight through scientific experiments.
B) The subject is asked to verify the results.
C) The insights gained are more accurate and specific.
D) The participants prior knowledge can influence the current experiment.

 

 

41. When subjects are given two drinks but not told what they are drinking in order to get accurate results on which is the better tasting one—this is an example of what type of experimental design?
A) blind
B) double-blind
C) unethical
D) subjective

 

 

42. Miriam has been studying the effects that different genres of music have on an individual’s demeanor for 5 years now. According to her research, classical music seems to not elicit any type of aggressive behavior. As she conducts her screen, she makes sure that there are no individuals who like classical music in her group. This is an example of:
A) experimenter bias.
B) experimental design.
C) subject bias.
D) blind design.

 

 

43. A pharmaceutical company has developed a new medication to treat anxiety. In order to check how well the medication responds, neither the experimenter nor the subjects know who received the medication. By doing this, the pharmaceutical company attempts to eliminate the chance of the subject’s or experimenter’s preconceived notions affecting the results. This is called:
A) experimenter bias.
B) double-blind design.
C) subject bias.
D) blind design.

 

 

44. In a double-blind experimental design:
A) the participant knows the hypothesis being tested.
B) the experimenter knows the hypothesis being tested.
C) both the participant and the experimenter know the hypothesis being tested.
D) neither the participant nor the experimenter knows the hypothesis being tested.

 

 

45. In order to compile and accurately measure its effectiveness, the subject pool for a new antidepressant was about 200 subjects. The pharmaceutical company prescribes 100 subjects the new medication X and a sugar pill for the remaining 100 individuals. To ensure effectiveness, the subjects are unaware of who has taken medication X and who has taken the sugar pill. This practice is known as:
A) experimenter bias.
B) pharmaceutical design.
C) placebo.
D) subject bias.

 

 

46. Classical conditioning involves:
A) learning that one stimulus predicts an important event.
B) studying lists of short nonsense words.
C) learning to make responses in order to obtain rewards or avoid punishment.
D) studying how to build computers to perform behaviors requiring human intelligence.

 

 

47. The person who developed the form of learning known as classical conditioning is:
A) Francis Galton.
B) Ivan Pavlov.
C) Hermann Ebbinghaus.
D) John B. Watson.

 

 

48. Cancer patients can develop an aversion to foods they eat right before undergoing chemotherapy. Although the foods themselves do not initially cause feelings of illness, pairing them with chemotherapy, which does cause patients to feel sick, leads to the foods becoming associated with these same feelings. This is an example of:
A) classical conditioning.
B) instrumental conditioning.
C) the law of effect.
D) extinction.

 

 

49. If dogs are presented with a bell followed by food, they quickly learn to salivate in response to the bell. If the bell is then presented without any food, what happens to the salivation response?
A) It becomes gradually stronger.
B) It becomes gradually weaker.
C) It stops immediately.
D) It continues at the same strength.

 

 

50. Pavlov paired a bell with food until a dog learned to salivate in response to the bell. To produce extinction, Pavlov:
A) rang the bell more quietly.
B) paired the bell with a different kind of food.
C) stopped ringing the bell.
D) paired the bell with the absence of food.

 

 

51. After a pigeon learns to peck at a green light, the pigeon also pecks at a light that is a slightly different shade of green. This is an example of:
A) the learning curve.
B) the law of effect.
C) extinction.
D) generalization.

 

 

52. Who proposed the law of effect?
A) Ivan Pavlov
B) John B. Watson
C) Edward Thorndike
D) B. F. Skinner

 

 

53. The law of effect predicts which statement?
A) If a tone is played while the dog is provided food, the dog will eventually salivate in response to the tone.
B) If a child is scratched by a black cat, the child will fear all cats, not just black ones.
C) If one remembers a couple of phone numbers a few hours after being told, one is less likely to forget them later.
D) If a teenager is grounded for taking the car without permission, he will ask for permission next time.

 

 

54. In which type of learning do organisms learn to respond in order to obtain or avoid important consequences?
A) classical conditioning
B) instrumental (operant) conditioning
C) latent learning
D) connectionist learning

 

 

55. Mary wants to encourage her son to work harder in school. She has decided to reward him with money for good grades and punish him by adding extra chores for bad grades. Mary’s approach is MOST similar to the ideas of:
A) Edward Thorndike.
B) Ivan Pavlov.
C) Herbert Simon.
D) David Rumelhart.

 

 

56. If a rat receives a food reward whenever it presses a lever, the likelihood of the rat pressing the lever will increase. This is an example of:
A) classical conditioning.
B) generalization.
C) the law of effect.
D) the learning curve.

 

 

57. Behaviorism focuses on the study of:
A) brain processes.
B) internal thoughts.
C) intentions.
D) observable behaviors.

 

 

58. Marty’s dog always sits when Marty opens the cupboard to get the dog a biscuit. How would a behaviorist describe the dog’s behavior?
A) The dog thinks that, if he sits, he will get a biscuit.
B) The dog is hungry, so his instincts tell him to sit.
C) The dog expects to get a biscuit when Marty opens the cupboard.
D) The dog sits when Marty opens the cupboard.

 

 

59. Who was the founder of behaviorism?
A) John B. Watson
B) Edward Thorndike
C) B. F. Skinner
D) Ivan Pavlov

 

 

60. In Watson’s studies, what was found to impair rats’ ability to navigate through mazes they had previously learned?
A) blinding the rats
B) removing the rats’ whiskers
C) eliminating all odors in the maze
D) rotating the maze

 

 

61. John Watson’s studies of rats running through mazes demonstrated that rats had learned to use their _____ to navigate.
A) vision and hearing
B) automatic set of motor habits
C) sense of smell
D) whiskers

 

 

62. The person who FIRST attempted to develop a comprehensive mathematical model of animal learning was:
A) Edward Thorndike.
B) Ivan Pavlov.
C) John B. Watson.
D) Clark Hull.

 

 

63. The specifics of Clark Hull’s equations for learning:
A) have never been very influential.
B) were rejected early on but are highly relevant today.
C) were important early on and continue to be influential today.
D) are not considered relevant today.

 

 

64. Who is considered a behaviorist?
A) Gordon Bower
B) George Miller
C) David Rumelhart
D) Clark Hull

 

 

65. B. F. Skinner discovered that, when animals are given intermittent reinforcements, they:
A) respond less than when they are rewarded on every trial.
B) do not respond at all.
C) respond for the first few trials but then stop responding.
D) respond at least as well as when they are rewarded on every trial.

 

 

66. Jessie believes that babies learn words by being rewarded for sounds that sound like those words in response to something they hear. This idea resembles the ideas of:
A) Charles Darwin.
B) Edward Thorndike.
C) B. F. Skinner.
D) Aristotle.

 

 

67. Who proposed the extreme form of behaviorism known as radical behaviorism?
A) B. F. Skinner
B) John B. Watson
C) Clark Hull
D) Edward Thorndike

 

 

68. Whose book described a Utopian society in which socially desirable behaviors would be maintained through behaviorist training techniques?
A) John B. Watson
B) B. F. Skinner
C) Edward Tolman
D) Clark Hull

 

 

69. Which idea suggests that humans function by blindly producing pre-programmed learned responses to environmental stimuli?
A) information theory
B) learning by insight
C) neo-behaviorism
D) radical behaviorism

 

 

70. Which theorist was inspired by Edward Tolman to pursue the study of learning?
A) John B. Watson
B) William James
C) B. F. Skinner
D) Edward Thorndike

 

 

71. “Behavior reeks of purpose” was the maxim of:
A) B. F. Skinner.
B) Edward Thorndike.
C) Edward Tolman.
D) John B. Watson.

 

 

72. Who believed that rats were forming a “cognitive map” when they learned to navigate through a maze?
A) Clark Hull
B) Ivan Pavlov
C) John B. Watson
D) Edward Tolman

 

 

73. Suppose one encounters construction while driving home. One cannot take the regular route but has no trouble in determining an alternate route to reach home. This ability is MOST like the behavior of animals in which researcher’s studies?
A) John. B. Watson
B) Edward Tolman
C) Ivan Pavlov
D) B. F. Skinner

 

 

74. The idea that rats have a cognitive map of a maze is supported by the finding that rats:
A) only learn to navigate the maze if a food reward is given at the end.
B) cannot navigate the maze if their usual route is blocked.
C) can navigate the maze, even if they start from a novel position.
D) require only one trial to learn the layout of a maze.

 

 

75. If rats are allowed to freely explore a maze without being given a food reward and later are put in the maze again with a food reward in the goal box, the rats:
A) learn the maze as quickly as rats that have never been exposed to the maze.
B) learn the maze more quickly than rats that have never been exposed to the maze.
C) learn the maze more slowly than rats that have never been exposed to the maze.
D) are unable to learn the maze regardless of being rewarded.

 

 

76. If one is driven to the school by a friend each day, one will probably learn the route and be able to use it later on, even though there is no reward for using it. This is an example of:
A) generalization.
B) latent learning.
C) the law of effect.
D) a placebo effect.

 

 

77. Linda has never been interested in sports, yet everyone in her house plays basketball and football. After dinner one night, everyone goes outside to play basketball. Since there are only five players, Linda is asked to join. As the game goes on, she manages to make almost every shot when the ball is passed to her. This is an example of:
A) latent learning.
B) generalization.
C) the law of effect.
D) a placebo effect.

 

 

78. The reason behaviorism lost its appeal is that:
A) its methods were not precise enough.
B) it focused too much on internal representations.
C) it could not explain higher-level cognitive processes.
D) its ideas could not be specified mathematically.

 

 

79. Which subfield of psychology focuses on human abilities such as thinking, language, and reasoning?
A) classical conditioning
B) neo-behaviorism
C) cognitive psychology
D) behaviorism

 

 

80. Humans and animals do not always make the same response to the same stimuli. Which theory provides an explanation for this apparent randomness in learning?
A) Hull’s mathematical model
B) stimulus sampling theory
C) information theory
D) radical behaviorism

 

 

81. Suppose a student is trained to press the “A” key when a high-pitched tone is played and the “B” key when a low-pitched tone is played. Even after hundreds of trials of training, the student will probably still occasionally press the wrong button. How can this be explained by stimulus sampling theory?
A) The student is tired and more prone to mistakes after so many trials.
B) The student may temporarily forget which key is the correct one after a while.
C) The connection between the tone and the key deteriorates after repeated presentation.
D) The tone activates a subset of elements that are not yet linked to the correct key.

 

 

82. Mathematical psychology was established by:
A) Edward Tolman.
B) William James.
C) B. F. Skinner.
D) W. K. Estes.

 

 

83. Gordon Bower believed that:
A) learning is a gradual, incremental process.
B) it is important to look at the average of learning scores.
C) learning can be explained by a mathematical model.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

84. If a person learns a task by insight, we expect performance to:
A) increase gradually across trials.
B) show a sudden jump on one particular trial and remain high thereafter.
C) show a sudden jump on one particular trial and then gradually decline.
D) remain relatively constant across all trials.

 

 

85. What was Gordon Bower’s concern regarding reporting average learning curves for a large group of people?
A) The average may demonstrate incremental learning even if all individuals demonstrate learning by insight.
B) The results may not be generalizable to other groups of people.
C) The average fails to distinguish between slow and quick learners.
D) The results from lab experiments may not apply to the real world.

 

 

86. Who adapted information theory to psychology?
A) George Miller
B) W. K. Estes
C) Gordon Bower
D) Clark Hull

 

 

87. George Miller discovered that the average digit span is:
A) exactly 3.
B) about 7.
C) about 15.
D) more than 20.

 

 

88. Which of these scientists is responsible for the number of digits in a standard phone number without the area code?
A) John Locke
B) Edward Thorndike
C) David Rumelhart
D) George Miller

 

 

89. Who proposed connectionist models of the mind?
A) Clark Hull
B) Gordon Bower
C) David Rumelhart
D) George Miller

 

 

90. Connectionist models propose that learning and memory involve:
A) the storage and manipulation of symbols and labeled links.
B) networks of uniform and unlabeled connections.
C) random sampling of possible elements associated with a stimulus.
D) a one-step process of going from ignorance to knowledge in a single trial.

 

 

91. In a distributed representation, information is stored in the:
A) pattern of activation across many nodes.
B) activity of a single node.
C) comparison of the activity between two nodes.
D) timing of the activation of two nodes.

 

 

92. If a person looks at a golden retriever and a cocker spaniel and realizes the similarity that both of them are dogs, what process is the person using?
A) connectionist model
B) distributed representation
C) even distribution
D) stimulus sampling theory

 

1. The Milwaukee police noticed a putrid smell in Jeffrey Dahmer’s apartment. But because they had experienced many smelly apartments in the past, they did not investigate the source of the smell. This is an example of:
A) sensitization.
B) habituation.
C) perceptual learning.
D) priming.

 

 

2. Jeffrey Dahmer learned to pick out suitable victims by repeated experiences. This is an example of:
A) sensitization.
B) habituation.
C) perceptual learning.
D) priming.

 

 

3. Suppose a person never buys eggs because he doesn’t like them. One weekend, he has guests who love eggs, and so he decides to buy some at the store. Even though he has never bought eggs at this store, he knows exactly where they are in the store from all the times he has shopped there before. The fact that he has learned where the eggs are during those past trips is an example of:
A) sensitization.
B) habituation.
C) perceptual learning.
D) latent learning.

 

 

4. A decrease in the strength or occurrence of a behavior after repeated exposure to the stimulus that produces the behavior is called:
A) sensitization.
B) habituation.
C) perceptual learning.
D) priming.

 

 

5. Which statement is an example of habituation?
A) As one goes to bed, one hears the bathroom faucet dripping. The sound becomes more annoying as the night goes on.
B) A person’s car spins out on the ice in the winter. Afterwards, the person is much more nervous while driving.
C) An experienced shepherd can quickly distinguish his sheep from one another.
D) On entering a room, one notices the soft hum of a fan, but after being there for a while, one no longer notices the sound.

 

 

6. When Michelle and Patrick met, she was bothered by his height, but after 15 years of marriage she barely notices it anymore. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) priming.
D) dishabituation.

 

 

7. Which statement is an example of habituation?
A) If one has seen a particular person before, it is easier to remember that person’s physical features.
B) On a long car trip, one’s brother keeps kicking the back of one’s seat. It becomes progressively more bothersome.
C) When one first enters a bakery, one notices all of the wonderful smells, but after a few minutes it is unnoticed.
D) At a scary movie, a person screams as a monster jumps out suddenly. From then on, every little movement someone or something makes in the film seems frightening.

 

 

8. A child repeatedly complains about having her teeth brushed by her mother. After a while, the mother doesn’t even notice the child’s complaints. This is an example of:
A) sensitization.
B) habituation.
C) dishabituation.
D) priming.

 

 

9. If a loud noise is presented repeatedly to a rat, the rat’s acoustic startle reflex will:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) decrease and then increase.
D) stay the same.

 

 

10. An infant turns to look at a novel pattern, this is an example of:
A) an orienting response.
B) latent learning.
C) habituation.
D) sensitization.

 

 

11. Jessie is lying down when suddenly a firefly moves across her room. It disappears after 10 seconds. When it reappears, she stares at it again. The duration of time in which she looks at it is known as:
A) an orienting response.
B) latent learning.
C) fixation time
D) sensory identification.

 

 

12. Habituation to a stimulus:
A) can carry risks.
B) occurs only in animals that have brains.
C) usually involves an increase in the response to a stimulus.
D) lasts forever.

 

 

13. A young girl observes how much her sister worries about her car being scratched. She waits for the moment she sits down to yell out “a branch fell on your car!” Her sister runs to check on her car and realizes it was a joke and walks away upset. The young girl continues this numerous times. One day, she looks out the window and notices that a branch is about to fall on the car. She calls out to her sister and is ignored. This is an example of the dangers of:
A) latent learning.
B) habituation.
C) orienting response.
D) perceptual learning.

 

 

14. Suppose a baby is presented repeatedly with the color yellow. Which statement would demonstrate that habituation is stimulus specific in this case?
A) The baby’s orienting response to yellow increases, and then the baby responds vigorously to the color red.
B) The baby’s orienting response to yellow increases, and then the baby has no response to the color red.
C) The baby’s orienting response to yellow decreases, and then the baby responds vigorously to the color red.
D) The baby’s orienting response to yellow decreases, and then the baby has no response to the color red.

 

 

15. Suppose a person repeatedly plays a low-pitched tone to a rat. Which statement would demonstrate dishabituation in the rat?
A) After many trials, the rat no longer responds to the low-pitched tone.
B) The rat does not respond to a high-pitched tone.
C) The rat’s response to the low-pitched tone increases over many trials.
D) The rat then responds to the low-pitched tone after a loud tone in the trial.

 

 

16. Which statement has been found to be TRUE regarding sexual arousal in humans?
A) Only males habituate to sexual arousal.
B) Only females habituate to sexual arousal.
C) Females habituate more strongly than males to sexual arousal.
D) Males habituate more strongly than females to sexual arousal.

 

 

17. If one is feeling bored with one’s romantic partner, which approach would be expected to improve one’s feelings by bringing about dishabituation?
A) doing something new and exciting together
B) spending time together just relaxing
C) doing more of the favorite activities together
D) downplaying the importance of the problem

 

 

18. In which situation would one habituate the MOST?
A) when the event is not very arousing
B) when one is first becoming familiar with the stimulus
C) when the interval between repetitions of the event is long
D) when the event is unusual

 

 

19. Which would be the MOST difficult to habituate to?
A) the pressure of a chair against the back
B) the accent of a foreign friend whom one has known for many years
C) the smell of just-baked cookies
D) the loud, banging sound that occurs every 5 minutes

 

 

20. _____ exposure produces the fastest habituation, and _____ exposure produces the longest-lasting habituation.
A) Massed; spaced
B) Spaced; massed
C) Massed; massed
D) Spaced; spaced

 

 

21. Which stimulus would produce the longest-lasting habituation (assuming all stimuli are habituated to)?
A) the constant hum of a fan
B) a light that blinks on and off every  second
C) a beeping sound that repeats itself every 15 seconds
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

22. Susan’s daughter was constantly calling “Mommy” throughout the day, until Susan eventually barely noticed her daughter’s calls. The next day, when Susan’s daughter called “Mommy” for the first time, Susan did hear her. This is an example of:
A) sensitization.
B) associative learning.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) dishabituation.

 

 

23. When experiences with an arousing stimulus lead to a stronger-than-normal response to a later stimulus, this is known as:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) dishabituation.
D) priming.

 

 

24. Sensitization:
A) occurs in humans but not in other animals.
B) requires fewer exposures than are necessary for habituation.
C) is stimulus-specific.
D) dissipates rapidly in all learning situations.

 

 

25. Since her grandmother’s recent illness, Sarah has a heightened awareness of her family’s health, and gets overly worried anytime a family member appears the least bit unwell. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) dishabituation.
D) priming.

 

 

26. If a person is nervous about climbing trees because of a tree fall in the past that resulted in a broken leg, the person may have become:
A) habituated.
B) sensitized.
C) dishabituated.
D) primed.

 

 

27. Under which condition would there be a skin-conductance response to reveal sensitization?
A) playing a loud noise right before a neutral musical tone
B) playing a quiet noise right before a neutral musical tone
C) playing a neutral musical tone repeatedly
D) playing a loud noise repeatedly

 

 

28. James doesn’t mind the smell of gas since he has worked at the gas station for 15 years. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) desensitization.
C) dishabituation.
D) priming.

 

 

29. Which theory provides the BEST account of short-term habituation and sensitization effects?
A) dual process
B) opponent process
C) differentiation
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

30. Which model suggests that both sensitization and habituation occur in response to every stimulus presentation, and that it is the summed combination of these two independent processes that determines the strength of responding?
A) dual process theory
B) comparator models
C) differentiation theory
D) priming theory

 

 

31. According to dual process theory, when stimuli are highly arousing:
A) habituation processes determine the response.
B) sensitization processes determine the response.
C) habituation processes dominate on the early trials.
D) habituation processes dominate on the later trials.

 

 

32. According to dual process theory, repeated exposure to a soft tone will lead to a:
A) habituation response only.
B) sensitization response only.
C) stronger habituation response than sensitization response.
D) stronger sensitization response than habituation response.

 

 

33. A rollercoaster ride elicits an initial feeling of fear followed by a feeling of exhilaration. After repeated experiences, the initial fear responses may become weaker, whereas the rebound responses grow stronger. This process is called _____ theory.
A) habituation
B) opponent process
C) dual process
D) emotional stability

 

 

34. Novel object recognition refers to:
A) the act of actively avoiding a novel object.
B) the detection and response to an unfamiliar object.
C) fear of experimentation.
D) fear of repetition.

 

 

35. Neophobia refers to:
A) the act of actively avoiding a novel object.
B) novel object recognition.
C) the fear of experimentation.
D) the fear of repetition.

 

 

36. In a novel object recognition task, which statement demonstrates that a stimulus is perceived as familiar?
A) An individual shows sensitization to the stimulus.
B) An individual actively avoids any contact with the stimulus.
C) An individual spends less time examining the stimulus relative to a novel stimulus.
D) An individual shows dishabituation to the stimulus.

 

 

37. William James referred to _____ as a “sense of sameness.”
A) context
B) perception
C) consciousness
D) familiarity

 

 

38. Familiarity can be defined as:
A) the contextual framework of a situation.
B) perception of similarity that occurs from an event repetition.
C) conscious representation of an event.
D) exposure to novel object.

 

 

39. When prior exposure to a stimulus improves an organism’s ability to respond to that stimulus later on, it is known as:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) perceptual learning.
D) priming.

 

 

40. The textbook describes a study in which blue jays were quicker and more accurate at detecting a particular species of moth if they had recently detected other members of that species. This result demonstrates:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) priming.
D) perceptual learning.

 

 

41. In a word-stem completion task, people are:
A) more likely to fill in the blanks to form words they have previously seen.
B) less likely to fill in the blanks to form words they have previously seen.
C) more likely to fill in the blanks to form words they have previously seen, only if they consciously remember the words.
D) less likely to fill in the blanks to form words they have previously seen, only if they consciously remember the words.

 

 

42. Learning in which repeated experience with a set of stimuli makes those stimuli easier to distinguish is known as:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) dishabituation.
D) perceptual learning.

 

 

43. Over the first several weeks at the stable, Jenn becomes better at telling the various horses apart. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) perceptual learning.
D) priming.

 

 

44. Which statement demonstrates perceptual learning?
A) People who live in a city have no trouble sleeping through all of the street noise.
B) Professional wine tasters can easily distinguish between subtly different wines.
C) A crying baby becomes increasingly more bothersome to her parents.
D) A phobic patient gets used to being around spiders during one therapy session, but is fearful again at the start of the next session.

 

 

45. Rats that are exposed to circles and triangles for a month can learn to discriminate between these two shapes more quickly than rats not exposed to the shapes. This finding demonstrates:
A) learning specificity.
B) sensitization.
C) mere exposure learning.
D) priming.

 

 

46. A child who is exposed to a foreign language may have an easier time learning that language later on in life. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) learning specificity.
C) dishabituation.
D) mere exposure learning.

 

 

47. People are generally better at distinguishing individuals belonging to racial groups that they frequently encounter than individuals belonging to racial groups with whom they don’t interact. This is an example of:
A) habituation.
B) priming.
C) mere exposure learning.
D) discrimination training.

 

 

48. The phenomenon of perceptual learning suggests that the other-race effect can be reduced by:
A) exposing people to more examples of faces from their own racial group.
B) teaching people to recognize their implicit racial biases.
C) repeatedly presenting a single face from another racial group.
D) training people to distinguish between several faces of other racial groups.

 

 

49. In studies of rats learning to find their way through a maze, Tolman and Honzik found that rats that were:
A) rewarded every day learned the maze better than rats who started receiving rewards on day 11.
B) rewarded every day learned the maze as well as rats that were never rewarded.
C) rewarded every day learned the maze as well as rats who started receiving rewards on day 11.
D) never rewarded learned the maze better than rats who started receiving rewards on day 11.

 

 

50. When rats learn to run through mazes, they:
A) make substantial use of the visual cues in the environment.
B) rely mainly on learning a sequence of motor movements.
C) rely entirely on their sense of smell to find their way to the food reward.
D) become confused if placed in a new starting position.

 

 

51. Studies in which wasps’ potential landmarks were removed demonstrated that:
A) landmarks are not required for wasps to navigate.
B) wasps rely mainly on remembering a sequence of movements for navigation.
C) wasps rely mainly on smell for navigation.
D) landmarks are an important part of wasp navigation.

 

 

52. In Aplysia, the:
A) neural connections involved in the gill-withdrawal reflex have been well mapped out.
B) nervous system consists of just 24 neurons.
C) neurons are smaller than normal.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

53. In Aplysia, touching the siphon over and over again results in:
A) perceptual learning.
B) priming.
C) a stronger gill-withdrawal reflex.
D) a weaker gill-withdrawal reflex.

 

 

54. In Aplysia, what accounts for the habituation of the gill-withdrawal reflex?
A) a decrease in the motor neuron’s sensitivity to glutamate
B) an increase in the motor neuron’s sensitivity to glutamate
C) a decrease in the amount of glutamate released by the sensory neuron
D) an increase in the amount of glutamate released by the sensory neuron

 

 

55. Suppose the gill-withdrawal reflex is habituated in Aplysia by repeatedly touching the siphon. If the habituation is homosynaptic, which would occur?
A) Touching the tail will not cause a gill-withdrawal response.
B) Touching the mantle will not cause a gill-withdrawal response.
C) Touching the tail will cause a gill-withdrawal response.
D) Touching the siphon will cause a gill-withdrawal response.

 

 

56. When Aplysia are habituated over several days, it can be observed that the:
A) amount of neurotransmitter released by the motor neuron increases.
B) number of synapses between sensory and motor neurons decreases.
C) number of motor neurons decreases.
D) number of presynaptic terminals in the sensory neurons increases.

 

 

57. It is believed that the mechanisms of habituation documented in Aplysia occur in other species because:
A) scientists have been able to trace the entire neuronal circuit of habituation in the mammalian brain.
B) most mammals have the same number of neurons as do Aplysia.
C) repeated stimulation of sensory neurons in other species causes a reduction in neurotransmitter release.
D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

58. Sensitization is demonstrated in Aplysia when, after shocking the _____, touching the siphon causes a _____ gill-withdrawal reflex.
A) siphon; strengthened
B) tail; strengthened
C) siphon; weakened
D) tail; weakened

 

 

59. What accounts for the sensitization of the gill-withdrawal reflex in Aplysia?
A) Motor neurons release serotonin, which increases the number of vesicles available to release glutamate from the sensory neuron.
B) Motor neurons release glutamate, which increases the number of vesicles available to release serotonin from the interneurons.
C) Interneurons release serotonin, which increases the number of vesicles available to release glutamate from the sensory neuron.
D) Interneurons release glutamate, which increases the number of vesicles available to release serotonin from the sensory neuron.

 

 

60. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Habituation is homosynaptic, and sensitization is heterosynaptic.
B) Sensitization is homosynaptic, and habituation is heterosynaptic.
C) Both sensitization and habituation are heterosynaptic.
D) Both sensitization and habituation are homosynaptic.

 

 

61. If sensitization of the gill-withdrawal reflex is heterosynaptic, which would occur?
A) Touching the tail will not cause a gill-withdrawal response.
B) Touching the mantle will not cause a gill-withdrawal response.
C) Touching the mantle will cause a gill-withdrawal response.
D) Touching the siphon will not cause a gill-withdrawal response.

 

 

62. Habituation and sensitization in Aplysia are explained well by which theory?
A) dual process theory
B) comparator models
C) differentiation theory
D) priming theory

 

 

63. Touching a patch of skin on the hand causes a particular neuron in the brain to fire. That particular patch of skin would be part of the neuron’s:
A) homunculus.
B) receptive field.
C) priming field.
D) sensitization zone.

 

 

64. When more sensory neurons are tuned to a particular feature of a stimulus, the organism will:
A) become sensitized to the stimulus more quickly.
B) habituate to the stimulus more quickly.
C) take longer to learn about the stimulus.
D) be better able to make fine distinctions related to the stimulus.

 

 

65. When visual input is absent from birth, it is often seen that other cortical areas take over the areas of the brain normally devoted to vision. This demonstrates:
A) habituation.
B) perceptual learning.
C) learned non-use.
D) cortical plasticity.

 

 

66. Cortical neurons that are physically close together are tuned to similar stimulus features. This is known as:
A) a homunculus.
B) the sensory zone.
C) the receptive field of a neuron.
D) a topographic map.

 

 

67. The capacity for cortical receptive fields and cortical spatial organization to change as a result of experience is called:
A) perceptual learning.
B) cortical plasticity.
C) heterosynaptic learning.
D) homosynaptic learning.

 

 

68. If the visual input to the cortex is cut off during development:
A) visual acuity may be permanently degraded if sight is later restored.
B) cortical neurons that normally respond to visual input will be more sharply tuned to visual stimuli.
C) areas that normally respond to tactile or auditory stimuli will begin to respond to visual stimuli.
D) the visual area of the brain will increase in size.

 

 

69. Research has shown that, in the cortexes of opossums blinded at birth:
A) area X, which exists in sighted opossums, was not present.
B) the visual area was smaller than normal, while the other sensory areas were of normal size.
C) within the visual area some neurons responded to auditory or somatosensory stimuli.
D) there were no multimodal neurons.

 

 

70. Neurons that respond to inputs from more than one sensory modality are known as:
A) multimodal.
B) Hebbian.
C) heterosynaptic.
D) homosynaptic.

 

 

71. Neurons in the sensory cortices can:
A) be retuned in adults.
B) be retuned only in children.
C) take several months to become retuned.
D) be retuned only in situations involving drastic sensory deprivation.

 

 

72. Studies involving repeated presentation of two simultaneous touches on the finger have shown that the ability to discriminate the positions of the two touches:
A) stays the same.
B) improves.
C) gets worse.
D) improves, but only in children.

 

 

73. What happens after repeated presentation of two simultaneous touches on the finger?
A) People habituate to the touches and no longer feel them.
B) People have a harder time determining whether there are one or two points being touched.
C) There is a decrease in the number of cortical neurons tuned to touches of the fingertip.
D) There is an increase in the number of cortical neurons tuned to touches of the fingertip.

 

 

74. The hippocampus:
A) has not received much attention in learning and memory research.
B) is known to exist only in primates and rodents.
C) is much larger in birds than in rodents.
D) lies just beneath the temporal lobe in primates.

 

 

75. A neuron that responds only when a rat is in a particular location is called a _____, and the preferred location is called the _____.
A) place cell; place field
B) place cell; receptive field
C) place field; receptive field
D) receptive field; place cell

 

 

76. Which statement is TRUE regarding place cells?
A) They are hardwired at birth.
B) There are sufficient numbers of neurons to assign a place cell to every place one will ever encounter.
C) They respond to an internal sense of location in space, but not to external location cues.
D) They each have a preferred location called a place field.

 

 

77. The behavior of rats navigating three-arm mazes before and after the mazes are rotated demonstrates that:
A) rats cannot navigate mazes when the mazes are rotated.
B) place cells do not respond when mazes are rotated.
C) place cell responses are based on visual cues in the environment.
D) visual cues are not important in navigation of mazes.

 

 

78. When rats repeatedly experience an environment, their place cells:
A) increase the size of their place fields.
B) eventually stop responding to the environment.
C) habituate to the environment.
D) become increasingly tuned to locations within that environment.

 

 

79. The ability of rats to learn spatial layout declines when:
A) place fields shrink.
B) place cells become more selective.
C) place fields are prevented from shrinking.
D) place cells are active.

 

 

80. Rats with hippocampal damage are impaired in the ability to:
A) recognize objects if the context and position of the objects are integrated.
B) navigate but not in the ability to recognize objects.
C) recognize objects in nearly all situations.
D) recognize objects that the rats had experienced just a few times.

 

 

81. A stroke is:
A) when blood flow to a region of the brain stops.
B) a failure in the heart.
C) a heart attack.
D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

82. Learned non-use occurs when a stroke patient stops using a body part because of:
A) that body part being physically restrained.
B) damage to the hippocampus.
C) damage to the motor areas controlling that body part.
D) a lack of sensory input from that body part.

 

 

83. Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of constraint-induced movement therapy to treat learned non-use?
A) It exploits mechanisms of cortical plasticity.
B) It is less effective than encouraging people to use their affected limb.
C) It helps muscles to recover but has little effect on brain activity.
D) It is used when motor control is lost but sensation is retained.

 

 

84. In some situations, arousal can have severe consequences. In the most severe cases, a single highly emotional event can lead to life-long amplification of emotional responses to a wide range of stimuli. This is referred to as:
A) generalized anxiety.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) depression.
D) phobias.

 

 

85. Robert Post found that, after an initial stressful event triggered a disorder such as depression, increasingly minor stressful events could trigger additional bouts of depression. This reasoning indicates that:
A) some individuals learn how to be depressed.
B) depression can have more than one underlying cause.
C) some individuals become sensitized to stress and its associated physiological states.
D) depression is a very common disorder.

 

 

86. Repeated exposures to high stress levels during development, for example, can increase chances for depression later in life and also puts children at risk of developing anxiety disorders such as:
A) depression.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) obsessive compulsive disorder.

 

 

87. Which disorder can be viewed as an exaggerated response to a potentially scary stimulus, resulting when sensitization to stress associated with fear-inducing situations amplifies an individual’s emotional response?
A) pathological anxiety
B) posttraumatic stress disorder
C) depression
D) obsessive compulsive disorder

 

 

88. A sensory prosthesis is:
A) a therapeutic technique used to assist stroke victims who have lost sensory input from parts of their bodies.
B) a mechanical device containing sensory detectors that interface with appropriate sensory areas of the brain.
C) an inability to identify location or to find one’s way around the environment.
D) the area of space to which a place cell responds.

 

 

89. Scientists have been working on a device that can be implanted in the retina of blind people to help them see again. Such a device is an example of:
A) a Hebbian device.
B) a place field.
C) a sensory prosthesis.
D) restraint therapy.

 

 

90. Cochlear implants:
A) work by amplifying external sounds.
B) cause slow, gradual improvement in speech perception during the initial months.
C) generate virtual sounds that are nearly identical to normal speech sounds.
D) lead to reorganization of the auditory cortex in cats.

 

 

91. Which statement is TRUE about cochlear implants?
A) They work by amplifying external sounds.
B) They work well on all patients, and age is not a factor.
C) They allow individuals to clearly hear and enjoy music.
D) They stimulate auditory nerves to produce hearing sensations.