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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
 
Therapeutic Modalities 4th Edition by Chad Starkey – Test Bank
 
Sample  Questions

 

Chapter 3 Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   Which is most useful when determining the efficacy of an intervention?

A. Minimum detectable change
B. Minimally clinically important change
C. Maximum detectable change
D. Maximally clinically important change

 

 

____    2.   PICO is a mnemonic that provides structure for developing clinical questions. When developing a clinical question, what part of the mnemonic represents the therapy being considered?

A. Patient
B. Intervention
C. Comparison
D. Outcomes

 

 

____    3.   Which component of evidence-based practice carries the least weight when making decisions?

A. Personal experience
B. Best available evidence
C. Patient values and preferences
D. Personal experience, best available evidence, and patient values all carry the same weight.

 

 

____    4.   What are the first three steps of the problem-solving approach?

A. Obtain a medical history, identify patient limitations and restrictions, and prioritize problems
B. Obtain a medical history, review the evidence, and set treatment goals
C. Identify patient limitations and restrictions, prioritize problems, and set treatment goals
D. Identify patient limitations and restrictions, set treatment goals, and review the evidence

 

 

____    5.   In which component of the problem-solving approach would you identify the stage of the healing process?

A. Medical history
B. Recognition of the problem
C. Goal setting
D. Treatment planning

 

 

____    6.   In order to develop a logical treatment sequence in the problem-solving approach, problems should be prioritized based on what?

A. Cause-and-effect relationship to the patient’s functional limitations
B. Importance of the treatment to the patient
C. Importance of the treatment to the clinician
D. Cost of the proposed intervention

 

 

____    7.   When based on ______________, treatment goals can be used as the basis for research on treatment efficacy.

A. outcome measures
B. patient preference
C. cost effectiveness
D. short-term goals

 

 

____    8.   Which of the following goals is quantifiable and measures function?

A. Increase passive dorsiflexion by 2 degrees
B. Increase active dorsiflexion
C. Increase active dorsiflexion to allow patient to climb stairs unassisted
D. Increase active assistive dorsiflexion

 

 

____    9.   Which statement accurately describes long-term goals?

A. Long-term goals are revised more often than short-term goals.
B. There are typically more long-term goals than short-term goals.
C. Long-term goals focus on restoring participation.
D. Long-term goals tend to address specific pathologies.

 

 

____  10.   When treatment planning, what largely determines the types of modalities that will resolve a pathology?

A. Stage of the healing process
B. Length of application
C. Amplitude at which the modality is applied
D. Type of insurance carried by the patient

 

 

____  11.   When determining the best method for heat application, which surface would best be served with a whirlpool over a moist heat pack?

A. Thigh
B. Lower leg
C. Ankle
D. Upper arm

 

 

____  12.   Which common tool used in the examination of orthopedic injuries can be measured with a handheld dynamometer?

A. Active range of motion
B. Muscle function assessment
C. Hypertrophy
D. Sensation

 

 

____  13.   Which common tool used in the examination of orthopedic injuries is contraindicated when the patient suffers from dementia or disorientation?

A. Weight-bearing status
B. Pain
C. Sensation
D. Flexibility

 

 

____  14.   According to the World Health Organization, which is an environmental contextual factor that can help determine a patient’s level of function/disability?

A. A person’s gender
B. A person’s profession
C. A person’s life experiences
D. Social attitudes where a person works

 

 

____  15.   What is the purpose of “Condition” in the ABCD goal-writing structure?

A. To identify the person performing the task
B. To describe the task using action terms
C. To define the tools or techniques used in obtaining the goal
D. To identify the quality with which the task will be performed

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   Which of the following are considered external factors that affect the development of a treatment plan? Select all that apply.

A. Expertise of the staff
B. Financial constraints
C. Type of available equipment
D. Patient’s motivation
E. Support the patient receives from friends and family

 

 

____    2.   Which databases are designed to answer clinical questions through the incorporation of publications from multiple databases? Select all that apply.

A. PEDro
B. Cochrane
C. PubMed
D. SPORTDiscus
E. Google

 

 

____    3.   Which factors should be considered when determining if a therapeutic modality would be effective in treating a specific condition? Select all that apply.

A. What is the cost of the therapeutic modality?
B. Does the modality produce the physiological response to promote healing?
C. Can the modality affect the target tissue?
D. Does the device improve patient outcomes?
E. What is the ease of applying the modality?

 

 

____    4.   Planning a treatment and rehabilitation program requires the integration of what complex skills? Select all that apply.

A. Clinical examination skills
B. Knowledge of pathology
C. Identification of the patient’s level of function
D. Identification of the patient’s participation restrictions
E. Knowledge of the current costs associated with common modalities

 

 

____    5.   The problem-solving approach to developing an intervention strategy is a logic-based technique that uses what components? Select all that apply.

A. Clinical examination findings
B. Patient’s long-term goals
C. Best available evidence
D. Cost of the interventions
E. Supplies of the facility

 

Chapter 5 Thermal Modalities

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   Every 1.8°F change in tissue temperature results in a ____ percent change in the tissues’ metabolic rate.

A. 5
B. 7
C. 13
D. 20

 

 

____    2.   Which is a contraindication to cold application?

A. Chronic wound
B. Chronic pain
C. Neuralgia
D. Chronic muscle spasm

 

 

____    3.   Cryotherapy modalities have a temperature range between 32°F and ____°F.

A. 65
B. 55
C. 45
D. 75

 

 

____    4.   Which local response will occur as the body responds to heat loss from cryotherapy?

A. Vasodilation
B. Decreased metabolic rate
C. Increased inflammation
D. Increased pain

 

 

____    5.   What is the correct order of cooling in tissues?

A. Skin, adipose, fascia, muscle
B. Skin, fascia, muscle, adipose
C. Skin, adipose, muscle, fascia
D. Skin, muscle, fascia, adipose

 

 

____    6.   What statement is true regarding skin temperature and muscular temperature following cold treatments?

A. Unlike muscle, skin temperature continues to decrease for up to 30 minutes after modality removal.
B. Intramuscular cooling is increased when modality is applied following exercise.
C. Muscle cooling is diminished when the patient remains sedentary.
D. Skin temperature is a good indicator of the temperature of underlying tissues.

 

 

____    7.   Which scenario will result in the greatest decrease of subcutaneous tissue temperatures?

A. Ice bag applied with a compression wrap
B. Ice bag alone
C. Ice bag applied over an elastic wrap
D. Ice bag applied with a compression wrap over an elastic wrap

 

 

____    8.   Maximum analgesia occurs when skin temperature drops to approximately ____°F, which occurs after around 20 minutes after ice pack application.

A. 58
B. 28
C. 32
D. 45

 

 

____    9.   Which sensation of cold results from decreased nerve conduction velocity and an increase in the threshold required to fire nerves? This sensation is seldom achieved with cold application.

A. Anesthesia
B. Analgesia
C. Aching
D. Burning

 

 

____  10.   Which is a primary hemodynamic effect of cold application?

A. Arteriole vasodilation
B. Increased blood viscosity
C. Increased blood flow
D. Capillary vasoconstriction

 

 

____  11.   Based on the practical evidence, which cold application is more effective at decreasing sensory and motor nerve conduction velocity?

A. Cold water immersion
B. Ice pack application
C. Ice massage
D. Immersion, ice pack, and ice massage have the same effect.

 

 

____  12.   What is identified when skin has ghost-white areas and beet-red splotches?

A. Mottling
B. Erythema
C. Pallor
D. Cyanosis

 

 

____  13.   What primary method is used to heat tissue when ultrasound is applied?

A. Mechanical action
B. Chemical action
C. Energy transfer
D. Magnetic current

 

 

____  14.   How deep are superficial heating agents able to penetrate?

A. Less than 2 cm
B. 2 cm to 4 cm
C. 4 cm to 6 cm
D. Greater than 6 cm

 

 

____  15.   When comparing heat and cold, which of the following accurately describes the effect of heat treatments?

A. Decreased cell wastes
B. Decreased blood flow
C. Increased fluid viscosity
D. Increased capillary permeability

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   What factors will influence skin temperature? Select all that apply.

A. Ambient temperature
B. Humidity
C. Exercise
D. Food consumption
E. Mood

 

 

____    2.   In which scenarios is heat indicated? Select all that apply.

A. To encourage tissue healing
B. To control the inflammatory reaction in its subacute or chronic stages
C. To improve range of motion
D. When acute inflammation is active
E. After activity to decrease cell metabolism

 

 

____    3.   What effect does cold application have on edema formation and reduction? Select all that apply.

A. Cryotherapy limits edema formation.
B. Cryotherapy reduces the effects of arthrogenic inhibition.
C. Cold application promotes the removal of edema.
D. Cold application will not hinder venous return.
E. Cryotherapy decreases cell metabolism, which leads to less secondary hypoxic injury.

 

 

____    4.   Which nerves are most susceptible to cold-induced neuropathy? Select all that apply.

A. Ulnar
B. Peroneal
C. Femoral
D. Tibial
E. Radial

 

 

____    5.   Heat produces vasodilation through a combination of what mechanisms? Select all that apply.

A. Arteriole smooth muscle relaxes
B. Capillary smooth muscle relaxes
C. Release of neurotransmitters and peptides
D. Spinal level reflex
E. Cerebral cortex level reflex

 

 

Chapter 7 Therapeutic Ultrasound

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   How large of a treatment area can be effectively exposed to ultrasonic energy?

A. Slightly larger than the diameter of the sound head
B. Slightly smaller than the diameter of the sound head
C. Equivalent to the diameter of the sound head
D. Significantly larger than the diameter of the sound head

 

 

____    2.   Due to its _________ frequencies, ultrasound is unable to pass through the air and requires a dense transmission medium.

A. high
B. low
C. alternating
D. medium

 

 

____    3.   Ultrasound is able to pass through both solid and liquid mediums because it travels as a _________ wave.

A. longitudinal
B. perpendicular
C. parallel
D. short

 

 

____    4.   Which output frequency will penetrate deeper into the tissue?

A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 3 MHz
D. 1, 2, and 3 MHz all penetrate the same depth

 

 

____    5.   Which is an accurate statement concerning the use of 3-MHz ultrasound?

A. Used to treat deep tissues
B. Energy is rapidly absorbed by tissues
C. Heats 1/3 as fast as 1 MHz
D. Heating lasts longer than 1 MHz

 

 

____    6.   Which describes the amount of energy passing through the sound head’s effective radiating area?

A. Spatial average intensity
B. Spatial average temporal peak intensity
C. Spatial average temporal average intensity
D. Spatial average peak-to-peak intensity

 

 

____    7.   A beam nonuniformity ratio of greater than ______ is considered unacceptable and potentially harmful.

A. 8:1
B. 5:1
C. 2:1
D. 11:1

 

 

____    8.   The half layer value represents the depth where what percentage of ultrasonic energy has been absorbed?

A. 25 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 100 percent

 

 

____    9.   Ultrasound with continuous output produces energy 100 percent of the time. In what terms is the output measured?

A. Spatial average intensity
B. Spatial average temporal peak intensity
C. Spatial average temporal average intensity
D. Spatial average peak-to-peak intensity

 

 

____  10.   When using ultrasound, what depth of tissue will a 3-MHz output frequency effectively treat?

A. 1 cm
B. 2 to 3 cm
C. 3 to 4 cm
D. 4 to 5 cm

 

 

____  11.   When using ultrasound, how much does the target tissue’s temperature need to be increased in order to promote tissue elongation?

A. 3.2°F
B. 5.2°F
C. 7.2°F
D. 10°F

 

 

____  12.   What is believed to cause small openings in the stratum corneum and an increase in pore size?

A. Cavitation
B. Attenuation
C. Piezoelectric crystals
D. Electropiezo effect

 

 

____  13.   Which interface results in 99.9 percent of ultrasound energy being reflected?

A. Soft tissue—air
B. Soft tissue—bone
C. Soft tissue—fat
D. Water—soft tissue

 

 

____  14.   What temperature increase is required to decrease muscle spasm and pain?

A. 1°C
B. 2 to 3°C
C. 3 to 4°C
D. 5°C

 

 

____  15.   When compared to traditional therapeutic ultrasound, which is an accurate statement about longwave ultrasound?

A. Longwave ultrasound employs a longer wavelength, ranging between 20 and 40 MHz.
B. Longwave can produce bone-depth heating in the largest muscle masses.
C. Much like shortwave ultrasound, longwave also requires a transmission medium.
D. Longwave requires a larger output to reach therapeutic heating levels.

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   Which tissues and structures are highly reflective of ultrasound energy? Select all that apply.

A. Interface between soft tissue and bone
B. Musculotendinous junction
C. Intermuscular interfaces
D. Adipose tissue
E. Skin

 

 

____    2.   Which ultrasound setups are considered nonthermal? Select all that apply.

A. 25 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 0.5 W/cm2
B. 100 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 0.3 W/cm2
C. 25 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 1 W/cm2
D. 100 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 1 W/cm2
E. 50 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 1.5 W/cm2

 

 

____    3.   Over which areas can ultrasound be applied when caution is used? Select all that apply.

A. Vertebral column
B. Nerve roots
C. Large nerve plexus
D. Heart
E. Genitals

 

 

____    4.   Which of the following represents a 1-MHz output frequency? Select all that apply.

A. Divergent beam
B. Maximum heating rate of 0.36°F per minute per W/cm2
C. Penetration depth of 0.8 to 3 cm
D. Maximum heating rate of 1.1°F per minute per W/cm2
E. Collimated beam

 

 

____    5.   Which medications commonly administered via phonophoresis target nerves, muscles, and subcutaneous tissues? Select all that apply.

A. Hydrocortisone
B. Dexamethasone 0.4 percent
C. Myoflex
D. Lidocaine
E. Benzydamine

Chapter 9 Shortwave Diathermy

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   Shortwave diathermy is a(n) ______ frequency electrical current that produces deep-tissue heating.

A. high-
B. low-
C. alternating
D. pulsed

 

 

____    2.   When using microwave diathermy, how far must all metal be from pads, drums, or coils of the unit?

A. At least 2 feet
B. At least 4 feet
C. At least 6 feet
D. At least 8 feet

 

 

____    3.   Which of the following are similar between shortwave diathermy and ultrasound?

A. Thermal and nonthermal effects
B. Volume of tissue treated
C. Bone’s reflection of energy
D. Depth of treatment

 

 

____    4.   What type of shortwave diathermy places the patient in the electromagnetic field produced by the unit?

A. Induction field generators
B. Capacitive field generators
C. Capacitive field generators and induction field generators
D. Neither the capacitive field generators nor the induction field generators

 

 

____    5.   Which of the following statements is accurate regarding inductive shortwave diathermy?

A. The generator produces the greatest heat directly adjacent to the coil.
B. The amount of heating is highly dependent on water content.
C. The heating is tissue-type specific.
D. Inductive is considered safer than capacitive.

 

 

____    6.   Due to the complexity of setup and the potential for burns, what method is infrequently used?

A. Drum
B. Cable
C. Electrode
D. Pan

 

 

____    7.   What type of shortwave diathermy produces heat via the dipole effect?

A. Induction field generators
B. Capacitive field generators
C. Capacitive field generators and induction field generators
D. Neither the capacitive field generators nor the induction field generators

 

 

____    8.   When a capacitive field generator is used, what tissue will present the most electrical resistance and thus produce the most heat?

A. Adipose
B. Skin
C. Muscle
D. Fascia

 

 

____    9.   Continuous shortwave diathermy is typically limited to what conditions?

A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Subacute
D. Postsurgical

 

 

____  10.   What effects can pulsed shortwave diathermy produce?

A. Thermal only
B. Nonthermal only
C. Thermal and nonthermal
D. Neither thermal nor nonthermal

 

 

____  11.   Shortwave diathermy has a benefit over ultrasound because it can increase intramuscular temperature to what level?

A. 4 to 5°C
B. 1 to 2°C
C. 3 to 4°C
D. 5 to 6°C

 

 

____  12.   Which modality heats the largest volume of tissue?

A. Thermal ultrasound
B. Moist heat pack
C. Shortwave diathermy
D. Plug-in heat pack

 

 

____  13.   Which modality offers the longest stretching window post-treatment?

A. Thermal ultrasound
B. Moist heat pack
C. Shortwave diathermy
D. Plug-in heat pack

 

 

____  14.   What is an accurate statement regarding the heat generated via induction field diathermy?

A. The amount of heat depends only on the strength of the magnetic field.
B. Increasing the distance between the source of the electromagnetic field and the tissue will increase the heating.
C. Heat is produced via the dipole effect.
D. Increased adipose tissue thickness will reduce the rate and magnitude of heating.

 

 

____  15.   According to the practical evidence, what is one of the most common clinical uses of shortwave diathermy?

A. Osteoarthritic knees
B. Hip flexor strain
C. Posterior thigh muscle spasm
D. Deep-vein thrombosis

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   What tissues are selectively heated via induction field shortwave diathermy? Select all that apply.

A. Muscle
B. Bone
C. Adipose
D. Skin
E. Nervous

 

 

____    2.   Which of the following are considered nonthermal effects associated with shortwave diathermy? Select all that apply.

A. Increased microvascular perfusion
B. Activation of fibroblast growth factors
C. Increased macrophage activity
D. Promotion of edema reduction
E. Reduction of muscle hypertrophy

 

 

____    3.   Which are used to create nonthermal effects with shortwave diathermy treatment? Select all that apply.

A. Low average intensity
B. High average intensity
C. Short pulse duration
D. Long pulse duration
E. Low duty cycle

 

 

____    4.   Which are accurate statements about shortwave diathermy when comparing it to ultrasound? Select all that apply.

A. Shortwave diathermy uses acoustic energy.
B. Shortwave diathermy targets collagen-rich tissues.
C. Shortwave diathermy heats a large volume of tissue.
D. Shortwave diathermy increases intramuscular tissue by 18°F.
E. Shortwave diathermy heat is retained longer than that of ultrasound.

 

 

____    5.   Which of the following accurately represents shortwave diathermy (SWD) and not microwave diathermy MWD? Select all that apply.

A. SWD uses a magnetron that produces high-frequency electromagnetic energy.
B. Magnetic as opposed to electric fields are predominant in SWD.
C. With SWD, superficial tissues are heated more than deeper tissues.
D. The radiation created by SWD penetrates the fat layer better than MWD.
E. The effects of SWD occur at only about one-third the depth that MWD effects.

 

 

Chapter 11 Principles of Electrical Stimulation

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   Consider the principles of electrical stimulation and select the most accurate statement about electricity.

A. Electricity is a force created by the imbalance in the number of positively charged electrons.
B. Electrical current will flow from low electron concentration to an area of high electron concentration.
C. The electrical current will always take the path of most resistance.
D. The electrical current will flow from the cathode to the anode.

 

 

____    2.   What type of electrical current is identified by the fact that electron flow is interrupted by discrete periods of no electron flow?

A. Direct current
B. Alternating current
C. Pulsed current
D. Polyphasic current

 

 

____    3.   What property of electrical current identifies the maximum distance that the pulse rises above or below the isoelectric point?

A. Amplitude
B. Phase duration
C. Pulse width
D. Pulse charge

 

 

____    4.   What type of current do interferential stimulators use?

A. Direct current
B. Alternating current
C. Pulsed current
D. Polyphasic current

 

 

____    5.   What parameter of interferential current identified as the distance from the peak on the positive side of the baseline to the peak on the negative side?

A. Peak-to-peak amplitude
B. Peak value
C. Cycle duration
D. Peak frequency

 

 

____    6.   When using an alternating current, how many times would a current of 100 Hz change its direction of flow in two seconds?

A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

 

 

____    7.   What type of current does high-voltage pulsed stimulation use?

A. Monophasic
B. Biphasic
C. Pulsed
D. Asymmetrical

 

 

____    8.   Due to the lower charge per phase, which of the following waveforms tends to be the most comfortable for patients?

A. Symmetrical biphasic
B. Asymmetrical biphasic
C. Unbalanced symmetrical biphasic
D. Unbalanced asymmetrical biphasic

 

 

____    9.   When examining the pulse characteristics, what is the most important factor when determining what type of tissue will be stimulated?

A. Phase duration
B. Interpulse interval
C. Intrapulse interval
D. Pulse duration

 

 

____  10.   What is the unit of potential difference and represents the amount of work required to move one coulomb of charge?

A. Volt
B. Milliampere
C. Ampere
D. Current

 

 

____  11.   What is used to measure a material’s resistance to the movement of electrons?

A. Ampere
B. Henry
C. Ohm
D. Mho

 

 

____  12.   What biological tissue is the primary resistor to therapeutic electrical flow?

A. Skin
B. Muscle
C. Adipose
D. Fascia

 

 

____  13.   What unit is used to express the relationship between voltage and amperage?

A. Wattage
B. Mhos
C. Inductance
D. Coulombs

 

 

____  14.   In a parallel circuit, the ____________ is varied, but the ____________ remains constant?

A. amperage; voltage
B. voltage; wattage
C. wattage; amperage
D. voltage; amperage

 

 

____  15.   The physiological effects of electrical stimulation are related to what characteristic?

A. Current density
B. Average current
C. Duty cycle
D. Ohm’s law

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   When using a monophasic current, what parameters are synonymous and refer to the same aspect of the current? Select all that apply.

A. Pulse
B. Waveform
C. Phase
D. Amplitude
E. Pulse duration

 

 

____    2.   When examining the attributes of the pulse, which of the following will lead to an increase in the total charge of the pulse? Select all that apply.

A. Increase amplitude
B. Increase pulse duration
C. Decrease pulse duration
D. Increase interpulse interval
E. Increase cycle duration

 

 

____    3.   An electrical stimulation unit uses what carrier frequencies for their heating effects? Select all that apply.

A. 500 cycles per second
B. 10,000 cycles per second
C. 100,000 cycles per second
D. 200,000 cycles per second
E. 1000 cycles per second

 

 

____    4.   What two properties are collectively known as impedance? Select all that apply.

A. Inductance
B. Capacitance
C. Resistance
D. Ohm’s law
E. Wattage

 

 

____    5.   Ohm’s law describes the relationship between what characteristics of electrical currents? Select all that apply.

A. Amperage
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Wattage
E. Frequency

 

 

Chapter 13 Clinical Application of Electrical Agents

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   When preparing the patient for a pain-control technique with electrical stimulation, one should ask about caffeine intake. The effectiveness of electrical stimulation on pain control is diminished after how many milligrams of caffeine have been ingested?

A. 200
B. 150
C. 100
D. 50

 

 

____    2.   When using a monopolar technique, where is a good area to place the dispersive electrode?

A. Abdomen
B. Thigh
C. Knee
D. Shoulder

 

 

____    3.   What electrotherapy agent strictly uses a monophasic current?

A. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
B. High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)
C. Interferential stimulation (IFS)
D. Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)

 

 

____    4.   When applying transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), which protocol provides relief for hours and uses two to four pulses per second?

A. High TENS
B. Low TENS
C. Brief-intense TENS
D. Long-intense TENS

 

 

____    5.   What iontophoresis medication can be used on a heterotopic ossification?

A. Acetic acid
B. Dexamethasone and lidocaine
C. Lidocaine and epinephrine
D. Dexamethasone

 

 

____    6.   What output modulation of interferential stimulation is analogous to the number of cycles per second?

A. Beat frequency
B. Burst duty cycle
C. Interburst interval
D. Premodulation

 

 

____    7.   When attempting to control pain via the gate-control mechanism, what are correct high-voltage pulsed stimulation parameter settings?

A. Motor-level output intensity
B. Pulse frequency of 60 to 100 pps
C. Electrode placement distal to the spinal nerve root origin
D. 50 percent duty cycle

 

 

____    8.   The primary purpose of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is to control pain by depolarizing what nerves?

A. Sensory
B. Motor
C. Nociceptive
D. Sensory, motor, or nociceptive

 

 

____    9.   What electrical current frequency will experience the least capacitive skin resistance?

A. 500 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 2000 Hz
D. 5000 Hz

 

 

____  10.   When applying iontophoresis with lidocaine, in concentrations up to 50 percent, what is the minimum time of application to anesthetize the skin?

A. 5 min
B. 10 min
C. 20 min
D. 30 min

 

 

____  11.   What feature distinguishes microcurrent from other electrical modalities?

A. Microcurrent does not attempt to excite peripheral nerves.
B. Microcurrent only attempts to excite sensory nerves.
C. Microcurrent only attempts to excite motor nerves.
D. Microcurrent only attempts to excite nociceptive nerves.

 

 

____  12.   What type of electrical interference occurs when two electrical currents are in perfect phase, meaning the wavelengths are equal and the phases cross the baseline at the same point?

A. Constructive interference
B. Destructive interference
C. Continuous interference
D. Contiguous interference

 

 

____  13.   “Russian” stimulation is an excellent method for what purpose?

A. Decreasing muscular atrophy
B. Modulating pain
C. Reducing edema
D. Helping superficial wound healing

 

 

____  14.   What is a proper indication for use of neuromuscular electrical stimulation?

A. Prevention of joint contractures
B. Acute pain
C. Superficial wound healing
D. Arthritis

 

 

____  15.   What is an indication for the use of iontophoresis?

A. Reduction of muscle spasm
B. Postsurgical pain
C. Contusions
D. Arthritis

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   Most effects of electrical stimulation are the direct result of stimulation to what? Select all that apply.

A. Sensory nerves
B. Motor nerves
C. Adipose tissue
D. Fascia
E. Muscle fibers

 

 

____    2.   Which electrotherapy agents are indicated for muscle disuse atrophy? Select all that apply.

A. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
B. High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)
C. Interferential stimulation (IFS)
D. Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)
E. Microcurrent electrical stimulation

 

 

____    3.   What are indications for the use of microcurrent electrical stimulation? Select all that apply.

A. Sprain
B. Neuropathies
C. Superficial wound healing
D. Hyperhidrosis
E. Myofascial pain syndrome

 

 

____    4.   Why is neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) able to provide stronger neuromuscular stimulation? Select all that apply.

A. Large amplitude
B. Long phase duration
C. Short phase duration
D. Lower intensities
E. Faster ramping

 

 

____    5.   Which of the following are indications for the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation? Select all that apply.

A. Acute pain
B. Increasing local blood flow
C. Postsurgical pain
D. Pain of unknown origin
E. Muscle reeducation

 

 

Chapter 15 Continuous Passive Motion

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   While continuous passive motion can be used on many different joints, what joint is it predominantly used with?

A. Knee
B. Shoulder
C. Ankle
D. Elbow

 

 

____    2.   The design of what continuous passive motion device is similar to manually moving the patient’s limb through a range of motion?

A. Free linkage design
B. Anatomic design
C. Nonanatomic design
D. Locked linkage design

 

 

____    3.   What continuous passive motion design is most suitable for use with the knee?

A. Free linkage design
B. Anatomic design
C. Nonanatomic design
D. Locked linkage design

 

 

____    4.   Which form of continuous passive motion device allows for compensatory motion between the patient’s extremity and the carriage of the device?

A. Free linkage design
B. Anatomic design
C. Nonanatomic design
D. Locked linkage design

 

 

____    5.   Which option below best represents the philosophy regarding the effects of continuous passive motion?

A. Motion that is never lost need never be regained. It is the regaining of movement that is painful.
B. Motion that is lost must be regained. It is the regaining of movement that is painful.
C. Motion that is lost must be regained. It is the loss of movement that is painful.
D. Motion that is never lost need never be regained. It is the loss of movement that is painful.

 

 

____    6.   Throughout a range of motion, when is joint volume normally at its greatest?

A. Full extension
B. Full flexion
C. Midrange between flexion and extension
D. Volume does not change throughout a range of motion

 

 

____    7.   According to the practical evidence, knee flexion and knee extension motion is increased only _________ when continuous passive motion is used following knee arthroplasty?

A. 2 to 3 degrees
B. 4 to 5 degrees
C. 6 to 7 degrees
D. 8 to 9 degrees

 

 

____    8.   Which of the following is not a benefit realized through the use of continuous passive motion?

A. Increased strength
B. Decreased apprehension to joint movement after surgery
C. Restoration of range of motion
D. Decreased functional shortening of muscle

 

 

____    9.   The application of continuous passive motion is thought to stimulate the circulation of synovial fluid, which enhances the uptake of nutrients by what tissue in the knee?

A. Meniscal cartilage and articular cartilage
B. Articular cartilage only
C. Meniscal cartilage only
D. Neither meniscal cartilage nor articular cartilage

 

 

____  10.   The passive movements and elevation of the body part are components of continuous passive motion that increase which factors?

A. Venous return
B. Lymphatic and arteriole return
C. Venous and lymphatic return
D. Venous and arteriole return

 

 

____  11.   Continuous passive motion can possibly provide pain reduction via the gate mechanism, which occurs from the stimulation of afferent nerves located in what tissues?

A. Muscle and joint
B. Skin and muscle
C. Joint and skin
D. Skin, joint, and muscle

 

 

____  12.   After surgery, continuous passive motion is typically used for _______ hours a day.

A. 8 to 10
B. 2 to 4
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8

 

 

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

____    1.   The decision to use continuous passive motion should be based on the specific pathology to be treated.

 

____    2.   Continuous passive motion is more effective than static stretching when increasing range of motion due to soft tissue restriction.

 

____    3.   When compared to faster speeds, slower speeds of continuous passive motion are theorized to produce better tensile properties of healing tendons.

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   Robert Salter originally proposed the use of continuous passive motion and hypothesized that its application would be beneficial in which ways? Select all that apply.

A. Enhancing the nutrition and metabolic activity of articular cartilage
B. Stimulating tissue remodeling and regrowth of articular cartilage
C. Accelerating the healing of articular cartilage, tendons, and ligaments
D. Accelerating the healing of muscle tissues
E. Stimulating an increase in muscular strength and metabolic activity

 

 

____    2.   Which of the following is reduced during the realignment of collagen that occurs with the use of continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.

A. Functional shortening of collagen
B. Cross-linking of collagen
C. Capsular adhesions
D. Tensile strength of tendon
E. Tensile strength of allografts

 

 

____    3.   The pumping action created by continuous passive motion circulates synovial fluid and assists in the removal of what? Select all that apply.

A. Joint hemarthrosis
B. Periarticular edema
C. Blood from tissue surrounding the joint
D. Pitting edema
E. Lymphedema

 

 

____    4.   Which are considered contraindications to the use of continual passive motion? Select all that apply.

A. Unstable fracture
B. Uncontrolled infection
C. After joint debridement
D. After osteochondral repair
E. Tendon laceration

 

 

____    5.   Which of the following are indications to treat with continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.

A. After joint arthroplasty
B. Joint contracture
C. Thrombophlebitis
D. After meniscectomy
E. Spastic paralysis

 

 

Chapter 17 Therapeutic Massage

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   Which modality is considered one of the oldest healing techniques?

A. Massage
B. Moist heat pack
C. Traction
D. Ice

 

 

____    2.   Due to the possibility of misuse, many states require what type of regulation for massage therapists?

A. Licensure
B. Certification
C. Registration
D. No regulation is required.

 

 

____    3.   Which form of massage is described as a stroking of the skin?

A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Friction massage
D. Myofascial release

 

 

____    4.   What type of effleurage stroke encourages blood flow and stimulates the tissues?

A. Light strokes
B. Rapid strokes
C. Deep strokes
D. Slow strokes

 

 

____    5.   What type of massage uses the thumbs or fingertips to stroke the tissue from opposite directions while targeting the underlying tissue structure to treat trigger points, tendinitis, or postsurgical scars?

A. Transverse friction massage
B. Circular friction massage
C. Sports massage
D. Active release technique of myofascial release

 

 

____    6.   When performing ischemic compression, the amount of pressure applied should be determined by the patient’s tolerance. On a scale of 1 to 10, what level should not be exceeded?

A. 7 or 8
B. 10
C. 8 or 9
D. 6 or 7

 

 

____    7.   “Sports massage” is a broad term that is used to describe the combination of what massage techniques?

A. Effleurage and petrissage
B. Petrissage and friction massage
C. Effleurage and friction massage
D. Effleurage, petrissage, and friction massage

 

 

____    8.   What describes the proper procedure when performing the active assistive technique of “sports massage”?

A. Distal to proximal and parallel to the muscle fibers
B. Distal to proximal and perpendicular to the muscle fibers
C. Proximal to distal and parallel to the muscle fibers
D. Proximal to distal and perpendicular to the muscle fibers

 

 

____    9.   Which of the following accurately describes a general form of myofascial release application?

A. Stabilize distal portion with one hand while applying a stretch with the other.
B. Pull the tissues in opposite directions.
C. Use the patient’s body weight to stabilize the extremity while a transverse stretch is applied.
D. Stabilize the superior with one hand while stretching with the other.

 

 

____  10.   What is the most fundamental form of myofascial release?

A. J-stroke
B. Focused stretching
C. Skin rolling
D. Diagonal release

 

 

____  11.   Which is an accurate statement regarding self-myofascial release?

A. The athlete should start with a high-density foam roller.
B. The athlete should roll perpendicular to the muscle fiber direction.
C. The athlete should hold a location of hypersensitivity for a maximum of 30 seconds.
D. Self-myofascial release should be done only once a week due to resulting soreness.

 

 

____  12.   The active release technique of myofascial release can be very painful and should be limited to ____ glides per treatment, with a minimum of ______ hours between treatments.

A. 3; 48
B. 5; 72
C. 2; 24
D. 4; 12

 

 

____  13.   Which basic massage stroke is typically applied to increase blood flow and provide systemic invigoration of tissues?

A. Neuromuscular stroke
B. Tapotement
C. Vibration
D. Active assisted

 

 

____  14.   Which of the following is an indication for the use of friction massage and not petrissage?

A. Chronic conditions
B. Areas of multiple muscles
C. Superficial muscles
D. Realignment of scar tissue

 

 

____  15.   Which of the following is an indication for the use of therapeutic massage?

A. Active inflammation
B. Area of sensory deficit
C. Hematoma
D. Pain-spasm cycle

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   Which of the following are contraindications to the use of therapeutic massage? Select all that apply.

A. Varicose veins
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Arteriosclerosis
D. Decreased range of motion
E. Reduced lymphatic return

 

 

____    2.   What are the different types of trigger points? Select all that apply.

A. Myofascial
B. Cutaneous
C. Fascial
D. Ligamentous
E. Tendinous

 

 

____    3.   Petrissage includes what actions? Select all that apply.

A. Lifting
B. Kneading
C. Rolling
D. Pulling
E. Tapping

 

 

____    4.   Which are goals of a deep stroking effleurage? Select all that apply.

A. Elongate muscle
B. Promote movement of fluid through veins and lymph vessels
C. Encourage blood flow
D. Stimulate sensory nerves
E. Promote relaxation

 

 

____    5.   In general, massage is an effective treatment for what conditions? Select all that apply.

A. Reduce muscle spasm
B. Promote relaxation
C. Improve blood flow
D. Increase venous drainage
E. Increase cellular metabolism

 

 

Chapter 19 Low-Level Laser Therapy

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   According the Food and Drug Administration’s Center for Devices and Radiological Health Laser Classification System, what class of laser has an output that does not exceed 1 mW and may produce visible light?

A. Class 1
B. Class 2a
C. Class 3b
D. Class 4

 

 

____    2.   Which type of therapeutic laser produces a wavelength of 488 nm and a blue light band?

A. Helium-neon
B. Gallium aluminum arsenide
C. Argon
D. Gallium-arsenide

 

 

____    3.   Which of the following is considered a primary effect of therapeutic laser treatment?

A. Vasodilation of microvessels
B. Decreased ATP production
C. Decreased collagen production
D. Decreased macrophage activity

 

 

____    4.   Lasers produce highly refined, _____________ light in the ultraviolet, visible, or infrared range.

A. monochromatic
B. bichromatic
C. trichromatic
D. multichromatic

 

 

____    5.   What laser wavelength is associated with infrared light?

A. Greater than 780 nm
B. Less than 380 nm
C. 520 nm
D. 670 nm

 

 

____    6.   In the United States, which of the following laser wavelengths is in the range considered to be therapeutic?

A. 200 nm
B. 500 nm
C. 1000 nm
D. 1500 nm

 

 

____    7.   Which laser feature identifies the fact that the beam of the laser does not tend to diverge as it travels through space?

A. Monochromatic
B. Coherent
C. Collimated
D. Divergent

 

 

____    8.   According to the practical evidence, which type of laser is considered to be the most effective for stimulating tissue healing?

A. Helium-neon
B. Gallium aluminum arsenide
C. Argon
D. Gallium-arsenide

 

 

____    9.   Which statement is true concerning a gallium arsenide (GaAs) laser?

A. GaAs is produced by a semiconductor diode chip.
B. GaAs produces a visible red light.
C. GaAs energy can penetrate tissues up to 5 cm deep.
D. GaAs delivers a light wave at 670 nm.

 

 

____  10.   In general, acute conditions are commonly treated with what laser output?

A. Less than 0.5 J/cm2
B. Less than 1 J/cm2
C. Less than 2 J/cm2
D. Less than 3 J/cm2

 

 

____  11.   Current evidence suggests that the biophysical benefits of laser are related to what?

A. Photomechanical or photothermal effects
B. Photochemical or photothermal effects
C. Photomechanical or photochemical effects
D. Photomechanical, photochemical, and photothermal effects

 

 

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

____    1.   In general, low-pulse frequencies are used to promote tissue healing when applying laser therapy.

 

____    2.   According to the practical evidence, laser with a wavelength of 670 nm has demonstrated effectiveness in the short-term relief of pain associated with lateral epicondylalgia.

 

____    3.   Laser is often used to assist in the healing of deep wounds, including surgical incisions and severe burns.

 

____    4.   Effects of laser therapy that occur from the absorption of photons are termed “indirect effects.”

 

____    5.   Longer laser wavelengths penetrate deeper into tissues than shorter wavelengths.

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____    1.   The Food and Drug Administration has approved low-level laser therapy for treatment of what conditions? Select all that apply.

A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Musculoskeletal shoulder pain
C. Musculoskeletal neck pain
D. Wound healing
E. Fracture healing

 

 

____    2.   Which of the following contraindicate the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.

A. Application over rheumatoid arthritis
B. Application over a fracture
C. Application over the thyroid
D. Pain in an unfused epiphyseal plate
E. Application over deep-vein thrombosis

 

 

____    3.   While the efficacy has not been substantiated, which of the following represent indications for the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.

A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Fibromyalgia
D. Fracture healing
E. Pain in an unfused epiphyseal plate

 

 

____    4.   Laser production requires what essential components? Select all that apply.

A. Amplifying medium
B. Mechanism for exciting medium
C. Reflective mirror
D. Partially reflective mirror
E. Photoelectric crystal