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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

 

Legal And Ethical Issues For Healthcare Professions 3rd Edition by Elsevier -Test Bank

 

 

Sample  Questions

 

Chapter 03: Ethical and Bioethical Issues

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Bioethics is defined as the field of study examining the ethical dilemmas surrounding:
a. advances in bioscience.
b. advances in diagnostic treatment procedures.
c. ethical issues surrounding medical research.
d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

Although advances in bioscience and diagnostic treatment procedures, as well as medical research, provide important discoveries, they also involve challenges to the rights and privacy for the patient. Bioethics is the study of these ethical dilemmas.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   pp. 36-37

 

  1. What is the main goal of ethical medical research?
a. Make advances in the medical field.
b. Make treating patients easier on the patient.
c. Restore or prevent illness, death, and disabilities caused by diseases.
d. Discover cures.

 

 

ANS:  C

While making advances in the medical field, making treatment easier on the patient, and discovering cures are all part of the goals of ethical medical research, the main goal is to battle diseases through restoration or prevention of illness, death, and disabilities.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 37

 

  1. A blind study is when:
a. researchers do not tell the subject what is being studied.
b. the subject does not know whether he is getting the trial drug or a placebo.
c. researchers give random test agents to the subject.
d. the subject is given the trial drug at random times.

 

 

ANS:  B

In a blind study, the patient does not know whether he or she is getting the trial drug or a placebo. This ensures the patient will not have any preconceived effects of the drug so the patient will be more objective.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   pp. 38-39

 

  1. One problem for a patient with a disease participating in a blind study drug trial is he or she may:
a. be too sick to participate.
b. think he or she will be cured.
c. be so desperate for a good outcome, he or she cannot be objective.
d. participate as a last resort for a cure, and may not receive anything for a long period of time.

 

 

ANS:  D

If a patient participates in a blind study, the patient may receive only the placebo and none of the trial drug, which could ultimately place the patient in a worse situation than before he or she began the trial.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 39

 

  1. A male opts to undergo a vasectomy. This is considered:
a. voluntary sterilization.
b. involuntary sterilization.
c. contraception.
d. abortion.

 

 

ANS:  A

When a patient chooses to end his or her ability for reproduction, it is considered voluntary sterilization. Involuntary sterilization is usually ordered by a court. Contraception is a temporary way to end reproduction abilities. Abortions end the life of the fetus.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   pp. 40-41

 

  1. The following key question is raised in debates about voluntary abortion.
a. When does human life begin?
b. How old must a patient be to receive a voluntary abortion?
c. Should parents be told about a minor requesting an abortion?
d. Should the father of the child have to approve the abortion?

 

 

ANS:  A

The age-old argument used in the debate about abortion has always been when human life begins—upon conception, in the embryo, in the fetus, or not until the child is born. Although the age of the patients, minor children’s privacy rights, and the rights of the father are arguments used regarding abortion, they are not the key argument in the subject of abortion.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 41

 

  1. Implanting male sperm into the woman’s vagina to aid in conception is called:
a. in vitro fertilization.
b. using a surrogate.
c. artificial insemination.
d. sterilization.

 

 

ANS:  C

When a patient is unable to conceive a child by natural means, the patient may choose artificial insemination, which means implanting sperm into a woman’s vagina. The sperm may come from the woman’s partner, husband, or from a donor.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   pp. 41-42

 

  1. An ethical dilemma of artificial insemination can be:
a. the woman may have too many babies as a result.
b. full consent was not obtained by the partner for implantation.
c. the woman may be too old.
d. the couple breaks up.

 

 

ANS:  B

For the healthcare provider, the best protection to avoid an ethical dilemma of artificial insemination is to ensure he or she has informed consent from both the patient and the partner.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 42

 

  1. When a woman’s ova are harvested and combined with a partner’s sperm cells and grown outside the womb, and then implanted into the uterus later, it is called:
a. in vitro fertilization.
b. using a surrogate.
c. artificial insemination.
d. sterilization.

 

 

ANS:  A

In vitro fertilization is used to assist couples who have difficulty in conception, and it involves combining the ova and sperm outside of the womb. Once the fertilization has occurred, they are placed back inside the uterus. It is now a commonly accepted procedure.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 42

 

  1. In the argument of when life begins, which of the following is not part of the argument?
a. The moment the sperm and ovum are joined
b. When the fertilized egg becomes an embryo at 8 to 14 days
c. When it becomes a fetus between the 18th and 19th week
d. When the child is born

 

 

ANS:  C

An embryo becomes a fetus before the 18th and 19th week. It generally happens between the 8th and 9th week, which is one of the arguments of when life begins. Other arguments include life beginning when fertilization occurs, when the fertilized egg becomes an embryo, or when the child is born.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 42

 

  1. The Baby M case involved:
a. in vitro fertilization.
b. using a surrogate.
c. artificial insemination.
d. sterilization.

 

 

ANS:  B

When Mary Beth Whitehead agreed to be a surrogate mother for a couple, the Supreme Court granted parental rights to her, but awarded physical custody to the family who contracted the surrogate motherhood.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Application          REF:   pp. 43-44

 

  1. Genetic engineering involves:
a. transferring diseases from one person to another.
b. the transfer of stem cells from one person to another.
c. surgery for a disease.
d. correcting the genetic code in chromosomes.

 

 

ANS:  D

Genetic engineering is focused on preventing the transmission of diseases by correcting the genetic code in the current chromosomes; then the subsequent transmission, theoretically, would be corrected for future generations. This could lead to the elimination of diseases such as colon cancer, other cancers, and Alzheimer’s disease.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   pp. 44-45

 

  1. Committees designed to review all research proposals and make sure research standards are met are called:
a. institutional ethics boards.
b. institutional morale boards.
c. institutional Q&A boards.
d. institutional review boards.

 

 

ANS:  D

Institutional review boards have been widely used since the 1970s.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   pp. 39-40

 

  1. Why is stem cell research so important?
a. Because they have the ability to divide and develop into many different types of cells
b. Because of the source of these cells
c. Because they are easily accessible
d. Because they can grow in laboratories

 

 

ANS:  A

Stem cells can divide indefinitely and develop into many different types of cells, particularly during early life when growth and development are underway. Their function is to aid healing by providing essential replacements.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 45

 

  1. What is the main issue in end-of-life decisions?
a. Quality of life
b. Physician’s own beliefs
c. Extending someone’s life without a certain level of comfort
d. Determining when death occurs

 

 

ANS:  D

Quality of life, a physician’s own beliefs, and extending someone’s life artificially are all issues related to the end of life, but the main issue for end-of-life decisions is determining when death occurs.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 46

 

  1. The term palliative care comes from the root that means to:
a. prolong.
b. end.
c. ease.
d. help.

 

 

ANS:  C

The term palliative care comes from the root that means to ease as in the cases of terminally ill patients. When there is no chance of regaining health and the illness is inevitably going to cause the patient’s death, measures are taken to ease suffering associated with the death process.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 46

 

  1. This states that when a patient has irreversibly lost function of the entire brain and/or the circulatory and respiratory systems, they are considered to be dead.
a. Uniform Death Act
b. Uniform Determination of Death Act
c. Death Determination Act
d. Determination of Death Act

 

 

ANS:  B

In 1980, the American Medical Association along with the American Bar Association and the American Academy of Neurology as well as other organizations developed and approved the Uniform Determination of Death Act, which determines when a patient is considered dead.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 47

 

  1. Which is not considered an advance directive?
a. Living will
b. Healthcare proxy
c. Durable power of attorney
d. Power of attorney

 

 

ANS:  D

Advance directives let the healthcare professional know the patient’s wishes when the patient is no longer able to communicate and include living wills, healthcare proxies, and durable power of attorney.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   pp. 46-47

 

  1. A DNR order means the patient does not want resuscitation if he or she:
a. suffers a cardiopulmonary death.
b. suffers a stroke and cannot breathe.
c. has cancer and stops breathing.
d. is in an accident and is near death.

 

 

ANS:  A

DNR orders are only to be used in cases when a person suffers a cardiopulmonary death. It states they will not want measures of CPR taken to regain the cardiac functions.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 48

 

  1. Euthanasia is a bioethical dilemma because:
a. many people do not believe in it.
b. physicians have to make the decision to let someone live or die.
c. many people feel that we should allow a patient to have autonomy over the method of their death.
d. many people do not believe in using artificial means to live.

 

 

ANS:  C

End-of-life cases have generally taken two routes: (1) actively assisting in a suicide or euthanasia and (2) simply withdrawing medical intervention for a patient. Many would argue that these two are vastly different and that withdrawing care or intervention is far different than actually causing the death of an individual. Others feel that it is simply a matter of allowing a patient who will die anyway to have autonomy over the method—just as they are allowed to select their own treatment options after being fully informed.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 48

 

  1. What is the main factor in deciding how to treat a patient?
a. What the physician thinks should happen
b. What the patient wants
c. What the family of the patient wants
d. What is in the best interest of the patient

 

 

ANS:  D

What is in the best interest of the patient’s welfare and health should always be the main factor in deciding how to treat a patient.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 49

 

  1. What is the largest dilemma physicians face when dealing with insurance companies?
a. An insurance company determines what treatments they will cover.
b. An insurance company’s decision is based on cost and profitability.
c. An insurance company does not always have the patient’s best interest at heart.
d. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:  D

Most patients are not inclined to want to assume the expense that would be necessary for many procedures and treatments, including expensive medications, so they must rely on their insurance company’s decisions, which include the treatments that will be covered, the cost and profitability of various treatments, and the course of treatment that is in the insurance company’s best interest, not necessarily the patient’s best interest.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 49

 

  1. What is a benefit of healthcare reform?
a. Procedures and treatments would be less expensive.
b. All patients would be covered and nobody would go without care.
c. Patients would have more control over their healthcare.
d. Patients would be able to go anywhere to get treatment.

 

 

ANS:  B

The obvious benefit of healthcare reform would be that that all patients would be covered and no one would be without care when they need it.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   pp. 49-50

 

  1. What are the cons of healthcare reform?
a. The slowness of care in noncritical situations and early diagnosis
b. Too many patients for one physician
c. No preventive care available
d. More control for the patient in healthcare decisions

 

 

ANS:  A

One of the problems seen in historical models in use in Canada, Australia, the United Kingdom, and many European nations is that it can be very frustrating when it comes to the quickness of care in noncritical cases and the early diagnosis and treatment of some illnesses. In some of these countries, patients with noncritical disorders—rural patients in particular—wait months and in some cases longer for surgical and/or sometimes diagnostic treatments. The lack of choices for the patient and control for the patient in some cases can lead to the patient being unable to get care in time to save his or her life.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   pp. 49-50

 

  1. In the United States, the major problem with health insurance is that:
a. people do not know how to access new health insurance.
b. people would rather go to the emergency department for care so they do not have to pay anything up front.
c. many people are denied care because they do not have health insurance due to cost.
d. most people without health insurance do not receive any care.

 

 

ANS:  C

People with no health insurance are even more deprived than those on socialized medicine, in that they do not get any treatment at all. They are simply denied because of inability to pay.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 50

 

 

Chapter 05: Code and Standards Infractions

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. If an individual does something illegal, whose responsibility is it to enforce sanctions?
a. The person who caught them
b. The person who did the illegal action
c. The employer of the governing entity
d. Their coworkers

 

 

ANS:  C

It is the duty of all healthcare professionals to monitor themselves and uphold the ethical standards of the profession. If an individual does something illegal or unethical it is the responsibility of their employer or governing body to enforce the sanctions that would be appropriate for the violation that occurred.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 70

 

  1. Consequence that is levied against a legal or ethical violation is called:
a. compliance.
b. due process.
c. sanction.
d. disciplinary action.

 

 

ANS:  D

Disciplinary actions are consequences that are levied against an individual who has violated either the laws or the ethical standards for that profession. In the medical field violations can range from the unethical treatment of a patient or individual or negligence of care to a HIPAA violation of privacy, fraud, or other illegal actions.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 70

 

  1. Workplace sanctions depend on ____ to instill.
a. laws
b. whistleblowers
c. professional codes of conduct
d. policies and procedures

 

 

ANS:  C

Although committing an illegal act may bring fines and possible imprisonment, professional and workplace sanctions do not depend on laws, but professional codes of conduct, and may include such corrective actions as termination of employment or loss of license.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   pp. 70-71

 

  1. What are workplace standards?
a. Standards that are expected of employees dependent upon their position
b. Rules of the workplace, no matter your position
c. Laws set forth by local governments
d. Standards set by society

 

 

ANS:  A

Every medical or healthcare employer, whether a hospital, agency, or group practice, should have a set of standards of what is expected of their employees based on their position and expertise. As new employees sign-off on the workplace, they acknowledge the specified consequences that will result from working outside of the parameters of that job description or violating the code of ethics.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 71

 

  1. Disciplinary action varies from all of the following except:
a. state to state.
b. facility to facility.
c. one area of expertise to another.
d. state and federal regulations.

 

 

ANS:  D

Reasons for disciplinary action vary from state to state, facility to facility, and one area of expertise to another. State and federal regulations focus on violations in the areas of fraud, substance abuse, illegal acts, operating without a license, acting outside the scope of practice, and malpractice.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 71

 

  1. What is an example of disciplinary action for a minor infraction?
a. Termination
b. Suspension
c. Large fine
d. Corrective action plan

 

 

ANS:  D

The consequences of a minor infraction may just include a corrective action plan (CAP) by an employer or a temporary loss of license or small fine/penalty.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 71

 

  1. What is an example of a disciplinary action for a serious infraction?
a. Permanent loss of license
b. Small fine
c. Suspension
d. Large fine

 

 

ANS:  A

In the case of a more serious infraction, the person may incur permanent loss of license and heavy fines and penalties. If a physician, for example, is found to be guilty of substance abuse, the physician may have a loss of license imposed by Medicare and or the state licensing board and lose their livelihood.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 71

 

  1. A compliance plan is used to:
a. let the employee know the rules of his or her employer.
b. inform the employee of potential measures to be taken when company policies are violated.
c. inform the employee of the results of not reporting one of their coworkers for any wrongdoing.
d. explain to the employee why he or she should not share a patient’s personal information.

 

 

ANS:  B

All employers should have a written policy or new-hire handbook that details expectations and standards for all employees, including, but not be limited to, dress code, code of ethics, and job description. Taking that one step further, it should also detail the measures to be taken in the event of any violation of the company policies, which would be part of the company’s compliance plan.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   pp. 72-73

 

  1. Protected health information is:
a. information about any individual that is protected by law.
b. the patient’s name.
c. the patient’s address.
d. any information a patient does not want you to know.

 

 

ANS:  A

PHI is information about any individual that is protected by law from being shared or discussed outside proper channels for treatment. This extremely private information includes such crucial data as a person’s Social Security number and date of birth.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 72

 

  1. A patient’s right to confidentiality is covered under:
a. AMA.
b. AHIMA.
c. OCR.
d. HIPAA.

 

 

ANS:  D

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) protects the patient’s right for confidentiality and privacy.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 72

 

  1. What organization regulates HIPAA rules?
a. AMA
b. OIG
c. OCR
d. AHIMA

 

 

ANS:  C

The Office for Civil Rights (OCR) is charged with regulating all established HIPAA rules and regulations.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 72

 

  1. What is necessary for an employee to be terminated for violating a policy that is clearly described in the company’s policies and procedures as “immediate dismissal”?
a. A verbal warning before termination
b. A corrective action plan
c. A written warning before termination
d. Documentation of the offense in the employee’s file

 

 

ANS:  D

If it is not clearly documented in the employee’s file, the employee may be able to challenge his or her termination.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 73

 

  1. Due process is:
a. giving the employee the chance to explain himself.
b. interviewing others who saw the offense.
c. following policies and procedures through every step before termination, and documenting that such steps were taken.
d. firing an employee after speaking to him or her for the third time, but not documenting it.

 

 

ANS:  C

Most employers have a series of steps that must be taken before an employee can be fired. The employer must document each step in the employee’s file to show that due process was followed and that the policy of the institution was obeyed.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 73

 

  1. If a company treats two employees differently for the same infraction, this is considered:
a. noncompliance.
b. discrimination.
c. harassment.
d. illegal.

 

 

ANS:  B

It is considered discrimination if a supervisor or employer treats any one individual differently than another. A compliance officer can ensure this does not happen in the workplace.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 74

 

  1. The Office of the Inspector General investigates:
a. the American Medical Association.
b. the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
c. the Department of Labor.
d. the Department of Health and Human Services.

 

 

ANS:  D

The Office of Inspector General is an independent agency that functions under the Department of Justice to investigate and protect the integrity of the Department of Health and Human Resources (HHS) and their recipients, as well as welfare programs. There are more than 70 OIG offices throughout the United States.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 74

 

  1. A physician bills an insurance company for services not rendered. This is considered:
a. noncompliance.
b. a violation of the Stark laws.
c. a violation of the Medical Practice Acts.
d. fraud.

 

 

ANS:  D

Fraud is the intentional act to misrepresent facts or mislead in order to gain financially. In this case, the physician would gain financially, so it would be considered fraud.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 74

 

  1. If it is not documented:
a. it did not happen.
b. it can be documented later.
c. it may have happened.
d. it can be billed out.

 

 

ANS:  A

If it is not documented, it did not happen and you cannot bill for it. Many providers are lacking in documentation skills, and, as a result, the work performed is not billed.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 74

 

  1. Down-coding can be considered:
a. a violation of the Stark laws.
b. a violation of the Medical Practice Acts.
c. fraud.
d. noncompliance.

 

 

ANS:  C

Many providers down-code their services to avoid any fraud, but indeed this too is considered to be fraud, although, unlike falsely billing or coding to increase reimbursement, there are no cases of known prosecution for down-coding.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 74

 

  1. If a coder consistently put the wrong code on a claim, this is considered:
a. a fraudulent claim.
b. an infraction.
c. acceptable.
d. a simple mistake.

 

 

ANS:  B

This mistake is not deliberate fraud, but it is of course an infraction—a breaking of the principles and requirements of the insurance carrier for billing and coding.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 76

 

  1. If due diligence is shown in a billing error on behalf of the provider, and any refunds are paid to the insurance company, generally:
a. the provider is issued a fine, but not prosecuted.
b. the provider is fined and prosecuted.
c. the provider is prosecuted, but not fined.
d. no further action is taken.

 

 

ANS:  D

Generally, if the compliance officer shows due diligence to correct a problem found, and voluntarily submits documentation and pays back any monies they received because of it, the carrier sees that the provider is attempting to maintain the integrity of their billing and coding and no further action is taken.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 76

 

  1. If an insurance carrier finds an error, they look for:
a. the intent of the error.
b. reasons to sue the physician.
c. who is responsible for the error within the physician’s office.
d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  A

Overall, the main focus of these cases is the intention of the provider. Was this act deliberate or intentionally misleading (and thus fraudulent)? Or did the provider and billing staff just make a mistake—that is, commit an infraction? If a case is found to be intentional, the fraudulent acts will lead to prosecution, and, as we have noted, the fines and penalties can be substantial.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 76

 

  1. If a physician receives rewards from a drug manufacturer to prescribe their drugs, this is considered:
a. abuse of privilege.
b. kickbacks.
c. a violation of the Stark laws.
d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

Kickbacks create in a physician a bias towards promoting certain specialists, treatments, drugs, and other services or products because promoting them brings personal financial gain for that physician. It is also an abuse of privilege and a violation of the Stark Laws.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 76

 

  1. The Medical Practice Act that governs healthcare professionals is regulated:
a. locally.
b. state by state.
c. federally.
d. by all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  B

Each state has its own Medical Practice Act, which provides laws that govern healthcare professionals’ scope of practice and licensing requirements.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   p. 77

 

  1. Physicians are governed not only by state laws but also by:
a. the American Medical Association.
b. the Association of American Physicians.
c. the American Medical Group Association.
d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  A

The AMA sets standards for medical education and advancing medical science and has the power to govern physicians, as well as having the power to revoke physician licenses.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Knowledge          REF:   p. 77

 

  1. If a healthcare professional oversteps his or her scope of practice, which can occur?
a. Loss of license
b. License suspension
c. Censure
d. All of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

Depending on the case and applicable laws, sanctions can include the following, among others: loss of license, suspension of license, loss of membership to the organization, censure, licensing limitations and restrictions, required treatment, and requirements for further education.

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Comprehension   REF:   pp. 77-78