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A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 1   Managing Human Resources Today

 

1) ________ maintain contact within the community and publicize openings.

  1. A) Job Analysts
  2. B) EEO representatives
  3. C) Recruiters
  4. D) Compensation managers

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2) ________ search for qualified job applicants.

  1. A) EEO representatives
  2. B) Job analysts
  3. C) Recruiters
  4. D) Training specialists

1

 

3) ________ investigate EEO grievances.

  1. A) EEO representatives
  2. B) Training specialists
  3. C) Recruiters
  4. D) Job analysts

 

4) A(n) ________ examines current organizational practices for potential action violations.

  1. A) EEO representative
  2. B) training specialist
  3. C) job analyst
  4. D) compensation manager

 

5) A(n) ________ collects detailed information about job duties.

  1. A) EEO representative
  2. B) job analyst
  3. C) compensation manager
  4. D) recruiter

6) ________ use detailed information to prepare job descriptions.

  1. A) EEO representatives
  2. B) Compensation managers
  3. C) Job analysts
  4. D) Recruiters

 

7) ________ develop pay grades and compensation plans.

  1. A) Compensation managers
  2. B) Recruiters
  3. C) Job analysts

 

8) ________ handle the employee benefits program.

  1. A) Trainers
  2. B) Benefits planners
  3. C) Compensation managers
  4. D) EEO representatives

9) ________ plan training activities.

  1. A) Training specialists
  2. B) Corporate teachers
  3. C) Managers
  4. D) Job analysts

 

10) ________ organize the training opportunities for a company.

  1. A) Trainings specialists
  2. B) Change managers
  3. C) EEO representatives
  4. D) Communication directors

11) The ________ HR group focuses on using call centers and outsourced vendors to provide specialized support to the company’s employees.

  1. A) corporate
  2. B) centers of expertise
  3. C) transactional
  4. D) embedded

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12) The ________ HR group focuses on assisting top management in strategic planning.

  1. A) corporate
  2. B) centers of expertise
  3. C) embedded
  4. D) transactional

13) The ________ HR group focuses on being HR business partners to specific departments.

  1. A) embedded
  2. B) corporate
  3. C) centers of expertise
  4. D) transactional

 

14) The ________ HR group operates like a specialized HR consulting firm.

  1. A) transactional
  2. B) corporate
  3. C) embedded
  4. D) centers of expertise

 

15) The ________ HR group may provide specialized support for organizational change.

  1. A) transactional
  2. B) corporate
  3. C) embedded
  4. D) centers of expertise

 

16) The ________ HR group may work with benefits specialists to provide support for transactional HR activities.

  1. A) corporate
  2. B) embedded
  3. C) transactional
  4. D) compensation

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17) The ________ HR group operates as relationship managers for the corporation.

  1. A) transactional
  2. B) training
  3. C) embedded
  4. D) centers of expertise

 

18) The ________ HR group works with the top management team to develop long range plans for the company.

  1. A) transactional
  2. B) embedded
  3. C) centers of expertise
  4. D) corporate

 

19) ________ refers to the practices and policies you need to carry out the personnel aspects of your management job.

  1. A) Human Resource Management
  2. B) Labor Relations
  3. C) Organizational Behavior
  4. D) Organizational Health and Safety Management

 

20) Human resource management ________.

  1. A) comprises the concepts and techniques used to control people at work
  2. B) is the process of organizing work activities
  3. C) is the process of identifying countries with cheaper labor costs and relocating jobs to those countries
  4. D) refers to the practices and policies you need to carry out the personnel aspects of your management job, specifically, acquiring, training, appraising, rewarding, and providing a safe, ethical and fair environment for your company’s employees

21) ________ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders.

  1. A) Leadership
  2. B) Authority
  3. C) Delegation
  4. D) Management

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22) All of the following are a line supervisor’s responsibilities for effective HRM except:

  1. A) coercing other supervisors to get with the program.
  2. B) controlling labor costs.
  3. C) developing the abilities of each person.
  4. D) starting (orienting) new employees in the organization.

 

23) No manager wants to:

  1. A) have his or her employees not performing at peak capacity.
  2. B) hire the wrong person for the job.
  3. C) find employees not doing their best.
  4. D) All of the above.

24) ________ are authorized to issue orders to other managers or employees.

  1. A) Line managers
  2. B) Staff managers
  3. C) Advisory board members
  4. D) All of the above.

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25) ________ are specifically responsible for assisting and advising line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation.

  1. A) Human resource managers
  2. B) Staff managers
  3. C) Line managers
  4. D) EEO officers

26) Effective human resource management could include all of the following responsibilities except:

  1. A) placing the right person in the right job.
  2. B) training employees.
  3. C) controlling labor costs.
  4. D) None of the above.

27) All of the following are examples of human resource job duties except:

  1. A) recruiter.
  2. B) equal employment opportunity coordinator.
  3. C) financial advisor.
  4. D) labor relations specialist.

28) Which of the following job titles indicates a position in human resources?

  1. A) recruiter
  2. B) training specialist
  3. C) EEO coordinator
  4. D) All of the above.

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29) ________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or manufacturing to new markets abroad.

  1. A) Market development
  2. B) Globalization
  3. C) Export growth
  4. D) Diversification

2

 

30) Which of the following demographic issues represents a challenge for human resource managers?

  1. A) increasingly diverse workforce
  2. B) aging workforce
  3. C) increasing use of contingent workers
  4. D) both A and B

31) The proportion of younger workers in the workforce is projected to ________.

  1. A) stop growing
  2. B) decrease
  3. C) increase at a slower rate

 

32) Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________.

  1. A) there are fewer people entering the job market than there are retiring baby boomers
  2. B) one-third of single mothers are not in the labor force
  3. C) people are living longer
  4. D) All of the above.

 

33) What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees?

  1. A) instituting flexible work hours
  2. B) hiring more women
  3. C) rehiring retirees
  4. D) lowering the retirement age

Objective:  Chapter objective 2

 

34) A ________ is a company’s plan for how it will balance its internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats in order to maintain a competitive advantage.

  1. A) mission statement
  2. B) strategy
  3. C) tactic
  4. D) scorecard

35) Strategic human resource management refers to ________.

  1. A) formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to its achieve strategic aims
  2. B) planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain competitive advantage
  3. C) emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm’s workers
  4. D) extending a firm’s sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets

4

36) Which term refers to letting vendors abroad provide services for a firm?

  1. A) external work systems
  2. B) application service providers
  3. C) offshoring
  4. D) data warehousing

2

 

37) ________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their ownership to new markets abroad.

  1. A) Strategic human resources
  2. B) Trend analysis
  3. C) Globalization
  4. D) Outsourcing

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38) Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers?

  1. A) Academy of Management
  2. B) Society for Human Resource Management
  3. C) Academy of HR Partners
  4. D) Association of Business Administration

 

39) HR managers who pass certification exams in human resource management are knowledgeable in all of the following aspects except:

  1. A) strategic management.
  2. B) information technology.
  3. C) employee and labor relations.
  4. D) occupational health and safety.

3

 

40) The term, ________, refers to the standards someone uses to decide what his or her conduct should be.

  1. A) morals
  2. B) ethics
  3. C) autonomy
  4. D) responsibility

41) Today over ________% (use closest percent) of the U.S. workforce is employed in producing or delivering services.

  1. A) 25
  2. B) 50
  3. C) 66
  4. D) 75

42) Which of the following is an example of HR management’s changing role?

  1. A) HR managers must measurably improve organizational performance.
  2. B) HR managers must represent the organization even when they are off the clock.
  3. C) HR managers must be individually centered so as to ensure that there will be no favoritism.
  4. D) None of the above.

 

43) In today’s business environment, ________ are often the firm’s main source of competitive advantage.

  1. A) machines
  2. B) highly trained and committed employees
  3. C) superior organization
  4. D) superior advertising

 

44) Which of the following is NOT a factor changing the environment of HRM?

  1. A) demographic trends
  2. B) economic trends
  3. C) “generation Y”
  4. D) All of the above.

 

45) All of the following are new HRM skills except:

  1. A) improving off shoring skills.
  2. B) supplying transactional services while serving more strategic, internal consulting activities.
  3. C) improving internal consulting skills.
  4. D) All of the above.

46) A ________ is a system that enables employees to manage their own benefits and update their personal information.

  1. A) company portal
  2. B) cybernetic portal
  3. C) formulation system
  4. D) software based system

47) Which of the following is NOT a technology that HR managers use?

  1. A) streaming desktop video
  2. B) internet- and network-monitoring software
  3. C) data warehouses
  4. D) All of the above.

48) Of the ten most serious ethical issues, how many were HR related?

  1. A) six
  2. B) ten
  3. C) seven
  4. D) four

49) Which of the following is an issue that HR managers have to deal with today?

  1. A) managing ethics
  2. B) managing employee engagement
  3. C) adding value
  4. D) All of the above.

50) Workers who hold multiple jobs or are contingent or part-time are called ________.

  1. A) disposable
  2. B) seasonal
  3. C) temporary
  4. D) nontraditional

 

51) HR and line managers share responsibility for most human resource activities.

 

52) Ethical decisions never involve morality.

53) The individual supervisor’s HRM related duties have not changed much in many years.

 

54) There is presently a growing need for knowledge workers.

 

55) Industries in production and operation still employee the majority of the U.S. workforce.

 

56) After a period of years, the trend of offshoring is steadily slowing down with many companies bringing jobs back to the U.S.

 

57) Staff managers are authorized to direct the work of subordinates and are directly in charge of accomplishing the organization’s basic goals.

 

58) The biggest demographic threat affecting employers is retirees.

59) Human resource managers are generally staff managers.

 

60) Staff managers are always someone’s boss.

61) The inability to recruit and maintain a good workforce constitutes a bottleneck for

62) In small organizations, line managers may carry out all personnel duties without the assistance of a human resource staff.

63) Line managers can only assist and advise staff managers.

 

64) Human resource managers do the following: recruiting, training, evaluating, rewarding, counseling, promoting, and hiring employees.

 

65) Supervisors do not spend much of their time on HR/personnel tasks.

66) In the majority of firms, the task of interviewing job candidates is shared between HR and the hiring department.

67) With the aging of its workforce, America is facing a demographic shift as significant as the massive entry of women into the workforce that began in the 1960s.

 

68) In the IBM example in the text, “silos” were identified as a problem contributing to the inadequacy with which different needs were served by the HR department.

 

69) As baby boomers retire from the workforce, there will be more people entering the labor pool than leaving it.

 

70) The SHRM Human Resource Certification exams include testing on management practices, staffing, development, compensation, labor relations, and health and safety.

 

71) Human resource managers are no longer strategic players, but instead provide transactional support.

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72) Human resource managers must find new ways to offer traditional transactional HR services.

 

73) Monitoring software has been found to be illegal for use by human resource managers.

3

 

74) Human resource managers can complete professional certification exams to earn the SPHR or PHR certificates.

 

75) Ethical issues such as workplace safety, security of employee records, comparable work, and employee privacy rights are all related to human resource management.

76) Today’s trend is for HR managers to spend more time on administrative, transactional services.

 

 

77) Studies show that top managers still do NOT recognize the crucial role human resource managers can play in achieving strategic goals.

 

78) A strategy is the company’s plan on how it will match its internal strengths and weaknesses with its external opportunities and threats.

79) List five of the practices and/or policies organizations need to carry out the personnel aspects required for human resource management.

 

80) List five reasons why human resource concepts and techniques are important to all managers.

 

81) Explain the difference between line authority and staff authority. What type of authority do human resource managers have?

 

82) What are the four main ways that technology improves HR functioning?

83) Describe the trends that are influencing human resource management today.

 

84) What are the four new ways to organize human resource services?

 

85) What are the five job duties for the human resource department?

Objective:  Chapter objective 1

86) List and explain five personnel mistakes you don’t want to make as a manager.

Answer:

 

87) Why are demographic trends important to HR managers?

Answer:

 

88) Explain the concept of Strategic Human Resource Management.

89) The term human capital refers to:

 

90) The term ethics referes to:

92) Explain what it means to have authority.

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 2   Managing Equal Opportunity and Diversity

 

1) The ________ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states, “no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of the law.”

  1. A) First
  2. B) Fifth
  3. C) Tenth
  4. D) Thirteenth

 

2) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination based on all of the following characteristics except:

  1. A) race.
  2. B) sexual orientation.
  3. C) color.
  4. D) religion.

 

3) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act makes it unlawful to fail or refuse to hire an individual based on ________.

  1. A) race
  2. B) religion
  3. C) national origin
  4. D) All of the above.

 

4) How many members serve on the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission?

  1. A) three
  2. B) five
  3. C) nine
  4. D) ten

 

 

5) The establishment of the EEOC ________ the ability of the federal government to enforce equal employment laws.

  1. A) greatly enhanced
  2. B) greatly reduced
  3. C) hampered
  4. D) truncated

6) Members of the EEOC are appointed by the ________.

  1. A) Senate
  2. B) Supreme Court
  3. C) President of the United States
  4. D) Vice-President of the United States

 

7) Members of the EEOC serve ________ terms.

  1. A) 3 year
  2. B) 5 year
  3. C) 10 year
  4. D) indefinite

 

8) The Equal Pay Act of 1963 allows differences in pay based on which of the following factors?

  1. A) a factor other than sex
  2. B) a merit system
  3. C) a seniority
  4. D) All of the above.

 

9) (The) ________ made it unlawful to discriminate in pay on the basis of sex when jobs involve equal work, require equivalent skills, effort, and responsibility, and are performed under similar working conditions.

  1. A) Title VII
  2. B) Equal Pay Act of 1963
  3. C) Executive Order 11246
  4. D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

10) When companies utilize ________, they take steps to eliminate the present effects of past discrimination.

  1. A) affirmative action
  2. B) executive orders
  3. C) rehabilitation action
  4. D) anti-discrimination guidelines

11) The Equal Pay Act requires the same wages when the job involves equal ________.

  1. A) work
  2. B) time spent working
  3. C) amount of education
  4. D) amount of effort

Objective:  Chapter objective 1

 

12) Which of the following factors is not an acceptable basis for different pay for equal work under the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

  1. A) gender
  2. B) seniority system
  3. C) merit pay system
  4. D) quality of production

 

13) Jack is a 55-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is intended to protect Jack from discrimination?

  1. A) Title VII
  2. B) Equal Pay Act of 1963
  3. C) Executive Order 11246
  4. D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

 

14) Making an extra effort to promote and hire under-represented protected individuals is called ________.

  1. A) progressive desegregation
  2. B) affirmative action
  3. C) progressive action
  4. D) permitted discrimination

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15) The ________ requires employers with federal contracts over $2500 to take affirmative action in employing handicapped persons.

  1. A) Age Discrimination in Employment Act
  2. B) Vocational Rehabilitation Act
  3. C) Equal Pay Act
  4. D) Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs

16) The Vocational Rehabilitation Act requires that employers accommodate disabled workers except when doing so imposes ________.

  1. A) an undue hardship
  2. B) any form of inconvenience
  3. C) any financial burden
  4. D) any objection by the customers

 

17) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 protects workers who are ________ and older.

  1. A) 40
  2. B) 50
  3. C) 55
  4. D) 63

18) The Pregnancy Discrimination Act treats pregnancy as a(n) ________.

  1. A) disability
  2. B) disease
  3. C) unspecified condition
  4. D) gender specific conditionality

 

19) What was the name of the landmark case the Supreme Court used to define unfair discrimination?

  1. A) Roe v. Wade
  2. B) Meritor Savings Bank FSB v. Vinson
  3. C) Griggs v. Duke Power Company
  4. D) Faragher v. City of Boca Raton

 

20) Unwelcome sexual advances and requests for sexual favors are called ________.

  1. A) sexual harassment
  2. B) rude
  3. C) legislative fodder
  4. D) chauvinistic

21) In Griggs v. Duke Power Company, Griggs sued the power company because it required coal handlers to be high school graduates. The case was decided in favor of Griggs because ________.

  1. A) high school diplomas were not related to job success as a coal handler
  2. B) Duke Power Company intended to discriminate against blacks
  3. C) no business necessity existed
  4. D) Griggs held a GED

 

22) If a person is in a protected class, he or she is protected by ________.

  1. A) Department of Labor
  2. B) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
  3. C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
  4. D) Consumer Protection Act

 

23) Which of the following is NOT a potential source of sexual harassment?

  1. A) supervisors
  2. B) customers
  3. C) co-workers
  4. D) None of the above.

 

24) Under the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions must be treated as a(n) ________.

  1. A) disability
  2. B) incontinence
  3. C) unqualified claim
  4. D) treatable disorder

 

25) All of the following are ways of proving sexual harassment except:

  1. A) visiting the ombudsman.
  2. B) quid pro quo.
  3. C) hostile working environment.
  4. D) Both B and C.

Objective:  Chapter objective 1

 

26) Which of the following court decisions do NOT apply to cases of sexual harassment?

  1. A) Griggs v. Duke Power
  2. B) Meritor Savings v. Vinson
  3. C) Burlington Industries v. Ellerth
  4. D) Farragher v. City of Boca Raton

 

27) Which of the following court decisions broadly endorses the EEOC’s guidelines on sexual harassment?

  1. A) Meritor Savings v. Vinson
  2. B) Burlington Industries v. Ellerth
  3. C) Farragher v. City of Boca Raton
  4. D) Griggs v. Duke Power

 

28) Under the Federal Agency Uniform guidelines, it may be ________ to discriminate against persons even within the 40+ age bracket.

  1. A) unlawful
  2. B) lawful
  3. C) necessary
  4. D) Both B and C.

 

29) In which of the following court cases did the U.S. Supreme Court further clarify the law on sexual harassment?

  1. A) Burlington Industries v. Ellerth
  2. B) Griggs v. Duke Power
  3. C) Farragher v. City of Boca Raton
  4. D) Both A and C.

 

 

30) ________ harassment is the most common form of sexual harassment.

  1. A) Sexual orientation
  2. B) Disability
  3. C) Gender
  4. D) Flirting

1

31) All of the following are useful in minimizing liability for sexual harassment except:

  1. A) adopting a policy that forgives the first offense.
  2. B) issuing a strong policy statement condemning harassment.
  3. C) establishing a management response system.
  4. D) taking all complaints about harassment seriously.

 

32) When responding to employment discrimination charges, which of the following is recommended?

  1. A) Conduct your own investigation
  2. B) Limit the information supplied to only those issues raised in the charge itself
  3. C) Meet with the employee who made the complaint
  4. D) All of the above.

 

33) Which of the following is not a principle established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company?

  1. A) Intent not to discriminate is irrelevant.
  2. B) Business necessity is a defense.
  3. C) Performance on the test must relate to performance on the job.
  4. D) Performance standards must be clear and ambiguous.

 

 

34) Which court case was important because its ruling provided details regarding how employers should validate screening tools?

  1. A) Roe v. Wade
  2. B) Albemarle Paper Company v. Moody
  3. C) Griggs v. Duke Power Company
  4. D) Burlington Industries v. Ellerth

35) Liability in sexual harassment lawsuits can be minimized by doing which of the following?

  1. A) informing employees about a sexual harassment policy
  2. B) training management about the dangers of sexual harassment
  3. C) issuing a strong policy statement condemning harassment
  4. D) All of the above.

36) ________ means that an employer engages in an employment practice or policy that has a greater adverse effect on the members of a protected group under Title VII than on other employees, regardless of intent.

  1. A) Disparate impact
  2. B) Unintentional discrimination
  3. C) Affirmative action
  4. D) Adverse discrimination

 

37) Intentional discrimination is also called ________.

  1. A) disparate impact
  2. B) disparate treatment
  3. C) adverse discrimination
  4. D) mixed motive

 

38) Who has the heaviest burden when it comes to the burden of proof in discrimination cases?

  1. A) EEOC
  2. B) the employer in question
  3. C) the employee in question
  4. D) the EEO office

 

39) Which equal employment act allows the plaintiff to sue for compensatory damages?

  1. A) Civil Rights Act of 1991
  2. B) Title VI
  3. C) Title VIII
  4. D) American with Dysfunctions Act

40) Which equal employment act allows the plaintiff to sue for punitive damages?

  1. A) Civil Rights Act of 1991
  2. B) American with Disabilities Act
  3. C) Title VII
  4. D) None of the above.

Objective:  Chapter objective 1

 

41) Under the principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company, ________ can be used as a defense for any existing program that has adverse impact.

  1. A) occupational qualification
  2. B) business necessity
  3. C) affirmative action
  4. D) burden of proof

 

42) Which of the following is NOT a guideline arising out of Griggs v. Duke Power?

  1. A) job relatedness
  2. B) burden of proof on employer
  3. C) discrimination need not be intentional
  4. D) discrimination must have disparate impact only

 

43) Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once a plaintiff shows disparate impact, who has the burden of proving that the challenged practice is job-related for the position in question?

  1. A) the plaintiff
  2. B) the defense attorney
  3. C) the employer
  4. D) the EEOC office

44) If race, color, religion, sex, or national origin is a motivating factor in a termination, but the employee would have been terminated for failure to perform anyway, a ________ exists.

  1. A) third defense option
  2. B) business necessity
  3. C) defense for liability
  4. D) None of the above.

45) The ________ prohibits employers from discriminating against qualified individuals with disabilities with regard to applications, hiring, discharge, compensation, advancement, training, or other terms, conditions, or privileges of employment.

  1. A) Civil Rights Act of 1991
  2. B) Federal Violence Against Women Act of 1994
  3. C) American with Disabilities Act of 1990
  4. D) Vietnam Era Veterans’ Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974

 

46) According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, which of the following is NOT considered a disability?

  1. A) homosexuality
  2. B) voyeurism
  3. C) pyromania
  4. D) All of the above.

 

47) The ADA prohibits discrimination against ________, those who can carry out the essential functions of the job with or without reasonable accommodation.

  1. A) disabled individuals
  2. B) qualified individuals
  3. C) drug users
  4. D) All of the above.

 

 

48) The greatest number of claims brought under the ADA is related to ________ disabilities.

  1. A) learning
  2. B) mobility impairments
  3. C) mental
  4. D) hearing

 

49) All of the following are ways an employee can prove sexual harassment except:

  1. A) quid pro quo.
  2. B) hostile environment created by supervisors.
  3. C) hostile environment created by co-workers.
  4. D) hostile environment created by non-employees.
  5. E) All of the above are ways an employee can prove sexual harassment.

 

50) Judy was up for a promotion when her supervisor, Will, encouraged her to develop a sexual relationship with him. He suggested that her promotion would be a sure thing if they were involved. When Judy declined his advances, Will fired her. Which form of sexual harassment is this?

  1. A) quid pro quo
  2. B) hostile environment created by supervisors
  3. C) hostile environment created by co-workers
  4. D) hostile environment created by non-employees

 

51) Gus is always making sexual jokes at work. Many employees find the jokes funny, but Shelley, Gus’s executive assistant, is uncomfortable with the jokes. Eventually, she decided to quit rather than endure the jokes any longer. What form of sexual harassment is Shelley a victim of?

  1. A) quid pro quo
  2. B) hostile environment created by supervisors
  3. C) hostile environment created by co-workers
  4. D) None of the above; Shelley is not a victim of sexual harassment.

52) Sally is known as a big flirt around the office. She often makes sexual innuendos to men at work, both co-workers and her subordinates although their work performance has not changed. What form of sexual harassment is this an example of?

  1. A) hostile environment created by supervisors
  2. B) hostile environment created by co-workers
  3. C) hostile environment created by non-employees
  4. D) This is not sexual harassment.

53) Which of the following is not a way an employer can show reasonable care to defend against sexual harassment liability?

  1. A) training employees in sexual harassment policies
  2. B) instituting a sexual harassment reporting process
  3. C) investigating sexual harassment charges promptly
  4. D) All of the above are ways of showing reasonable care.

1

 

54) In the absence of formal harassment policies, what is the first step an employee should take to address a problem of sexual harassment?

  1. A) file a complaint with the local EEOC office
  2. B) file a complaint with the human resource director
  3. C) write a letter to the accuser
  4. D) file a verbal complaint with the harasser and the harasser’s boss

55) When harassment is of a serious nature, an employee can consider suing for ________.

  1. A) assault and battery
  2. B) emotional distress
  3. C) compensatory and punitive damages
  4. D) All of the above.

 

 

56) ________ exists when an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a member of a particular race, religion, gender, or ethnic group.

  1. A) Disparate treatment
  2. B) Disparate impact
  3. C) Adverse impact
  4. D) Prima facie

 

57) ________ refers to the total employment process that results in a significantly higher percentage of a protected group in the candidate population being rejected for employment, placement, or promotion.

  1. A) Disparate treatment
  2. B) Unintentional discrimination
  3. C) Adverse impact
  4. D) Prima facie

58) Religion may be used as a BFOQ if ________.

  1. A) a religious organization requires employees to share their religion
  2. B) an employer does not want to honor an employee’s religious holidays
  3. C) Both A and B.
  4. D) Neither A nor B.

 

59) Which of the following characteristics could serve as a BFOQ depending on the nature of the job requirements?

  1. A) age
  2. B) gender
  3. C) religion
  4. D) All of the above.

60) Pictures and Promotions Modeling Studio seeks to hire male models for an upcoming fashion show featuring men’s wear. The studio is using ________ as a justification for not considering women for the jobs.

  1. A) BFOQ
  2. B) ADEA
  3. C) EEOC
  4. D) None of the above.

61) The defense of ________ requires showing that there is an overriding business purpose for the discriminatory practice and that the practice is therefore acceptable.

  1. A) BFOQ
  2. B) business necessity
  3. C) adverse impact
  4. D) mixed motive

 

62) Which of the following recruitment practices could be considered discriminatory?

  1. A) word of mouth
  2. B) misleading information
  3. C) help wanted ads with discriminatory language
  4. D) All of the above.

63) The following may be examples of discriminatory selection standards except:

  1. A) educational requirements.
  2. B) arrest records when security clearance is necessary.
  3. C) height, weight, and physical characteristics.
  4. D) None of the above; all may be discriminatory selection standards.

 

64) Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, a discrimination claim must be filed within ________ after the alleged incident took place.

  1. A) six months
  2. B) one year
  3. C) 300 days
  4. D) three years

 

65) The EEOC describes a ________ as an informal process in which a neutral third party assists the opposing parties to reach a voluntary, negotiated resolution of a charge of discrimination.

  1. A) fact-finding conference
  2. B) voluntary mediation
  3. C) negotiation
  4. D) mandatory arbitration

66) Firms using ________ make an extra effort to hire and promote those in protected groups.

  1. A) ethical hiring practices
  2. B) affirmative action
  3. C) diversity management
  4. D) BFOQ

67) ________ aims to ensure that anyone, regardless of race, color, disability, sex, religion, national origin, or age has an equal chance for a job based on his or her qualifications, and requires employers to make an extra effort to hire and promote those in a protected group.

  1. A) Equal employment opportunity
  2. B) Affirmative action
  3. C) Diversity management
  4. D) BFOQ

68) Which of the following is NOT one of the activities that an organization can use to boost diversity?

  1. A) hire all diversity applicants
  2. B) adopt strong company policies
  3. C) publicize diversity philosophy throughout the company
  4. D) take concrete steps to foster diversity at work

 

69) In Farragher v. City of Boca Raton the employee accused the employer of condoning a hostile working environment.

 

70) Workforce diversity can lead to increase in business success.

5

 

71) White males are still dominating the labor force today.

72) Diversity programs can lead to increases in business.

 

73) Limiting the information given during a response to an employment discrimination charge is advisable.

 

74) There are four steps in an affirmative action program.

75) Voluntary affirmative action programs have the potential to run afoul of the Civil Rights Act of 1991.

 

76) Changing performance appraisal to include components regarding intergroup conflicts is not helpful in managing diversity.

 

77) The EEOC receives and investigates job discrimination complaints from 78) There is no need to develop support for an affirmative action program: They are

 

79) Affirmative action programs should, and usually do, have a top official in charge of development and implementation.

 

80) Only an aggrieved individual can file discrimination charges against another.

 

81) It is lawful to segregate or classify your employees on the basis of national origin.

 

82) The establishment of the EEOC assisted the federal government in enforcing equal employment laws.

 

83) According to the Equal Pay Act, management must pay workers the same under all circumstances.

84) When a job involves an equivalent amount of skills, effort, and responsibility then an employer must give equal pay.

 

85) The EEOC does not have the power to sue on behalf of complainants.

 

86) Executive Orders reduce the scope of Title VII.

Objective:  Chapter objective 1

 

87) The Pregnancy Discrimination Act is an amendment to Title VII.

 

88) Verbal conduct of a sexual nature cannot be called sexual harassment.

 

89) The most direct way to prove sexual harassment is showing a tangible employment action is dependent on sexual favors.

 

90) The Equal Pay Act of 1963 made it unlawful to discriminate against employees or applicants for employment who are between 40 and 65 years of age.

1

 

 

91) If an employer offers its employees disability coverage, then it must treat pregnancy and childbirth like any other disability and include it in the plan as a covered condition.

1

92) Title VII forbids testing or screening of job applicants because testing could systematically discriminate against some protected classes.

 

93) An employer can avoid liability for discrimination by proving that it would have taken the same action even without the discriminatory motive.

 

94) The American with Disabilities Act of 1990 does not list specific disabilities.

95) Simply being disabled qualifies someone for a job under the ADA.

 

96) Mental disabilities like depression account for the greatest number of claims brought under the ADA.

 

97) The ADA requires employers to have job descriptions in order to document the essential functions of each position.

 

98) To prove sexual harassment, it is necessary to show that the harassment had tangible consequences such as demotion or termination.

 

99) In order for discrimination to exist, an employer’s intent to discriminate must be established.

 

100) Adverse impact refers to employment processes that result in more individuals from a protected group being rejected regardless of whether the difference is significant.

101) Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, disparate impact claims require proof of discriminatory intent.

 

102) Employers primarily use a bona fide occupation qualification as a defense against charges of intentional discrimination based on gender.

 

103) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits discriminating against a person 50 or over in any area of employment because of age.

 

104) EEOC investigators are empowered to act as courts and can conclude discrimination based on their investigations.

105) Managing diversity means maximizing diversity’s potential advantages while minimizing the potential barriers that can undermine the functioning of a diverse workforce.

 

106) What were the three crucial guidelines affecting equal employment legislation that Chief Justice Burger identified in his written opinion on Griggs v. Duke Power Company?

107) Under the ADA, if a disabled individual cannot perform a job as currently structured, the employer must make a reasonable accommodation unless doing so would present an undue hardship. What might qualify as reasonable accommodation?

 

108) What legal obligations are required for employers by the Americans with Disabilities Act?

 

109) What is sexual harassment?

 

111) List three equal employment laws [for extra credit give the year they were passed].

 

112) Explain the important aspects of Title VII.

113) What are the three forms of sexual harassment? Name and describe each

114) How can an employer defend itself against sexual harassment liability? Name and describe two methods.

 

115) Some say that even when employers use reasonable care by taking steps to minimize liability for sexual harassment, minimize, or eliminate the occurrence of sexual harassment, and take immediate action once it knows of harassing conduct, it still may not be enough. Why might this be the case?

116) What steps can an employee take to address the problem of harassment?

 

117) Compare and contrast disparate treatment and disparate impact.

 

118) What are the five sets of voluntary organizational activities that support the success of a diversity management program?

 

119) What does BFOQ stand for? Explain the rationale behind it.

120) List and explain five things that an employer cannot do with regard to discriminatory employment practices.

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 3   Personnel Planning and Recruiting

 

1) ________ is the procedure through which one determines the duties associated with positions and the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.

  1. A) Job description
  2. B) Job specification
  3. C) Job analysis
  4. D) Job context

2

 

2) The information resulting from job analysis is used for writing ________.

  1. A) job descriptions
  2. B) work activities
  3. C) work aids
  4. D) performance standards

 

3) Which of the following types of information can be collected via a job analysis?

  1. A) work activities
  2. B) human behaviors
  3. C) performance standards
  4. D) All of the above.

4) Information regarding job demands such as finger dexterity or conscientiousness is included in the information about ________ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.

  1. A) work activities
  2. B) human behaviors
  3. C) machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
  4. D) performance standards

 

 

5) Which term refers to a written statement that describes the activities and responsibilities of the job?

  1. A) job specification
  2. B) job report
  3. C) job description
  4. D) job context

2

6) A ________ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and work behaviors required for getting the job done.

  1. A) job specification
  2. B) job analysis
  3. C) job report
  4. D) job description

7) The framework for talent management includes ________.

  1. A) deciding what positions to fill
  2. B) building a pool of job candidates
  3. C) using selection tools such as tests, interviews, and the like
  4. D) All of the above.

1

 

8) Which of the following may be included in a job specification?

  1. A) traits
  2. B) skills
  3. C) required background
  4. D) All of the above.

9) Which of the following methods is used to gather job analysis data?

  1. A) interviews
  2. B) questionnaires
  3. C) observation
  4. D) All of the above.

10) Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data?

  1. A) individual employees
  2. B) groups of employees with the same job
  3. C) supervisors who know the job
  4. D) All of the above.

2

11) Which of the following is not an advantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?

  1. A) It is simple to use.
  2. B) Some information may be exaggerated or minimized.
  3. C) It is quick to collect information.
  4. D) It can identify uncommon, but important activities.

12) For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job analysis?

  1. A) assembly-line worker
  2. B) accounting clerk
  3. C) design engineer
  4. D) receptionist

 

13) Jane records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This approach to data collection for job analysis is based on ________.

  1. A) diaries
  2. B) interviews
  3. C) direct observation
  4. D) questionnaires

 

14) What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?

  1. A) interviews
  2. B) diaries
  3. C) direct observation
  4. D) None of the above.

 

15) Most job descriptions contain sections that cover ________.

  1. A) job summary
  2. B) standards of performance
  3. C) working conditions
  4. D) All of the above.

16) One uses information from the ________ to write a job specification.

  1. A) job summary
  2. B) job identification
  3. C) job description
  4. D) standards for performance

17) What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?

  1. A) job title
  2. B) job summary
  3. C) major functions or activities
  4. D) All of the above.

18) The job specification takes the job description and answers the question:

  1. A) What human traits and experience are required to do this job well?
  2. B) When will the supervisor be completely satisfied with a worker’s work?
  3. C) What are the four main activities making up this job?
  4. D) What are the performance standards for the job?

Answer:  A

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 65

Objective:  Chapter objective 2

 

19) When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include ________.

  1. A) quality of training
  2. B) length of previous service
  3. C) physical traits
  4. D) All of the above.

 

20) When a manager takes a talent management approach, he or she:

  1. A) understands the talent management tasks.
  2. B) makes sure talent management decisions are goal-directed.
  3. C) actively segments and manages employees.
  4. D) All of the above.

21) Describing the job in terms of the observable competencies or skills necessary for good job performance is called a ________.

  1. A) competency-based job analysis
  2. B) Department of Labor Procedure
  3. C) functional job analysis
  4. D) None of the above.

22) Competency analysis focuses on ________.

  1. A) what is accomplished
  2. B) what competencies or skills the worker must have to do the work
  3. C) when work is accomplished
  4. D) where the work is accomplished

23) Traditional job analysis focuses on ________.

  1. A) job duties and responsibilities
  2. B) how work is accomplished
  3. C) who accomplishes the work
  4. D) where the work is accomplished

24) Jane must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months. What activity is Jane working on?

  1. A) recruitment
  2. B) selection
  3. C) personnel planning
  4. D) interviewing

 

25) ________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill.

  1. A) Recruitment
  2. B) Selection
  3. C) Workforce planning
  4. D) None of the above.

26) When a company decides on how to fill top executive positions, the process is called ________.

  1. A) employment planning
  2. B) succession planning
  3. C) selection
  4. D) testing

27) When planning for employment requirements, what must be forecasted?

  1. A) personnel needs
  2. B) supply of inside candidates
  3. C) Both A and B.
  4. D) Neither A nor B.

 

28) Which term below means studying variations in a firm’s employment levels over time?

  1. A) ratio analysis
  2. B) trend analysis
  3. C) graphical analysis
  4. D) All of the above.

4

 

29) The process of making forecasts based on the ratio between some causal factor like sales volume and the number of employees required is called ________.

  1. A) ratio analysis
  2. B) trend analysis
  3. C) graphical analysis
  4. D) computer analysis

 

30) Suppose a salesperson traditionally generates $500,000 in sales and the company wishes to increase sales by $4 million dollars per year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople are required?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 8

31) A ________ shows graphically how two variables are related.

  1. A) trend analysis
  2. B) ratio analysis
  3. C) scatter plot
  4. D) correlation analysis

 

32) ________ contain data on employees’ performance records, educational background, and promotion recommendations.

  1. A) Computerized information systems
  2. B) Replacement charts
  3. C) Qualifications inventories
  4. D) Trend records

 

33) When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will use ________.

  1. A) replacement charts
  2. B) qualifications inventories
  3. C) trend records
  4. D) personnel files

 

34) Recruiting is necessary to ________.

  1. A) forecast the supply of outside candidates
  2. B) develop an applicant pool
  3. C) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates
  4. D) develop qualifications inventories

Answer:  B

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 74

Objective:  Chapter objective 5

35) Job posting refers to all of the following except:

  1. A) publicizing the open job to employees.
  2. B) listing the job’s attributes.
  3. C) listing the job’s required qualifications.
  4. D) listing the number of desired applicants.

36) Which of the following methods is not used to recruit outside candidates?

  1. A) advertising
  2. B) job postings
  3. C) employment agencies
  4. D) All of the above are used to recruit outside candidates.

 

37) Public state employment agencies are aided and coordinated by ________________.

  1. A) private companies
  2. B) region of the country
  3. C) employers
  4. D) the S. Department of Labor

38) Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities except:

  1. A) reviewing the employer’s job requirements.
  2. B) visiting employer work sites.
  3. C) writing job descriptions.
  4. D) Counselors perform all of the above activities.

39) State-run employment agencies provide ________ to employers.

  1. A) recruitment services
  2. B) training programs
  3. C) reviews of employer job requirements
  4. D) All of the above.

 

40) Who is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by private employment agencies when they place qualified individuals in jobs?

  1. A) the employer
  2. B) the employee
  3. C) the state employment commission
  4. D) there are no fees

41) Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?

  1. A) It may be faster than in-house recruiting.
  2. B) It does not require internal recruitment specialists.
  3. C) Screening may not be as thorough.
  4. D) It may be better for attracting minority candidates.

 

42) Which of the following is not another term for contingent workers?

  1. A) part-time
  2. B) just-in-time
  3. C) collateral
  4. D) temporary

43) Contingent workers are used in ________ occupations.

  1. A) clerical
  2. B) engineering
  3. C) maintenance
  4. D) All of the above.

44) Jackie works as a nurse on temporary assignments for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Jackie is ________.

  1. A) a contingent worker
  2. B) on job rotation
  3. C) using job enlargement
  4. D) None of the above.

 

 

45) ________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top-tier management talent for their clients.

  1. A) State-run employment agencies
  2. B) Temporary agencies
  3. C) Executive recruiters
  4. D) Job banks

46) Executive recruiters are also called ________.

  1. A) headhunters
  2. B) staffers
  3. C) alternative staffing companies
  4. D) All of the above.

 

47) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an executive recruiter?

  1. A) many contacts in field
  2. B) adept at contacting candidates who are not on the job market
  3. C) unfamiliar what the company truly wants in the ideal candidate
  4. D) ability to keep identity of firm confidential

 

48) Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level executive to serve in its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find because there is more demand than supply. Pamlico River Productions should consider using a(n) ________ for recruitment.

  1. A) state-run employment agency
  2. B) executive recruiter
  3. C) temporary agency
  4. D) Any of the above.

 

 

49) Which of the following is an advantage of college recruiting?

  1. A) access to a source of management trainees
  2. B) schedules for recruitment visits set far ahead of time
  3. C) access to candidates who are not looking for jobs
  4. D) All of the above.

 

50) College recruiters typically seek to ________.

  1. A) determine whether a candidate is worthy of further consideration
  2. B) fill the position
  3. C) cut costs for the firm by reducing the need to for on-site interviews
  4. D) develop a pool of applicants for future screening

51) Besides determining whether a candidate is worth further consideration, college recruiters also seek to ________.

  1. A) fill the position
  2. B) develop a pool of applicants for future screening
  3. C) attract good candidates
  4. D) All of the above.

 

52) When it comes to on-campus recruiting, which of the items listed below should be assessed by the campus recruiter?

  1. A) motivation
  2. B) commitment
  3. C) appearance
  4. D) All of the above.

53) One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is ________.

  1. A) getting access to the Internet to search job sites
  2. B) balancing work and family life
  3. C) getting a sufficient salary
  4. D) minimizing the commute to work

 

54) Once a firm has a pool of applicants, the first step in pre-screening is the ________.

  1. A) in-person interview
  2. B) on-site visit
  3. C) application form
  4. D) recommendation from recruiters

55) Which of the following is not a type of information that could be illegal on application forms?

  1. A) education
  2. B) experience
  3. C) work stability
  4. D) applicant’s age

56) Which of the following could be perceived as discriminatory when asked on an employment application form?

  1. A) race
  2. B) religion
  3. C) age
  4. D) All of the above.

 

57) Mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements require ________.

  1. A) disgruntled employees to contact the local EEOC office prior to filing formal complaints
  2. B) applicants to agree to arbitrate certain legal disputes related to employment or dismissal
  3. C) applicants to take unpaid leaves of absence during employment disputes
  4. D) applicants agree not to dispute decisions of the company regarding their employment

 

58) There are ________ steps in expediting a job analysis process.

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 7

2

 

59) A job description has all of the following elements except:

  1. A) what the job holder does.
  2. B) how the job holder does it.
  3. C) under what conditions a job is done.
  4. D) All of the above are included in a job description.

2

 

60) A relationships statement in a job description may contain all of the following except:

  1. A) mentors.
  2. B) reports to.
  3. C) works with.
  4. D) supervises.

61) The recruitment and selection process has ________ steps.

  1. A) 6
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 7

 

62) ________ planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill, and how to fill them..

  1. A) Workforce
  2. B) Selection
  3. C) Recruitment
  4. D) Replacement

Answer:  A

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 67

Objective:  Chapter objective 3

 

63) A big question in an organization is whether to fill an opening from the inside or with an outside candidate.

 

64) Job analysis produces information used for writing job descriptions and job specifications.

 

 

65) The information gathered during a job analysis is used primarily for listing what the job entails and what kind of people to hire for the job.

 

66) Conducting the job analysis is the sole responsibility of the HR specialist.

 

67) Interviewing is simple and lets workers report activities that might not otherwise surface.

 

68) Observation as a data collection method in a job analysis is most appropriate for jobs entailing a lot of mental activity.

69) Employers may provide employees pocket dictating machines and iPads to record activities at random times of the workday.

 

70) A manager uses job description information to write a job specification that lists the knowledge, abilities, and skills needed to perform the job.

 

71) Competency-based job analysis is more job-focused than traditional job analysis.

72) Competency-based job analysis means describing the job in terms of the observable competencies (knowledge, skills, and/or behaviors) that an employee must have to do the job.

 

 

73) Recruitment efforts should be an integral part of a firm’s strategic planning process.

5

 

74) Some job descriptions have a “standards of performance” section.

 

75) Personnel planning rarely utilizes techniques like ratio analysis or trend analysis to estimate staffing needs.

 

76) A job description shows the reporting relationship of a job.

77) When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called succession planning.

78) A job analysis is a result of job specifications.

 

79) “What are the major duties of your position?” is not a question used in a job analysis interview.

 

80) Observing work is a valid means of analyzing a job that has a lot of mental activity.

81) One step in gathering job analysis could be to briefly explain the job analysis process and reason, and the participants’ roles in the process.

82) Interviews are not a method of collecting job analysis information,

83) Trend analysis assumes the productivity increases over time.

Objective:  Chapter objective 4

 

84) The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains about the same from year to year.

 

85) Effective recruiting results in a large number of applicants.

 

86) Local newspapers or the Web are the best source for blue-collar help and clerical employees.

87) Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency.

88) Contingent workers are primarily clerical positions filled with temps.

 

89) Employers have to formulate plans for attracting minorities and women, including reevaluating personnel policies and developing flexible work options.

 

90) A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant’s age.

91) The EEOC is generally opposed to the use of mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements, which are required by many employers.

 

92) The O*NET system provides valuable job specification information for untrained personnel only.

93) Explain why generating large applicant pools is not always desirable for a firm. What implications exist for recruitment methods?

94) Why are current employees often the best source of candidates for vacant positions?

95) Why do employers turn to private employment agencies for assistance in recruiting? Provide at least four reasons for the use of such employment agencies.

96) Give examples of items that can be found in the working conditions and physical environment section of a job description.

97) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using an employee referral campaign for recruitment purposes?

 

98) What four types of information can be learned about a job candidate from the application form?

99) Explain how job analysis provides information useful in recruitment and selection, compensation, and performance appraisal.

 

100) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using interviews to collect job analysis data?

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 4 Testing and Selecting Employees

 

1) Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered ________.

  1. A) improper hiring
  2. B) negligent hiring
  3. C) appropriate depending upon the job
  4. D) negligent intent

2) By some estimates, ________ percent of employees have stolen from their employers.

  1. A) 75
  2. B) 80
  3. C) 26
  4. D) 49

3) Careful testing and screening lead to ________.

  1. A) improved performance on your own part
  2. B) screening out “undesirables”
  3. C) improved motivation among all including those who were not hired
  4. D) A and B only

4) Which of the following is not a type of personnel test?

  1. A) ACO
  2. B) cognitive abilities
  3. C) motor and physical abilities
  4. D) interest inventories

5) XYZ company uses a projective personality test on James. Subsequently, James is denied employment. James can ________.

  1. A) be angry but nothing else
  2. B) claim the results were false
  3. C) claim the results violate the ADA
  4. D) B and C only

6) Which of the following is not a “big five” personality dimension?

  1. A) inwardness
  2. B) extroversion
  3. C) agreeableness
  4. D) conscientiousness

 

7) Which of the following is not an aspect of intercultural adaptability?

  1. A) supervisory management
  2. B) perception management
  3. C) relationship management
  4. D) self management

 

8) The leaderless group discussion is part of the ________.

  1. A) management assessment center
  2. B) personality test battery
  3. C) Wonderlic test
  4. D) None of the above.

 

9) A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to solicit information from a person’s oral responses to oral inquiries.

  1. A) interview
  2. B) presentation
  3. C) prospectus
  4. D) invigilation

interviewing mistake?

  1. A) snap judgments
  2. B) negative emphasis
  3. C) attractiveness of candidate
  4. D) All of the above.

11) Which of the following is a question that disabled persons would like interviewers to ask during the interview?

  1. A) Is there any kind of setting or special equipment that would facilitate the interview process for you?
  2. B) Provide an example of how you would use technology to carry out your job duties?
  3. C) Other than technology, what other kind of support did you have in previous jobs?
  4. D) All of the above.

 

12) Interviews should begin by ________.

  1. A) establishing rapport
  2. B) jumping right into the heart of the matter
  3. C) highlighting what the interview will be doing
  4. D) explaining the qualifications of the interviewer

13) Which of the following is recommended regarding interviewing questions?

  1. A) ask open-ended questions
  2. B) ask questions that can be answered yes or no
  3. C) put words into the applicant’s mouth to try to trip them up
  4. D) B and C only

14) What percentage of HR managers report checking applicants’ background?

  1. A) 82
  2. B) 80
  3. C) 75
  4. D) 68

15) Which of the following is a commonly verified background area?

  1. A) legal eligibility for employment
  2. B) dates of prior employment
  3. C) military service
  4. D) All of the above.

16) What is the first thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

  1. A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
  2. B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
  3. C) use a structured reference checking form
  4. D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

17) What is the second thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

  1. A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
  2. B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
  3. C) use a structured reference checking form
  4. D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

 

18) What is the third thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

  1. A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
  2. B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
  3. C) use a structured reference checking form
  4. D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

 

19) Which assessment method has a high content validity?

  1. A) cognitive ability tests
  2. B) personality tests
  3. C) structured interviews
  4. D) job knowledge tests

20) Which assessment method that Dial Corp. used was shown to have a high adverse impact?

  1. A) cognitive ability tests
  2. B) job knowledge tests
  3. C) structured interviews
  4. D) strength tests

21) Which assessment method can be conducted one-on-one or with a panel?

  1. A) cognitive ability tests
  2. B) job knowledge tests
  3. C) structured interviews
  4. D) All of the above.

 

22) What is the fourth thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?

  1. A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
  2. B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
  3. C) use a structured reference checking form
  4. D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

23) Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?

  1. A) one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
  2. B) one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion
  3. C) one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different occasions
  4. D) one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way

 

24) If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.

  1. A) valid
  2. B) reliable
  3. C) unreliable
  4. D) inconsistent

 

25) If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.

  1. A) valid
  2. B) invalid
  3. C) reliable
  4. D) unreliable

26) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time, and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1.

  1. A) Equivalent form estimate
  2. B) Retest estimate
  3. C) Internal consistency
  4. D) Criterion validity

 

27) Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability?

  1. A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
  2. B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
  3. C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people
  4. D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

28) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests.

  1. A) Equivalent form estimate
  2. B) Retest estimate
  3. C) Internal comparison estimate
  4. D) Criterion validity

29) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyzes the degree to which responses to the items vary together.

  1. A) Equivalent form estimate
  2. B) Retest estimate
  3. C) Internal consistency
  4. D) Internal comparison estimate

Objective:  Chapter objective 1

30) When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured?

  1. A) retest estimate
  2. B) internal consistency
  3. C) equivalent form
  4. D) criterion validity

 

31) Which of the following describes using an equivalent-form estimate to assess reliability?

  1. A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
  2. B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
  3. C) administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants’ test scores for test one and test two
  4. D) different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

 

32) Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability?

  1. A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
  2. B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
  3. C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people
  4. D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

 

33) Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable?

  1. A) questions may not represent material
  2. B) testing conditions could vary
  3. C) the test may not predict actual performance
  4. D) All of the above are reasons for unreliable tests.

34) The first step in the validation process is to ________.

  1. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
  2. B) analyze the job
  3. C) administer tests
  4. D) cross-validate

 

35) The second step in the validation process is to ________.

  1. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
  2. B) analyze the job
  3. C) relate test scores and job criteria
  4. D) cross-validate

36) The final step in the validation process is to ________.

  1. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
  2. B) analyze the job
  3. C) relate test scores and job criteria
  4. D) cross-validate

37) Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?

  1. A) demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks performed on the job
  2. B) demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on the job
  3. C) demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation
  4. D) demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance

 

38) Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American Psychological Association’s standard for educational and psychological tests?

  1. A) the right to confidentiality of test results
  2. B) the right to informed consent
  3. C) the right to expect that only qualified people will have access to the scores
  4. D) All of the above.

39) ________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.

  1. A) Personality
  2. B) Achievement
  3. C) Cognitive
  4. D) Physical ability

 

 

40) Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________ tests.

  1. A) aptitude
  2. B) intelligence
  3. C) achievement
  4. D) comprehensive

41) Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination, and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using ________ tests.

  1. A) personality
  2. B) motor and physical abilities
  3. C) achievement
  4. D) comprehensive

42) ________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.

  1. A) Motor ability
  2. B) Personality
  3. C) Achievement
  4. D) Interest

 

43) ________ tests measure a person’s level of introversion, stability, and motivation.

  1. A) Motor ability
  2. B) Personality
  3. C) Achievement
  4. D) Cognitive

44) A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s potential.

  1. A) work sampling event
  2. B) video-based situational testing
  3. C) management assessment center
  4. D) retreat

2

 

45) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except:

  1. A) the in basket.
  2. B) leaderless group discussion.
  3. C) tests of motor abilities.
  4. D) interviews.

 

46) Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate’s ________.

  1. A) age
  2. B) marital status
  3. C) legal eligibility
  4. D) All of the above.

 

47) Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate?

  1. A) legal eligibility for employment
  2. B) age
  3. C) credit ratings
  4. D) motor vehicle record

 

48) What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?

  1. A) personality tests
  2. B) interest inventories
  3. C) honesty tests
  4. D) graphology

49) Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job applicants except:

  1. A) polygraph tests.
  2. B) credit checks.
  3. C) background checks.
  4. D) honesty tests.

50) Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________.

  1. A) numerology
  2. B) astrology
  3. C) handwriting analysis
  4. D) polygraph output assessment

51) The ________ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool.

  1. A) telephone reference
  2. B) reference letter
  3. C) selection interview
  4. D) management assessment center

52) A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries.

  1. A) writing test
  2. B) work sample simulation
  3. C) interview
  4. D) reference check

 

53) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant’s oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview.

  1. A) selection
  2. B) appraisal
  3. C) exit
  4. D) structured

54) What type of question is the following: “Can you tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment?”

  1. A) situational
  2. B) behavioral
  3. C) stress
  4. D) puzzle

55) Which of the following statements is an example of a situational question?

  1. A) “Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation.”
  2. B) “How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?”
  3. C) “Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?”
  4. D) “In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Tell me how you handled the situation.”

 

56) What type of question is the following: “Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition’s biggest client. How would you proceed?”

  1. A) situational
  2. B) behavioral
  3. C) puzzle
  4. D) directive

 

57) In a mass interview, a team of individuals interviews the candidate in a ________ fashion.

  1. A) serial
  2. B) sequential
  3. C) panel
  4. D) systematic

58) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Human Resource Management. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview.

  1. A) serial
  2. B) panel
  3. C) sequential
  4. D) mass

 

59) The team holding the interviews for new auditors is behind in its recruiting quota. The team is most likely to rate the applicants ________ in this situation.

  1. A) positively
  2. B) neutrally
  3. C) unacceptable
  4. D) There is not enough information to determine.

 

60) Based on interviewer assessments of attractiveness and gender, which of the following would most likely receive the highest rating for an executive level position?

  1. A) an attractive woman
  2. B) an attractive man
  3. C) an unattractive woman
  4. D) There are no such biases based on attractiveness and gender.

 

61) Consider the following question: “Suppose you saw a co-worker who was not following standard work procedures. The co-worker claimed that the new procedure was better. What would you do?” What type of question is this?

  1. A) background
  2. B) past behavior
  3. C) situational
  4. D) job knowledge

4

62) Consider the following question: “Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?” What type of question is this?

  1. A) background
  2. B) behavioral
  3. C) situational
  4. D) structured

63) Consider the following question: “What work experience do you have in marketing and sales?” What type of question is this?

  1. A) background
  2. B) behavioral
  3. C) situational
  4. D) job knowledge

 

64) Consider the following question: “What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?” What type of question is this?

  1. A) background
  2. B) past behavior
  3. C) situational
  4. D) job knowledge

65) The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.

Answer:  TRUE

66) Most interviews are one-on-one.

 

67) Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but not reliability.

68) A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

69) An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency.

70) Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.

 

71) Test validity answers the question, “Does this test measure what it’s supposed to measure?”

 

72) Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measure.

73) Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently.

 

74) There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with revalidation.

 

75) Criterion validity emphasizes judgment.

 

76) Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations.

77) Avoiding negligent hiring claims requires taking every single precaution possible.

78) Lower-level workers such as clerks are cheap to hire.

79) A minority of HR managers check applicants’ backgrounds.

 

80) Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations.

 

81) Rejected applicants who receive bad references could sue the source of a reference for defamation of character.

 

82) First impressions created from candidate application forms and personal appearance can affect interviewer ratings of candidates.

 

83) Reliability is not a concern with respect to a test’s validity.

 

84) Interest inventories compare one’s interests with those of people in various occupations.

 

85) Industrial psychologists often study the “big seven” personality dimensions.

 

86) Although personality tests are used quite frequently, they are not reliable.

 

87) Achievement tests measure what a person has learned.

88) Computerized and online testing can only be done with esoteric, unconventional tests.

89) The in-basket exercise is a personality test exercise.

90) Projective personality tests allow for rejected candidates to claim that the results violate the Americans with Disabilities Act.

91) A structured interview is the only kind that is allowed in organizations.

 

92) Structured interviews are more reliable than unstructured ones.

93) In an interview, according to one researcher, you have lots of time to make an impression on the interviewer.

j

94) Behavioral interview questions focus on future behavior.

 

95) Interview panels that have racially balanced composition rated white applicants higher across all panel members.

 

96) In an interview, it is recommend that you begin the interview by jumping right in to the crux of the matter.

97) Jane follows John in an interview session. John is a particularly inept individual who is nervous and comes across poorly. Jane is more likely to be perceived in a positive light.

8) The Personality Profile Analysis can be completed online in 10 minutes.

 

99) The polygraph is the only honesty test available to employers.

100) What problems are associated with drug testing?

101) Graphology’s validity is undeniable.

 

102) Drug tests always correlate closely with impairment levels.

 

103) Handwriting analysis is used to predict personality traits.

 

 

104) A polygraph measures physiological changes in the human body and is used to detect lies.

105) You should not have the candidate sign a release for background checking so as not to alert him/her that you will be checking.

106) Nonverbal behavior can affect applicant’s rating in an interview.

107) Behavioral interview questions focus on past situations.

 

108) Why is careful selection important?

employees.

 

109) What is an achievement test? Give an example.

Answer:  An achievement test measures what a person has learned. An example of an achievement test is a typing test.

 

110) What is a management assessment center?

111) Explain two basic types of interviews.

112) List and explain two basic interview types. Explain which one might be better.

 

113) List three “do’s” for interviews.

114) List and describe two types of validity.

 

115) What is reliability?

Answer:  Reliability refers to a test’s consistency. A reliable test is one that gives substantially the same results over multiple administrations. The tests that are administered do not have to be identical – just equivalent.

116) List the steps needed to validate a test.

117) Once a candidate allows a company to use a test, the test taker gives up all rights.

118) What is negligent hiring?

119) Screening can help dysfunctional behaviors at work.

 

120) How do nonverbal behaviors and impression management affect interviewer ratings of candidates?

 

121) Why is it important to select the right employees for a position?

122) How can employers protect themselves against claims of negligent hiring?

123) Describe the three main ways to demonstrate a test’s validity in employment testing.

124) Explain the five steps in the validation process.

125) What is a management assessment center? What else can managers use these centers for besides selection? Provide five examples of typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers.

 

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 5   Training and Developing Employees

 

1) Employee ________ provides new employees with the basic background information required to perform their jobs satisfactorily.

  1. A) recruitment
  2. B) selection
  3. C) orientation
  4. D) development

2) To improve the orientation process some firms provide their incoming managers with ________.

  1. A) preloaded personal digital assistants
  2. B) disks containing discussions of corporate culture
  3. C) a free breakfast
  4. D) A and B only

3) Who performs the initial orientation?

  1. A) an HR specialist
  2. B) the supervisor
  3. C) Neither A nor B
  4. D) Both A and B

 

4) Orientation typically includes information on ________.

  1. A) employee benefits
  2. B) daily routine
  3. C) safety measures
  4. D) All of the above.

5) ________ is the continuing process of instilling in all employees the attitudes, standards, and values that the organization expects.

  1. A) Socialization
  2. B) Training
  3. C) Development
  4. D) Orientation

should achieve which of the following?

  1. A) The new employee should feel welcome.
  2. B) The new employee should understand the organization in a broad sense.
  3. C) The new employee should have clear understanding of what is expected.
  4. D) The new employee should begin the process of socialization.

 

7) The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called ________.

  1. A) orientation
  2. B) training
  3. C) development
  4. D) appraisal

8) The first step in creating a training program is to ________.

  1. A) assess the program’s successes or failures
  2. B) design the program content
  3. C) analyze employees’ training needs
  4. D) train the targeted group of employees

 

9) What is the second step in the training process?

  1. A) assess the program’s successes or failures
  2. B) present the program to a small test audience
  3. C) design the training program
  4. D) conduct a needs analysis

 

10) The third step in the training process is to ________.

  1. A) develop the program or course
  2. B) design the program content
  3. C) conduct a needs analysis
  4. D) train the targeted group of employees

11) The fourth step in the training process is to ________.

  1. A) assess the program’s successes or failures
  2. B) present the program to a small test audience
  3. C) conduct a needs analysis
  4. D) implement the program or course

12) What is the final step in the training process?

  1. A) evaluate the program’s successes or failures
  2. B) present the program to a small test audience
  3. C) conduct a needs analysis
  4. D) train the targeted group of employees

13) Which of the following characterizes training today?

  1. A) training is increasingly more strategic
  2. B) training is more prevalent in the higher levels of an organization
  3. C) training is developing a great reputation for getting results
  4. D) training is being evaluated extensively

14) James is currently identifying the specific job performance skills needed, analyzing the skills of prospective trainees, and developing knowledge and performance objectives based on the deficiencies he finds. James is working on the ________ step in the training and development process.

  1. A) first
  2. B) second
  3. C) third
  4. D) fifth

15) ________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires.

  1. A) Needs analysis
  2. B) Task analysis
  3. C) Performance analysis
  4. D) Training strategy

2

16) The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiency should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________.

  1. A) needs analysis
  2. B) task analysis
  3. C) performance analysis
  4. D) development planning

17) Which of the following is not a source of identifying performance deficiencies?

  1. A) supervisor, peer, self-, and 360-degree performance reviews
  2. B) observation by supervisors or other specialists
  3. C) individual employee daily diaries
  4. D) All of the above.

 

18) All of the following are sources of identifying training needs except:

  1. A) skills gapping.
  2. B) assessment centers.
  3. C) tests of things like job knowledge, skills, and attendance.
  4. D) All of the above.

 

19) Performance analysis means:

  1. A) verifying that there is a performance deficiency.
  2. B) determining whether a deficiency should be rectified through training or some other means.
  3. C) conducting a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills are required.
  4. D) Only A and B.

 

20) ________ means having a person learn a job by actually doing it.

  1. A) Practice
  2. B) On-the-job training
  3. C) Social learning
  4. D) Modeling

21) Which of the following training methods is the most familiar?

  1. A) on-the-job training
  2. B) apprenticeship training
  3. C) informal learning
  4. D) lectures

22) On-the-job training can be accomplished through the use of all of the following techniques except:

  1. A) coaching.
  2. B) programmed learning.
  3. C) understudy.
  4. D) job rotation.

 

23) All of the following about teamwork or team training is true except:

  1. A) teamwork always comes naturally.
  2. B) team training may be used to support a new organization.
  3. C) team training focuses on technical, interpersonal, and team management issues.
  4. D) All of the above.

24) ________ is a form of management training in which trainees to learn by making realistic   decisions in simulated situations

  1. A) Developmental solutions
  2. B) Improvisation
  3. C) Spontaneity
  4. D) Quick time

 

25) In the ________ method, a manager is presented with a written description of an organizational problem to diagnose and solve.

  1. A) case study
  2. B) diagnose and learn
  3. C) action learning
  4. D) job rotation

26) Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the ________ form of training.

  1. A) job rotation
  2. B) understudy
  3. C) coaching
  4. D) special assignments

Objective:  Chapter objective 4

 

27) Jack hopes to be promoted to head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has been assigned to spend a year as assistant to the current department head. This is an example of the ________ form of training.

  1. A) job rotation
  2. B) job instruction
  3. C) coaching
  4. D) informal learning

 

28) A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called ________.

  1. A) job instruction training
  2. B) understudy training
  3. C) programmed learning
  4. D) apprenticeship training

29) What percentage of learning on the job comes from informal learning?

  1. A) 80
  2. B) 75
  3. C) 90
  4. D) 45

 

30) Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson?

  1. A) job instruction training
  2. B) understudy training
  3. C) programmed learning
  4. D) apprenticeship training

31) Which of the following goals is the focus of diversity training?

  1. A) to create cross-cultural sensitivity
  2. B) to foster harmonious working relationships
  3. C) to improve interpersonal skills
  4. D) All of the above.

 

32) Another term for vestibule training is ________ training.

  1. A) apprenticeship
  2. B) computer-based
  3. C) cubicle
  4. D) simulated

33) ________ training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job.

  1. A) Vestibule
  2. B) Apprenticeship
  3. C) Cubicle
  4. D) Job instruction

34) Pilots train on flight simulators for safety, learning efficiency, and cost savings. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) apprenticeship training
  2. B) on-the-job training
  3. C) simulated training
  4. D) programmed learning

 

35) Bobby demonstrates the correct way to do a job. He is using which training technique?

  1. A) behavior modeling
  2. B) demonstrational prowess
  3. C) instruction by example
  4. D) None of the above.

36) Which of the following is not a step in behavioral modeling?

  1. A) modeling
  2. B) role playing
  3. C) social reinforcement
  4. D) All of the above.

 

37) ________ allows people in one location to communicate live with people in another location.

  1. A) Videoconferencing
  2. B) Televising
  3. C) Internet
  4. D) Internet televising

 

38) ________ allows trainees to use a computer-based system to increase their knowledge and skills interactively.

  1. A) Computer-based training
  2. B) Point-to-point training
  3. C) Videoconferencing
  4. D) Telelearning

 

39) ________ is a section of an employer’s Web site that offers employees online access to many or all of the training courses employees need to succeed at their jobs.

  1. A) Videospace
  2. B) A learning portal
  3. C) A training portal
  4. D) None of the above.

 

40) Delivering learning content on demand via electronic devices when needed is termed ________ learning.

  1. A) mobile
  2. B) cell-based
  3. C) demand driven
  4. D) All of the above.

41) Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called ________.

  1. A) diversity training
  2. B) on-the-job training
  3. C) performance improvement programs
  4. D) management development
  5. E) coaching

42) ________ is the inability to handle basic reading, writing, and arithmetic.

  1. A) Functional illiteracy
  2. B) Illiteracy
  3. C) Handicapped literacy
  4. D) Redundant literacy

 

43) The ________ process includes improving the firm’s future performance and make sense in terms of the firm’s strategy and goals.

  1. A) management development
  2. B) management skills inventory
  3. C) action planning
  4. D) performance support

Answer:  A

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 144

Objective:  Chapter objective 4

 

44) Which of the following is meant to counteract potential problems associated with a diverse workforce?

  1. A) improve interpersonal skills
  2. B) improving math skills
  3. C) understanding/valuing cultural differences
  4. D) All of the above.

 

45) Which on-the-job training method is used for managerial positions?

  1. A) job rotation
  2. B) coaching
  3. C) outside seminars
  4. D) All of the above.

46) Which of the following is not a motivational guideline?

  1. A) make the learning meaningful
  2. B) make skills transfer easy
  3. C) reinforce the learning
  4. D) All of the above.

47) Gathering data about the organization and its operations and attitudes, with an eye toward solving a particular problem is ________ research.

  1. A) action
  2. B) progressive
  3. C) proactive
  4. D) team-building

48) An outside consultant who questions an executive’s boss, peers, subordinates, and family in order to determine weaknesses and strengths is a(n) ________.

  1. A) executive coach
  2. B) full time coach
  3. C) a personality modifier
  4. D) None of the above.

 

49) ________ is a training technique by which management trainees are allowed to work full time analyzing and solving problems in other departments.

  1. A) Action learning
  2. B) Off the job training
  3. C) Assessment centers
  4. D) None of the above.

 

50) In a case study training exercise, the discussion should involve ________.

  1. A) the discussion leader subtly guiding the trainees
  2. B) an analysis of the case
  3. C) the trainees presenting their conclusions
  4. D) All of the above.

51) In ________, trainees learn by making realistic decisions in simulated situations.

  1. A) improvisation
  2. B) management games
  3. C) case studies
  4. D) action learning

 

52) ________ is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees diagnose and formulate the change that’s required and implement it.

  1. A) Managerial development
  2. B) Action research
  3. C) Succession planning
  4. D) Organizational development

53) The basic aim of ________ is to increase the participant’s insight into his or her own behavior and the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group.

  1. A) sensitivity training
  2. B) action research
  3. C) group therapy
  4. D) coaching

 

54) According to Kurt Lewin, in order for a change to occur, which stage must first take place?

  1. A) unfreezing
  2. B) moving
  3. C) refreezing
  4. D) shifting

55) Which of the following is not one of Lewin’s processes for overcoming resistance?

  1. A) unfreezing
  2. B) refreezing
  3. C) moving
  4. D) disjointing

56) Which of the following is not measured to evaluate a training program?

  1. A) organizational productivity
  2. B) participants’ reactions to the program
  3. C) what trainees learned from the program
  4. D) results achieved

 

57) All of the following are training outcomes categories that can be measured except:

  1. A) reaction.
  2. B) learning.
  3. C) results.
  4. D) likability.

 

58) ________ evaluates trainees as to whether they thought the training was worthwhile.

  1. A) Reaction
  2. B) Learning
  3. C) Behavior
  4. D) Results

59) ________ tests the trainees to determine whether they learned principles, skills, and facts.

  1. A) Reaction
  2. B) Learning
  3. C) Behavior
  4. D) Results

60) ________ focuses on whether on the job actions have changed.

  1. A) Reaction
  2. B) Learning
  3. C) Behavior
  4. D) Results

61) ________ focus on whether training had an effect on the organization’s objectives.

  1. A) Reaction
  2. B) Learning
  3. C) Behavior
  4. D) Results

 

62) About _____ percent of firms collecting end-of-class evaluation data use paper-and-pencil surveys.

  1. A) 90
  2. B) 80
  3. C) 60
  4. D) 50

63) Orientation refers to the methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs.

 

64) The main task in analyzing current employees’ training needs is to determine what the job entails, break the job down into subtasks, and then teach each subtask to the employee.

 

65) Performance analysis is a detailed study of a job to determine what specific skills the job requires.

66) A disadvantage of on-the-job training is its expense.

 

67) Estimates are that only about 20% of what employees learn on the job is learned through informal means while the rest is learned through formal training programs.

 

68) Lewin’s change process consists of unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.

69) Managerial development is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees themselves formulate the change that is required and implement it.

70) In a controlled experiment, the researchers totally influence what is going to happen.

71) Overcoming resistance is perhaps the hardest part of leading a change.

72) Technology hampers efforts at orienting employees.

73) The HR specialist usually starts the orientation.

74) Learning objectives should address rectifying the performance deficiencies that you identified with needs analysis.

75) Once you have a properly designed training program, motivation is not an issue.

76) Formal learning provides the bulk of on the job learning.

77) University-based executive education is becoming more realistic, relying more on active learning, business simulations, and experiential learning.

 

78) Vestibule training’s attractiveness is because of its lower costs or increased safety.

79) Behavior modeling involves showing trainees, or modeling, the right way of doing something, letting each person practice the right way to do it, and providing feedback regarding performance.

80) Simulated training combines the advantages of on- and off-the-job training.

 

81) Lifelong learning refers to the need for employees to learn things that they will use for their entire lifetime.

 

82) Mobile learning lends itself particularly well to training that needs a lot of graphics.

 

83) One study called the American workforce “ill-prepared.”

 

84) Teamwork at work comes naturally.

 

85) Companies devote many hours to training new employees to listen to each other and cooperate.

 

86) The ultimate aim of managerial development programs is to enhance the organization’s future performance.

87) The case study method aims, first, to give trainees realistic experience in identifying and analyzing complex problems in an environment wherein their discussion leader can subtly guide their progress.

88) Employee orientation programs range from brief, informal introductions to lengthy, formal courses.

89) Organizational development usually involves action research.

 

90) Sensitivity training seeks to increase participants’ insight into their own behavior and the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer guided t-group.

91) Survey feedback is a convenient way to unfreeze a company’s management and employees by crystallizing the fact that the organization does have problems to solve.

 

92) When a training program is evaluated by measuring the outcomes of a group who receives the training and another group that receives no training, it is called a time-series design.

93) The four categories of training outcomes are reactions, learning, behavior, and results.

 

94) What four things should a successful orientation program accomplish?

95) There are several sources of information an employer can use to identify a current employee’s training needs. List five of these sources of information.

 

96) Trainers often try to solve employee performance deficiencies with training, but some deficiencies can’t be overcome with training. What other causes might exist for performance deficiency from an employee?

 

97) There are several types of on-the-job training. Identify and describe three types. Which one is used most often? Why?

 

98) Changing employee attitudes, skills, and behaviors can be difficult. Explain how Lewin’s Change Process proposes how change should be implemented.

99) List five main managerial development techniques.

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 6   Performance Management and Appraisal

 

1) The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called ________.

  1. A) recruitment
  2. B) employee selection
  3. C) performance appraisal
  4. D) organizational development

 

2) When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single, common system designed to ensure that employee performance supports a company’s strategy, it is called ________.

  1. A) strategic organizational development
  2. B) performance management
  3. C) performance appraisal
  4. D) human resource management

 

3) Managers following a traditional performance appraisal system will typically meet with employees on a ________ basis.

  1. A) weekly
  2. B) monthly
  3. C) bi-monthly
  4. D) yearly

 

4) Which of the following is not one of the guidelines for effective goal setting?

  1. A) assign specific goals
  2. B) assign measurable goals
  3. C) assign challenging but doable goals
  4. D) assign consequences for performance

 

5) The “S” in the acronym for SMART goals stands for ________.

  1. A) specific
  2. B) straightforward
  3. C) strategic
  4. D) support

6) The “M” in the acronym for SMART goals stands for ________.

  1. A) moderate
  2. B) measurable
  3. C) meaningful
  4. D) merit

 

7) The “A” in the acronym for SMART goals stands for ________.

  1. A) actionable
  2. B) appropriate
  3. C) attainable
  4. D) asset

 

8) Participatively set goals result in higher performance than assigned goals when the ________.

  1. A) participatively set goals are more difficult
  2. B) assigned goals are more difficult
  3. C) rewards are also higher
  4. D) goals are doable

 

9) When using goal setting in performance management, the goals should be ________.

  1. A) difficult
  2. B) doable
  3. C) specific
  4. D) All of the above.

 

10) Who is the primary person responsible for doing the actual appraising of an employee’s performance?

  1. A) the employee’s direct supervisor
  2. B) the company appraiser
  3. C) the EEO contact person
  4. D) None of the above.

11) Because in most organizations there is a hierarchy of goals, employee performance standards should ________.

  1. A) be standard
  2. B) make sense in terms of the broader organizational goals
  3. C) be decided by the top executive
  4. D) All of the above.

 

12) Which of the following is a reason to appraise subordinates’ performance?

  1. A) appraisals provide important data for promotion and salary decisions
  2. B) appraisal let supervisors and subordinates develop plans to correct performance deficiencies
  3. C) appraisals serve as useful career planning purposes
  4. D) All of the above.

 

13) Besides the supervisor, which of the following is available to managers as an alternative source of performance appraisal information?

  1. A) peers
  2. B) rating committees
  3. C) the employee
  4. D) All of the above.

 

14) Which of the following is a valid appraisal source?

  1. A) self-ratings
  2. B) 360-degree feedback
  3. C) subordinates
  4. D) All of the above.

 

15) Which of the following is a way to increase 360-degree appraisals?

  1. A) anchor the 360-degree items with behavioral competencies
  2. B) assess the costs of the program and carefully train the people giving and receiving feedback
  3. C) make sure the feedback given is productive, unbiased ad development oriented
  4. D) All of the above.

16) Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance?

  1. A) alternation ranking
  2. B) graphic rating scale
  3. C) Likert
  4. D) MBO
  5. E) constant sum rating scale

 

17) The ________ method of performance appraisal involves listing all the subordinates to be rated,  indicating the employee who is the highest on each characteristic being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating between the next highest and lowest until all employees have been ranked.

  1. A) alternation ranking
  2. B) graphic rating scale
  3. C) MBO
  4. D) constant sum rating scale

18) Alternation ranking refers to an appraisal method, which ________.

  1. A) is based on progress made toward the accomplishment of measurable goals
  2. B) requires that the supervisor keep a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate’s work-related behavior
  3. C) requires a supervisor to evaluate performance by assigning predetermined percentages of those being rated into performance categories
  4. D) involves listing all the subordinates to be rated, indicating the employee who is the highest on each characteristic being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating between the next highest and lowest until all employees have been ranked

 

19) Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair. Finally, you add up the number of positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the ________ method of performance appraisal.

  1. A) graphic ranking scale
  2. B) alternation ranking
  3. C) paired comparison
  4. D) forced distribution

20) Forced distribution refers to an appraisal method, which ________.

  1. A) is based on progress made toward the accomplishment of measurable goals
  2. B) combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance
  3. C) requires a supervisor to evaluate performance by assigning predetermined percentages of those being rated into performance categories
  4. D) involves listing all the subordinates to be rated, indicating the employee who is the highest on each characteristic being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating between the next highest and lowest until all employees have been ranked

 

21) When a supervisor evaluates performance by assigning predetermined percentages of ratees into performance categories, he or she has used the ________ method of performance appraisal.

  1. A) constant sum ranking scale
  2. B) alternation ranking
  3. C) paired comparison
  4. D) forced distribution

 

22) John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department, is in the process of evaluating his staff’s performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. John is using a ________ method.

  1. A) graphic rating scale
  2. B) constant sum ranking scale
  3. C) forced distribution
  4. D) alternation ranking

 

23) Which of the following measurement methods rates employee performance relative to other employees?

  1. A) graphic rating scale
  2. B) forced distribution
  3. C) Likert scale
  4. D) critical incident method

24) Which of the following is a criticism of the forced distribution method?

  1. A) it damages morale
  2. B) it promotes unfairly
  3. C) it promotes those who play the game well
  4. D) None of the above.

25) To protect against bias claims when using the forced distribution method employers should ________.

  1. A) appoint a review committee to review any employee’s low ranking
  2. B) train raters to be objective
  3. C) consider using multiple raters in conjunction with the method
  4. D) All of the above.

 

26) With the ________ method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate’s work-related behavior.

  1. A) alternation ranking
  2. B) constant sums rating
  3. C) narrative forms
  4. D) critical incident

 

27) The critical incident technique refers to an appraisal method, which ________.

  1. A) is based on progress made toward the accomplishment of measurable goals
  2. B) combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance
  3. C) requires that the supervisor keep a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate’s work-related behavior
  4. D) involves listing all the subordinates to be rated, crossing out the names of any not known well enough to rank, indicating the employee who is the highest on each characteristic being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating between the next highest and lowest until all employees have been ranked

28) All of the following are advantages of using the critical incident method for appraising performance except that:

  1. A) it provides examples of good performance.
  2. B) it does not include a numerical rating.
  3. C) it provides examples of poor performance.
  4. D) incidents can be tied to performance goals.

 

29) Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?

  1. A) behaviorally anchored rating scale
  2. B) graphic rating scale
  3. C) alternation ranking

 

30) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) refers to an appraisal method, which ________.

  1. A) is based on progress made toward the accomplishment of measurable goals
  2. B) combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance
  3. C) requires that the supervisor keep a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate’s work-related behavior
  4. D) requires a supervisor to evaluate performance by assigning predetermined percentages of those being rated into performance categories

 

31) Management by objectives (MBO) refers to an appraisal method, which ________.

  1. A) is based on progress made toward the accomplishment of measurable goals
  2. B) combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance
  3. C) requires that the supervisor keep a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate’s work-related behavior
  4. D) involves listing all the subordinates to be rated, crossing out the names of any not known well enough to rank, indicating the employee who is the highest on each characteristic being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating between the next highest and lowest until all employees have been ranked

32) What is the first step in the Management by Objectives Method?

  1. A) set the organization’s goals
  2. B) set departmental goals
  3. C) discuss departmental goals
  4. D) define expected results

 

33) What is the second step in the Management by Objectives Method?

  1. A) set the organization’s goals
  2. B) set departmental goals
  3. C) discuss departmental goals
  4. D) define expected results

 

34) What is the third step in the Management by Objectives Method?

  1. A) set the organization’s goals
  2. B) set departmental goals
  3. C) discuss departmental goals
  4. D) define expected results

 

35) What is the fourth step in the Management by Objectives Method?

  1. A) set the organization’s goals
  2. B) set departmental goals
  3. C) discuss departmental goals
  4. D) define expected results

 

36) What is the fifth step in the Management by Objectives Method?

  1. A) conduct performance reviews and measure the results
  2. B) set departmental goals
  3. C) discuss departmental goals
  4. D) define expected results

37) In how many ways is performance management different from performance appraisal?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 2
  4. D) None

 

38) Which of the following is a reason for the use of performance management in organizations?

  1. A) it contributes to total quality
  2. B) it is better than performance appraisal
  3. C) it is important because it helps in strategic planning
  4. D) All of the above.

 

39) What is the last step in the Management by Objectives Method?

  1. A) provide feedback
  2. B) set departmental goals
  3. C) discuss departmental goals
  4. D) define expected results

40) When different supervisors define levels of performance (good, fair, poor) differently, unfair appraisals could result due to a problem with ________.

  1. A) unclear standards
  2. B) halo effects
  3. C) complexity
  4. D) leniency

41) ________ is defined as the influence of a rater’s general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities.

  1. A) Impression management
  2. B) Halo effect
  3. C) Central tendency
  4. D) Bias

42) Jason is generally considered unfriendly at work. His supervisor rates him low on the trait “gets along well with others” but also rates him lower on other traits unrelated to socialization at work. Jason’s performance appraisal may be unfair due to ________.

  1. A) impression management
  2. B) stereotyping
  3. C) halo effects
  4. D) strictness

 

43) Some supervisors, when filling in rating scales, tend to avoid the highs and lows on the scale and rate most people in the middle. This ________ means that all employees may be rated average.

  1. A) stereotyping
  2. B) central tendency
  3. C) strictness
  4. D) leniency

 

44) The best way of reducing the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to ________.

  1. A) rank employees
  2. B) be aware of the problem
  3. C) train supervisors to avoid it
  4. D) consider the purpose of the appraisal

 

45) The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high.

  1. A) leniency
  2. B) strictness
  3. C) bias
  4. D) halo effect

46) The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.

  1. A) central tendency
  2. B) leniency
  3. C) strictness
  4. D) bias

47) One personality study focused on how individual traits influenced the evaluations that students gave their peers. Raters who scored higher on ________ tended to give their peers lower ratings.

  1. A) agreeableness
  2. B) extroversion
  3. C) conscientiousness
  4. D) openness

 

48) Which personality trait is associated with performance appraisal ratings that are too lenient?

  1. A) agreeableness
  2. B) extroversion
  3. C) conscientiousness
  4. D) openness

 

49) One way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to ________.

  1. A) rank employees
  2. B) be aware of the problem
  3. C) train supervisors to avoid it
  4. D) consider the purpose of the appraisal

 

50) When an employee’s personal characteristics such as gender influence a supervisor’s evaluation of his or her performance, the problem of ________ has occurred.

  1. A) bias
  2. B) stereotyping
  3. C) central tendency
  4. D) halo affect

51) Which of the following could result in a legally questionable appraisal process?

  1. A) conduct a job analysis to establish criteria and standards for successful performance
  2. B) base appraisals on subjective supervisory observations
  3. C) administer and score appraisals in a standardized fashion
  4. D) use clearly defined job performance dimensions

 

52) Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee’s performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal?

  1. A) peers
  2. B) rating committees
  3. C) top management
  4. D) immediate supervisor

 

53) Performance appraisals may be conducted by ________.

  1. A) the immediate supervisor
  2. B) peers
  3. C) rating committees
  4. D) All of the above.

 

54) Rating committees, made up of an employee’s immediate supervisor along with other supervisors, usually have ________ other members.

  1. A) 1-2
  2. B) 3-4
  3. C) 6-7
  4. D) 8-9

 

55) Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a(n) ________.

  1. A) reduction of social loafing in the team
  2. B) reduction of group cohesion
  3. C) decrease in satisfaction with the group
  4. D) tendency to inaccurately predict who would be promoted

56) What usually occurs when employees rate themselves in a performance appraisal?

  1. A) interrater reliability is higher
  2. B) appraisals are subject to halo effects
  3. C) ratings are higher than when rated by supervisors or peers
  4. D) ratings are about the same as when determined by peers

57) Firms that use ________ let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor’s performance.

  1. A) downward feedback
  2. B) upward feedback
  3. C) narratives
  4. D) critical incidents

58) What process allows top management to diagnose the management styles of supervisors, identify potential “people” problems, and take corrective action with individual supervisors as necessary?

  1. A) strategic performance appraisal
  2. B) organizational development
  3. C) upward feedback
  4. D) critical incidents

 

59) When subordinates provide feedback for supervisors, the comments should be anonymous because identifiable responses tend to result in more ________.

  1. A) critical ratings
  2. B) negative attitudes from managers receiving the feedback
  3. C) inflated ratings
  4. D) All of the above.

 

60) ________ is a process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career skills and interests and to use these skills and interests most effectively within the company and afterwards.

  1. A) Organizational development
  2. B) Career management
  3. C) Career development
  4. D) Career planning

61) Career management refers to the ________.

  1. A) the lifelong series of activities that contributes to a person’s career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment
  2. B) process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career skills and interests and to use these skills and interests most effectively within the company and afterwards
  3. C) process of using activities like training and appraisal to provide a career focus
  4. D) occupational positions a person has over his or her lifetime

62) The lifelong series of activities that contributes to a person’s career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment is called ________.

  1. A) organizational development
  2. B) career management
  3. C) career development
  4. D) career planning

63) Career development refers to the ________.

  1. A) process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and establishes action plans to attain those goals
  2. B) the lifelong series of activities that contributes to a person’s career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment
  3. C) process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career skills and interests and to use these skills and interests most effectively within the company and afterwards
  4. D) process of using activities like training and appraisal to provide a career focus

 

64) Career planning refers to the ________.

  1. A) process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and establishes action plans to attain those goals
  2. B) the lifelong series of activities that contributes to a person’s career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment
  3. C) process of using activities like training and appraisal to provide a career focus
  4. D) occupational positions a person has over his or her lifetime

65) The process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and establishes action plans to attain those goals is called ________.

  1. A) organizational development
  2. B) career management
  3. C) career development
  4. D) career planning

 

66) Jackie is working with a coach to identify her personal skills and interests. Then she plans to get information about opportunities that fit her skills and interests and set career goals for what she seeks to accomplish. Jackie is in the midst of ________.

  1. A) organizational development
  2. B) career development
  3. C) career planning
  4. D) training

 

67) Who is responsible for the planning, guiding, and developing an employee’s career?

  1. A) the immediate supervisor
  2. B) the employee
  3. C) the organization
  4. D) the development officer

 

68) Responsibility for career development should always be left to the ________.

  1. A) employee
  2. B) supervisor
  3. C) manager
  4. D) career success team

 

 

69) Assessing interests, seeking out career information, and utilizing development opportunities are all part of the ________ role in career development.

  1. A) individual’s
  2. B) manager’s
  3. C) supervisor’s
  4. D) company’s

70) When Amanda interviewed for a job with the employment commission, the interviewer warned her that the job could be very stressful with long hours and a lot of bureaucracy. The interviewer was trying to provide ________.

  1. A) reality shock
  2. B) a realistic job interview
  3. C) disincentive
  4. D) a challenge

 

71) Miranda wants to make partner at her law firm. She is worried, though, because everyone understands that 70-hour work weeks are the norm for someone striving to make partner. Miranda wants to be fair to her family as well as excel at work. To address this problem, the law firm could help by ________.

  1. A) providing Miranda with a career coach
  2. B) encouraging Miranda to join a career success team
  3. C) eliminating institutional barriers that disproportionately affect women
  4. D) encouraging Miranda to temporarily work in a different job

best captures the meaning of the term, glass ceiling?

  1. A) structural, yet subtle barriers in corporate environments which inhibit the rise of talented women to positions of leadership
  2. B) inadequate networking opportunities which result in a lack of an “old girl’s network” to mirror that of men
  3. C) unspoken decision by corporate leadership that women should not be encouraged to advance beyond middle management levels
  4. D) the lack of desire among women to pursue jobs with extreme levels of responsibility and authority

73) What is another term for 360-degree feedback?

  1. A) feedback loop
  2. B) multi-source feedback
  3. C) upward feedback
  4. D) wheel feedback

74) When conducting an appraisal interview, supervisors should do all of the following except:

  1. A) compare the person’s performance to a standard.
  2. B) encourage the employee to talk.
  3. C) give specific examples of poor performance.
  4. D) compare the person’s performance to that of other employees.

 

75) When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is best to ________.

  1. A) hold the meeting with other people who can diffuse the negative situation
  2. B) provide examples of critical incidents
  3. C) acknowledge the supervisor’s personal biases in the situation
  4. D) provide feedback once per year

76) Performance appraisals assume that the employee understood what his or her performance standards were.

 

77) Managers should appraise employees with respect to the specific goals by which he or she expected to be measured.

 

78) Setting useful goals is easy to do.

79) Most managers are very willing and able to set measurable goals for their subordinates.

80) 360-Degree feedback is usually used for developmental purposes rather than pay purposes.

 

81) The forced distribution method is sometimes referred to as the “rank and yank” method.

 

82) The critical incident method forces supervisors to consider all the important aspects of an employee’s performance.

83) In practice, appraisal forms often blend several approaches to appraisal into one.

84) Electronic performance monitoring seems to raise employee stress levels.

85) A properly designed performance management system utilizes yearly meetings to ensure continuous improvement in the employee’s capacity and performance.

 

86) Goals should be challenging, but not so difficult that they appear impossible or unrealistic.

87) The evidence suggests that participatively set goals consistently result in higher performance than assigned goals.

 

88) The HR department conducts performance appraisals, develops the appraisal tools, and monitors the appraisal system.

appraisal there is no need to worry about anything else.

 

90) The alternation ranking method is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising performance.

 

91) Quantitative goals are best.

method is similar to grading on a curve meaning that predetermined percentages of those being rated are placed into performance categories.

93) The basic problem with rankings is that while it is not difficult to identify the extreme good and bad performers, it is difficult to differentiate meaningfully between the others.

 

94) BARS is a rating approach that involves keeping a record of uncommonly good or undesirable examples of an employee’s work-related behavior and reviewing it with the employee at predetermined times.

95) MBO relates an employee’s work goals to his or her departmental goals and to the organization’s goals.

96) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) allows supervisors to electronically monitor the amount of computerized data an employee is process each day.

 

97) The advantages of the BARS appraisal tool include accuracy, clear standards, and consistency.

98) Graphic rating scales are the most reliable for rating performance.

 

99) Central tendency is defined as the influence of a rater’s general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities.

100) Peer appraisals have been shown to have an immediate positive impact on improving task motivation, cohesion, and satisfaction, while reducing social loafing.

101) Managers who receive feedback from subordinates who identify themselves view the upward appraisal process more negatively than do managers who receive anonymous feedback.

102) An appraisal interview is used to make plans for new hires as they move through the selection and training process.

103) Career development is the lifelong series of activities that contributes to a person’s career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment.

 

104) A career is the occupational positions one holds at a single organization.

 

105) The employee, the manager, and the employer should all share the responsibility for an employee’s career development and career success.

106) Matching individual strengths and weaknesses with occupational opportunities and threats is the key to the career planning process.

107) The barriers for women to advance at work are referred to as the glass ceiling because it is so easy to break through it.

108) 360-degree feedback is generally used for development purposes, rather than for pay increases.

109) 360-degree feedback is sometimes called the wheel of feedback because ratings are collected from all around an employee.

5

110) Explain what the SMART acronym tells us about goal setting.

111) Why do we have performance management?

112) Explain the three steps in the performance appraisal process.

 

113) Explain how an MBO program works and describe the six steps involved in this type of program.

114) There are several guidelines for developing an appraisal that is legally defensible. Identify four of these guidelines.

 

115) What is the main difference between performance appraisal and performance management?

116) What roles and responsibilities should a manager have in an employee’s career development?

 

117) What steps can organizations take to enhance the promotional and career prospects for their female employees?

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 7   Compensating Employees

 

1) ________ refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees and arising from their employment.

  1. A) Reimbursement
  2. B) Employee compensation
  3. C) Salary
  4. D) Benefits

 

2) Direct financial payments include all of the following except:

  1. A) wages.
  2. B) insurance.
  3. C) salaries.
  4. D) incentives.

3) Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee compensation?

  1. A) wages
  2. B) salaries
  3. C) employer-paid insurance
  4. D) bonuses

 

4) Which of the following factors affects the design of any pay plan?

  1. A) legal
  2. B) union
  3. C) equity
  4. D) All of the above.

5) Which compensation-related law contains minimum wage, maximum hours, overtime pay, equal pay, and child labor provisions?

  1. A) Davis-Bacon Act
  2. B) Fair Wages Act
  3. C) Civil Rights Act
  4. D) Fair Labor Standards Act

6) Which of the following is addressed by the Fair Labor Standards Act?

  1. A) minimum wage
  2. B) maximum hours
  3. C) child labor
  4. D) All of the above.

7) The Fair Labor Standards Act covers workers employed in ________.

  1. A) manufacturing
  2. B) retailing
  3. C) service industries
  4. D) All of the above.

 

8) Which law makes it illegal to discriminate against any individual with respect to compensation because of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?

  1. A) Fair Labor Standards Act
  2. B) Civil Rights Act
  3. C) Employer Retirement Income Security Act
  4. D) Davis-Bacon Act

 

9) According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a worker covered by the act works more than 40 hours, he or she will receive overtime pay at a rate of ________ of normal pay for any hours worked over 40 in a workweek.

  1. A) 50%
  2. B) 100%
  3. C) 125%
  4. D) 150%

10) Jill works as a cashier at a grocery store. She earns $8 an hour (or $320 for a 40-hour week). Last week, she worked 44 hours. Given standard requirements from the FLSA, what did she earn last week?

  1. A) $320
  2. B) $336
  3. C) $344
  4. D) $368

1

11) Jack worked 6 hours of overtime this week but has decided to take time off instead of overtime pay. How many hours will Jack get off?

  1. A) 3 hours
  2. B) 6 hours
  3. C) 9 hours
  4. D) 12 hours

1

 

12) Which of the following occupations must adhere to overtime and minimum pay provisions stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act?

  1. A) paralegals
  2. B) pharmacists
  3. C) attorneys
  4. D) department heads

 

13) All of the following occupations are exempt from the overtime provisions stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act except:

  1. A) physicians.
  2. B) dentists.
  3. C) management trainees.
  4. D) teachers.

14) The ________ states that employees of one sex may not be paid wages at a rate lower than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for doing roughly equivalent work.

  1. A) American Disabilities Act
  2. B) Civil Rights Act
  3. C) Employer Retirement Income Security Act
  4. D) Equal Pay Act

15) Under which condition is it acceptable for employees of the opposite sex to receive different pay for doing roughly equivalent work?

  1. A) when the difference exists despite equal skills
  2. B) when the difference exists despite similar responsibility
  3. C) when the difference exists because of a merit system
  4. D) it is never acceptable

16) Which of the following professions is considered “nonexempt” from provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act?

  1. A) attorney
  2. B) physician
  3. C) management trainee
  4. D) general manager

1

 

17) The ________ prohibits discriminating against employees who are 40 years of age and older in all aspects of employment, including compensation.

  1. A) Fair Labor Standards Act
  2. B) Civil Rights Act
  3. C) Equal Pay Act
  4. D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act

 

18) According to the Family and Medical Leave Act, eligible employees can take up to ________ weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave for the birth of a child or for the care of a child, spouse, or parent.

  1. A) two
  2. B) four
  3. C) six
  4. D) twelve

19) According to the Family and Medical Leave Act, eligible employees can take unpaid, job-protected leave for the ________.

  1. A) care of a child
  2. B) birth of a child
  3. C) care of a parent
  4. D) All of the above.

 

20) Which of the following is true for employers who use independent contractors?

  1. A) Fair Labor Standards Act regulations do not apply
  2. B) Social Security taxes are higher than for regular employees
  3. C) State income taxes are charged at a higher rate
  4. D) Social Security taxes are charged at a higher rate

21) The ________ allows a firm to borrow against employee stock held in trust.

  1. A) Fair Labor Standards Act
  2. B) Civil Rights Act
  3. C) Employer Retirement Income Security Act
  4. D) National Labor Relations Act

 

22) Historically, the main issue in collective bargaining is ________.

  1. A) time off with pay
  2. B) wage rates
  3. C) income security
  4. D) health care benefits

23) Unions negotiate all of the following pay-related issues except:

  1. A) wage rates
  2. B) income security
  3. C) unpaid leave to care for an immediate family member
  4. D) time off with pay

24) Which form of equity refers to how a job’s pay rate in one company compares to the job’s pay rate in other companies?

  1. A) external
  2. B) internal
  3. C) distributive

 

25) Jason is an information systems technician in a town in North Carolina with a population of 100,000. He earns $35,000/year. He recently found out that a nearby town with a similar population pays people in the same position $40,000/year. Jason is concerned with the ________ form of equity.

  1. A) distributive
  2. B) procedural
  3. C) internal
  4. D) external

26) Which form of equity refers to how fair a job’s pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company?

  1. A) external
  2. B) internal
  3. C) distributive
  4. D) individual

 

27) Jack is a sales manager and he recently learned that human resource managers with similar responsibilities and spans of control earn more than he does. Jack is concerned with the ________ form of equity.

  1. A) external
  2. B) internal
  3. C) distributive
  4. D) individual

 

28) External equity refers to ________.

  1. A) how a job’s pay rate in one company compares the job’s pay rate in other companies
  2. B) how fair the job’s pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company
  3. C) the fairness of an individual’s pay as compared with what his or her coworkers are earning for the same or very similar jobs within the company, based on each individual’s performance
  4. D) the perceived fairness of the processes and procedures used to make decisions regarding the allocation of pay

 

29) Internal equity refers to ________.

  1. A) how a job’s pay rate in one company compares the job’s pay rate in other companies
  2. B) how fair the job’s pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company
  3. C) the fairness of an individual’s pay as compared with what his or her coworkers are earning for the same or very similar jobs within the company, based on each individual’s performance
  4. D) the perceived fairness of the processes and procedures used to make decisions regarding the allocation of pay

30) ________ is a formal and systematic comparison of jobs to determine the worth of one job relative to another.

  1. A) Job analysis
  2. B) Job evaluation
  3. C) Benchmark analysis
  4. D) Job ranking

31) Which of the following is not one of the compensable factors emphasized in the Equal Pay Act?

  1. A) skills
  2. B) effort
  3. C) accountability
  4. D) responsibility

 

32) Factors that establish how the jobs compare to one another and set the pay for each job are called ________ factors.

  1. A) compensable
  2. B) job evaluation
  3. C) ranking
  4. D) analysis

33) When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups of similar jobs called ________.

  1. A) classes
  2. B) grades
  3. C) sections
  4. D) cohorts

 

34) When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups of jobs that are similar in difficulty but not in context called ________.

  1. A) classes
  2. B) grades
  3. C) sections
  4. D) cohorts

35) The point method of job evaluation entails ________.

  1. A) identifying several compensable factors, each having several degrees, and the degree to which each of these factors is present in the job
  2. B) ranking each job relative to all other jobs based on some overall factor
  3. C) using raters to categorize jobs into groups
  4. D) deciding which jobs have more of the chosen compensable factors

36) Which job evaluation method is a quantitative technique involving the identification of several compensable factors and the degree to which each of these factors is present in the job?

  1. A) ranking method
  2. B) point method
  3. C) factor comparison
  4. D) job classification method

37) A ________ is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation.

  1. A) pay group
  2. B) benchmark
  3. C) pay grade
  4. D) class

2

 

38) The ________ shows the pay rates currently paid for jobs in each pay grade, relative to the points or rankings assigned to each job or grade by the job evaluation.

  1. A) pay group
  2. B) pay grade
  3. C) class
  4. D) wage curve

 

39) What is the purpose of the wage curve?

  1. A) to show the relationship between the value of the job as determined by one of the job evaluation methods and the current average pay rates for your grades
  2. B) to equate jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation
  3. C) to assign pay rates to pay grades
  4. D) to choose benchmark jobs within each pay grade

40) Which of the following is typically included in compensation packages for a company’s top executives?

  1. A) short-term and long-term incentives
  2. B) perks
  3. C) executive benefits
  4. D) All of the above.

 

41) Supplemental executive retirement plans and supplemental life insurance are classified as ________ in executive compensation packages.

  1. A) base pay
  2. B) short-term incentives
  3. C) long-term incentives
  4. D) executive benefits

2

 

42) A company using competency-based pay compensates for all of the following except an employee’s ________.

  1. A) range of skills
  2. B) job title
  3. C) depth of knowledge
  4. D) type of skills

 

43) ________ means collapsing salary grades and ranges into just a few wide levels or bands, each of which contains a relatively wide range of jobs and salary levels.

  1. A) Comparable worth
  2. B) Strategic compensation
  3. C) Broadbanding
  4. D) Job grading

 

44) According to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, if a company must restate financial statements due to material noncompliance with a financial reporting requirement, the act requires that the CEO ________.

  1. A) repay any bonuses received during the 12 months prior to the issuance of the financial statements in question
  2. B) make a public apology to stock holders
  3. C) resign from the position of CEO
  4. D) All of the above.

 

45) What type of pay plan is being used when workers are paid a sum for each unit they produce?

  1. A) base pay
  2. B) competency-based pay
  3. C) job-based pay
  4. D) piecework

 

46) ________ is any salary increase the firm awards to an individual employee based on his or her individual performance.

  1. A) Merit pay
  2. B) Variable pay
  3. C) Competency-based pay
  4. D) Piecework

 

 

47) How does merit pay differ from a bonus?

  1. A) Merit pay becomes part of an employee’s base pay, but a bonus does not.
  2. B) A bonus becomes part of an employee’s base pay, but merit pay does not.
  3. C) Merit pay is linked to individual performance, while a bonus is not.
  4. D) A bonus is linked to individual performance, while merit pay is linked to company performance

 

48) Which of the following is true of recognition programs?

  1. A) They have a positive impact on performance.
  2. B) They are expensive to administer.
  3. C) They reduce extrinsic motivation.
  4. D) Both A and B.

 

49) All of the following are advantages of team incentives except that:

  1. A) team planning is reinforced.
  2. B) worker’s pay may not be proportional to his or her efforts.
  3. C) jealousy is reduced.
  4. D) collaboration is encouraged.

50) What type of profit-sharing plan involves the awarded shares of stock as part of the incentive plan?

  1. A) cash plan
  2. B) Lincoln incentive system
  3. C) Jefferson incentive system
  4. D) ESOP

 

51) Which profit-sharing plan provides tax advantages for the employer at fair market value?

  1. A) cash plan
  2. B) Jefferson incentive system
  3. C) deferred profit-sharing plan
  4. D) ESOP

52) Companywide plans in which a corporation contributes shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm’s stock for employees are called ________.

  1. A) cash plans
  2. B) Jefferson incentive systems
  3. C) deferred profit-sharing plans
  4. D) employee stock ownership plans

53) Which plan uses a trust to hold stock in individual employee accounts and distributes it to employees upon retirement?

  1. A) cash plan
  2. B) Jefferson incentive system
  3. C) deferred profit-sharing plan
  4. D) employee stock ownership plan

 

54) The Scanlon plan includes all of the following features except:

  1. A) improving productivity.
  2. B) an emphasis on individual achievement.
  3. C) sharing.
  4. D) financial gains.

55) Which incentive plan is based on a philosophy that managers and employees must cooperate together?

  1. A) cash plan
  2. B) Scanlon plan
  3. C) deferred profit-sharing plan
  4. D) employee stock ownership plan

 

56) A(n) ________ plan is an incentive plan that engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company’s productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company.

  1. A) Scanlon
  2. B) Lincoln incentive
  3. C) Gainsharing
  4. D) ESOP

57) Gainsharing is an incentive plan that ________.

  1. A) uses a trust to hold stock in individual employee accounts and distributes it to employees upon retirement
  2. B) engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company’s productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company
  3. C) contributes company shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm’s stock for employees
  4. D) involves the firm simply distributing a percentage of profits as profit shares to employees at regular intervals

 

58) The indirect financial and nonfinancial payments employees receive for continuing employment with the company are called ________.

  1. A) reimbursement
  2. B) employee compensation
  3. C) salary
  4. D) benefits

 

59) Nonfinancial payments like health and life insurance, pensions, time off with pay, and child care facilities are examples of ________.

  1. A) variable pay
  2. B) competency-based incentives
  3. C) benefits
  4. D) salary

 

60) Approximately what percentage of employers offer some health insurance coverage?

  1. A) 25%
  2. B) 40%
  3. C) 60%
  4. D) 99%

 

61) Which of the following benefits is required by federal or state law?

  1. A) disability insurance
  2. B) workers’ compensation
  3. C) paid time off for vacations and holidays
  4. D) pensions

62) Which regulation covers pension plans and requires employers to have written plan documents that establish terms such as eligibility and participation?

  1. A) Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)
  2. B) Economic Growth and Tax Relief Conciliation Act
  3. C) Newborn Mother’s Protection Act
  4. D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

 

63) Which regulation ensures that an employer must grant an employee up to 12 weeks of leave in a twelve-month period for the birth or care of a newborn child, placement of a child for adoption, to care for a spouse, child, or parent with a serious health condition, or to care for the employee’s own serious health condition?

  1. A) Family and Medical Leave Act
  2. B) Economic Growth and Tax Relief Conciliation Act
  3. C) Job Creation and Worker Assistance Act
  4. D) Newborn Mother’s Protection Act
  5. E) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

 

 

64) The Family and Medical Leave Act ________.

  1. A) provides guidelines regarding what rates of return employers should use in computing their pension plan values
  2. B) ensures that an employer must grant an employee up to 12 weeks of leave in a twelve-month period for the birth or care of a newborn child, placement of a child for adoption, to care for a spouse, child, or parent with a serious health condition, or to care for the employee’s own serious health condition
  3. C) prohibits an employer’s health plan from using incentives to encourage employees to leave the hospital after childbirth after less than the legislatively-determined minimum stay
  4. D) sets minimum requirements for protecting individuals’ health-care data accessibility and confidentiality

 

65) How many weeks may an employee take as unpaid leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act?

  1. A) two
  2. B) four
  3. C) six
  4. D) twelve

66) Which of the following is false regarding the application of the Family and Medical Leave Act?

  1. A) Up to 12 weeks must be granted in a twelve-month period.
  2. B) To be eligible, an employee must have worked for the employer for at least twelve months.
  3. C) No advance notice is necessary.
  4. D) To be eligible, an employee must have worked for a minimum of 1250 hours in the past twelve months.

 

67) Holidays, vacations, jury duty, funeral leave, military duty, personal days, sick leave, sabbatical leave, and maternity leave are classified as ________ benefits.

  1. A) supplemental pay
  2. B) insurance
  3. C) services
  4. D) premium

 

 

68) ________ provides benefits if a person is unable to work through no fault of his or her own.

  1. A) Supplemental pay benefits
  2. B) Unemployment insurance
  3. C) Retirement
  4. D) Health insurance

 

69) Who contributes funds to workers’ compensation benefits?

  1. A) each state
  2. B) federal government
  3. C) employers
  4. D) All of the above.

 

70) The goal of ________ is to provide sure, prompt income and medical benefits to work-related accident victims or their dependents, regardless of fault.

  1. A) severance pay
  2. B) sick leave
  3. C) workers’ compensation
  4. D) the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

71) Which of the following benefits could be awarded as workers’ compensation?

  1. A) cash benefit
  2. B) medical services
  3. C) time off with pay
  4. D) Both A and B.

72) Which of the following conditions must be met for an injured employee to earn workers’ compensation from his or her employer?

  1. A) The injury must have occurred while the employee was on the job.
  2. B) The employee suffered the injury through no fault of his or her own.
  3. C) The employee must have worked for a minimum of 1250 hours during the past twelve consecutive months.
  4. D) All of the above.

 

73) Which health benefit listed below is offered by almost all employers?

  1. A) mental health insurance
  2. B) chiropractic insurance
  3. C) medical care insurance
  4. D) wellness program

 

74) A(n) ________ is a medical organization consisting of specialists operating out of a community-based health care center that provides routine medical services to employees who pay a nominal fee.

  1. A) PPO
  2. B) HMO
  3. C) DMO
  4. D) hospital

 

75) ________ are groups of health care providers that contract with employers, insurance companies, or third-party payers to provide medical care services at a reduced fee.

  1. A) PPOs
  2. B) HMOs
  3. C) DMOs
  4. D) Hospitals

 

76) The ________ requires employers to treat women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions the same as any employee not able to work, with respect to all benefits, including sick leave and disability benefits, health and medical insurance.

  1. A) Family and Medical Leave Act
  2. B) Pregnancy Discrimination Act
  3. C) Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
  4. D) American Disabilities Act

77) Which regulation listed below requires that most private employers continue to make health benefits available to terminated or retired employees and their families for a period of time?

  1. A) Family and Medical Leave Act
  2. B) Pregnancy Discrimination Act
  3. C) Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
  4. D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

 

78) The Pregnancy Discrimination Act ________.

  1. A) requires employers to treat women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions the same as any employee not able to work, with respect to all benefits, including sick leave and disability benefits, health and medical insurance
  2. B) covers pension plans and requires employers to have written plan documents that establish terms such as eligibility and participation
  3. C) prohibits an employer’s health plan from using incentives to encourage employees to leave the hospital after childbirth after less than the legislatively-determined minimum stay
  4. D) sets minimum requirements for protecting individuals’ health-care data accessibility and confidentiality

79) The Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act requires most private employers to continue to make health benefits available to terminated or retired employees and their families for a period of time, generally ________.

  1. A) 6 months
  2. B) 12 months
  3. C) 18 months
  4. D) 24 months

80) The full retirement age according to Social Security for individuals born in 1960 or later is ________.

  1. A) 62
  2. B) 65
  3. C) 67
  4. D) 70

 

81) Social Security provides all of the following benefits except:

  1. A) income if retirement is at age 62 or later and individual is insured under the Social Security Act.
  2. B) death benefits to surviving dependents for those insured under the Social Security Act
  3. C) Medicare.
  4. D) income if retirement is at age 55 or later.

 

82) When an employer makes all of the contributions to the pension plan, the pension plan is classified as ________.

  1. A) qualified
  2. B) non-qualified
  3. C) defined contribution
  4. D) non-contributory

83) Malcolm is interviewing for a new job and he is evaluating the quality of the pension plans offered for each company he is considering. One company offers a pension plan in which the company will make all contributions to the plan and will base his pension benefit on a formula linked to his pay at the time of retirement and the number of years he was with the firm. This pension plan could be classified as ________.

  1. A) qualified, defined benefit
  2. B) non-contributory, defined benefit
  3. C) non-contributory, defined contribution
  4. D) contributory, qualified

 

84) Jenny’s pension plan encourages her to contribute at least 5% of her annual salary in addition to the set amount that her company contributes. She is given choices regarding how the money is invested. When she retires, the amount she has available will depend on how much she invested herself, and the rate of return on the investments she chose. This pension plan could be classified as ________.

  1. A) qualified, defined benefit
  2. B) non-contributory, defined benefit
  3. C) contributory, defined contribution
  4. D) contributory, defined benefit

 

85) A defined contribution pension plan encourages employees to contribute a portion of their earnings to the fund with an employer contribution that is matched to that of the employee in whole or part is called a(n) ________.

  1. A) savings and thrift plan
  2. B) matching plan
  3. C) deferred profit-sharing plan
  4. D) employee stock ownership plan

 

86) ________ provide services like personal legal and financial counseling, child care referrals, elder care referrals adoption assistance, mental health counseling, and life event planning.

  1. A) Social Security programs
  2. B) Pension plans
  3. C) Employee Assistance Programs
  4. D) Family-friendly benefits

87) ________ seek to enable employees to better meet the demands of their family and work lives.

  1. A) Sick leave
  2. B) Family-friendly benefits
  3. C) Pay plans
  4. D) Benefit management systems

 

88) ESOP is an incentive plan that ________.

  1. A) uses a trust to hold stock in individual employee accounts and distributes it to employees upon retirement
  2. B) engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company’s productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company
  3. C) contributes company shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm’s stock for employees
  4. D) provides tax advantages for employees by deferring income taxes, often until the employee retires

89) An employee stock ownership plan is an incentive plan that ________.

  1. A) engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a company’s productivity objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company
  2. B) focuses on the sharing of benefits between employer and employees
  3. C) contributes company shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to a trust established to purchase shares of the firm’s stock for employees
  4. D) involves the firm distributing total annual profits each year among employees based on their merit rating

 

90) Plans that put some portion of the employee’s weekly pay at risk to encourage goal attainment are called ________ pay plans.

  1. A) at-risk variable
  2. B) Rucker
  3. C) Improshare
  4. D) Scanlon

 

91) Financial benefits like employer-paid insurance and vacations are not a part of employee compensation.

 

92) Historically, the main issue in collective bargaining is wage rates.

93) Indirect payments that contribute to an employee’s compensation include variable pay, such as commissions and bonuses.

1

 

94) When employees work more than 40 hours per week, employers must pay overtime at a rate of at least one and a half times the normal pay for any hours worked over 40 in a workweek.

 

95) Because the minimum wage is set by the Fair Labor Standards Act, all states adhere to that wage.

96) The Equal Pay Act states that employees of one sex may not be paid wages at a rate lower than that paid to employees of the opposite sex for doing roughly equivalent work.

97) While laws exist to protect against discrimination in compensation based on gender and age, no law protects against such discrimination against persons with disabilities.

 

98) The provision of the Family and Medical Leave Act that entitles employees to take up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave for the birth of a child only applies to women.

 

99) Some employers may misclassify employees as independent contractors to reduce the taxes they must pay.

100) External equity refers to how fair the job’s pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company.

101) The Equal Pay Act focuses on three compensable factors—know-how, problem solving, and accountability.

 

102) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 makes board members personally liable for violating their fiduciary responsibilities to their shareholders.

 

103) All merit increases are cumulative in that they become a part of an employee’s base salary.

 

104) A key advantage of employee stock ownership plans is that the company gets a tax advantage equal to the fair market value of the shares that are transferred to the trustee and can also claim an income tax deduction for dividends paid on ESOP-owned stock.

 

105) The Scanlon plan is a type of gainsharing plan.

 

106) Scanlon plans involve putting some portion of an employee’s weekly pay at risk for the opportunity to earn incentives if the employee meets or exceeds his or her goals.

 

110) Job classification is the simplest of the job evaluation methods.

 

 

107) Competencies are demonstrable characteristics of a person including knowledge, skills, and behaviors that enable performance.

 

108) The primary advantage of broadbanding is that it provides greater flexibility into employee assignments.

109) About 99% of employers in the United States offer some form of health insurance coverage.

 

110) Employee benefits account for about one-third of wages and salaries.

 

111) Workers’ compensation benefits can be medical or monetary.

 

112) If an employee is injured at work due to a blatant disregard for company safety policies, the company is not required to pay workers’ compensation.

 

113) Women affected by pregnancy and childbirth are eligible for the same benefits as disabled employees.

 

114) The American Disabilities Act makes it illegal for employers to discriminate against women by providing benefits of a lower amount or duration for pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions.

 

115) The Comprehensive Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act ensures that employers are not responsible for making health benefits available to terminated or retired employees and their families.

116) There is no limit to the amount an employee can contribute pre-tax into a 401(k) plan each year.

117) Broadbanding refers to the requirement to pay men and women equal wages for jobs of comparable value to the employer.

 

118) List the steps used to establish pay rates while ensuring external, internal, and procedural equity.

119) List the steps used in the job ranking method of job evaluation.

120) What are the steps for pricing jobs with a wage curve?

121) Explain the advantages of employee stock ownership plans.

122) Explain the purpose of sick leave and why sick leave pay causes difficulties for many employers.

 

123) Why do employers provide severance pay to employees who are being terminated? Offer at least three reasons. What standards guide the amount of severance pay offered?

124) Explain the three types of benefits provided by Social Security.

Answer:  Social Security provides retirement benefits, death benefits, and disability payments. Retirement benefits provide income to those who retire at age 62 or after. Death benefits provide monthly payments to dependents of the deceased individual regardless of the individual’s age at death. Disability payments provide payments to employees who become totally disabled and to their dependents if they work and meet certain requirements.

apply to basic pension plans.

126) Why are family-friendly benefits increasingly valuable to employees? What are some examples of family-friendly benefits?

 

127) Briefly explain how an at-risk variable pay plan works.

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 8   Ethics and Fair Treatment in Human Resource Management

 

1) The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________.

  1. A) judgments
  2. B) norms
  3. C) ethics
  4. D) laws

1

 

2) Ethics refers to the ________.

  1. A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong
  2. B) characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company’s employees share
  3. C) principles of conduct governing an individual or group
  4. D) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct

 

3) Morality refers to the ________.

  1. A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong
  2. B) principles of conduct governing an individual or group
  3. C) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct
  4. D) standards of behavior accepted by society

4) ________ justice refers to fair outcomes.

  1. A) Distributive
  2. B) Procedural
  3. C) Interactional
  4. D) Normative

 

5) ________ justice refers to something that is good or bad, right or wrong, better or worse.

  1. A) Distributive
  2. B) Procedural
  3. C) Interactional
  4. D) Normative

6) Distributive justice refers to the ________.

  1. A) fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision
  2. B) manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees
  3. C) fairness of a decision’s result
  4. D) the degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse or disrespect

 

7) Which component of justice in refers to the fairness of a process?

  1. A) distributive justice
  2. B) procedural justice
  3. C) interactional justice
  4. D) interpersonal justice

 

8) Procedural justice refers to the ________.

  1. A) fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision
  2. B) manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees
  3. C) fairness of a decision’s result
  4. D) the degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse or disrespect

Answer:  A

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 225

Skill:  AACSB: Ethical Reasoning

Objective:  Chapter objective 1

 

9) Which of the following is not an influencing factor on ethical behavior?

  1. A) moral disengagement
  2. B) employees talking openly about ethics
  3. C) managers
  4. D) All of the above.

_________________________.

  1. A) Organizational culture
  2. B) Organizational climate
  3. C) Organizational ethics
  4. D) National culture

11) Bullying involves ________.

  1. A) Imbalance of Power
  2. B) Repetition
  3. C) Intent to Cause Harm
  4. D) All of the above.

12) Bullying can take many forms except ________.

  1. A) spreading rumors
  2. B) using the Internet
  3. C) leaving people out on purpose
  4. D) All of the above are forms of bullying.

 

13) Federal Express has a guaranteed fair treatment multistep program consisting of _______________ .

  1. A) management review
  2. B) officer complaint
  3. C) organizing ceremonies
  4. D) A and B only.

 

 

14) With respect to rights and fairness, which one of the following is not true?

A An increasingly litigious workforce is a reason to  be fair.

  1. B) Many societies correctly rely solely on managers’ sense of fairness to ensure that they do what is right by their employees
  2. C) Laws like Title VII give employees various rights
  3. D) Employees also have certain rights under common law.

15) The CEO of Southwest Airlines can sometimes be seen helping out at a gate, handling luggage, and assisting cabin attendants while in flight. This is an example of ________ to create and sustain the company’s culture.

  1. A) providing physical support
  2. B) organizing ceremonies
  3. C) clarifying expectations
  4. D) using signs and symbols

16) Capital One welcomes new employees on a designated day with balloons, parties, and pep rallies. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) providing physical support
  2. B) using stories
  3. C) using symbols
  4. D) organizing ceremonies

 

17) Offering rewards for ethical behavior: _______________________.

  1. A) can backfire
  2. B) may actually undermine the intrinsic value of ethical behavior
  3. C) can lead to promoting someone who got a big sale through devious means
  4. D) All of the above.

18) Ethical behavior starts with ________.

  1. A) moral awareness
  2. B) moral ineptitude
  3. C) morality
  4. D) systemic cognitive biases

 

19) Under which of the following circumstances would an interview used for selection purposes be perceived as unfair?

  1. A) Two-way communication is used.
  2. B) Applicant is given an opportunity to display skills.
  3. C) Feedback is provided.
  4. D) A personality test is administered.

 

20) The purpose of ________ is to inform employees ahead of time what is and is not acceptable behavior

  1. A) ethics
  2. B) norms
  3. C) discipline
  4. D) morality

21) In which organizational document are an organization’s rules and regulations usually stated?

  1. A) employee handbook
  2. B) code of ethics
  3. C) sexual harassment training guide
  4. D) human resource policy manual

 

22) A fair discipline process is built on which of the following?

  1. A) rules and regulations
  2. B) a system of progressive penalties
  3. C) an appeals process
  4. D) All of the above.

23) All of the following is a step in discipline without punishment except:

  1. A) issue a written reminder.
  2. B) give a paid, one-day “decision-making leave.”
  3. C) if no further incidents purge the one-day suspension from the file.
  4. D) None of the above.

 

24) Which of the following is not a fair discipline guideline?

  1. A) A set of clear rules and regulations.
  2. B) A system of progressive penalties .
  3. C) An appeals process should be part of the disciplinary process.
  4. D) All of the above are part of a fair discipline process.

25) Which of the following is one of the types of privacy violations upheld by courts?

  1. A) intrusion
  2. B) publication of private matters
  3. C) appropriation of an employee’s name for commercial purposes
  4. D) videotaping in the workplace

 

26) The most drastic step a manager can take in response to an employee offense is ________.

  1. A) written warning
  2. B) warning documented in employee file
  3. C) time off without pay
  4. D) dismissal

 

27) The “terminate at will” rule guiding the employment relationship has traditionally meant that ________.

  1. A) an employee can resign for any reason
  2. B) an employer can fire an employee for any reason
  3. C) contracts do not hold any real meaning in a court battle
  4. D) Both A and B.

3

 

28) Which of the following exceptions is not responsible for eroding the strength of the “terminate at will” doctrine?

  1. A) public policy exception
  2. B) public relations exception
  3. C) statutory exception
  4. D) All of the above have eroded the doctrine’s strength.

 

29) Under the public policy exception to the termination at will doctrine, courts have held that ________.

  1. A) discharge is wrongful when it is against an explicit, well-established law
  2. B) even in the absence of a written document, an implied contract existed based on representations in the employee handbook
  3. C) employers should not fire employees without good cause
  4. D) persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job is reason for dismissal

30) The exception to the termination at will doctrine that would protect an employee from dismissal because he or she refused to break the law is called the ________ exception.

  1. A) covenant of good faith
  2. B) implied contract
  3. C) public policy
  4. D) whistle blower

 

31) All of the following are reasonable bases for dismissal except:

  1. A) unsatisfactory performance.
  2. B) whistle blowing.
  3. C) misconduct.
  4. D) lack of qualifications for job.

4

 

32) Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job?

  1. A) unsatisfactory performance
  2. B) misconduct
  3. C) lack of qualifications for job
  4. D) changed requirements of job

 

33) Unsatisfactory performance, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________.

  1. A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer’s rules and may include stealing and insubordination
  2. B) an employee’s inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence
  3. C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job
  4. D) an employee’s inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed

 

34) Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the deliberate and willful violation of the employer’s rules and may include stealing and insubordination?

  1. A) unsatisfactory performance
  2. B) whistle blowing
  3. C) misconduct
  4. D) changed requirements of job

for dismissal, is defined as ________.

  1. A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer’s rules and may include stealing and insubordination
  2. B) an employee’s inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence
  3. C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job
  4. D) an employee’s inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed

36) Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as an employee’s inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence?

  1. A) unsatisfactory performance
  2. B) misconduct
  3. C) lack of qualifications for job
  4. D) changed requirements of job

37 Lack of qualifications, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________.

  1. A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer’s rules and may include stealing and insubordination
  2. B) an employee’s inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence
  3. C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job
  4. D) stealing, chronic tardiness, and flat-out disobedience

 

38) Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as an employee’s inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed?

  1. A) unsatisfactory performance
  2. B) misconduct
  3. C) lack of qualifications for job
  4. D) changed requirements of job

39) A change in requirements of the job, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________.

  1. A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer’s rules and may include stealing and insubordination
  2. B) an employee’s inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence
  3. C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job
  4. D) an employee’s inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed

40) Which of the following is not an example of employee insubordination?

  1. A) mutiny
  2. B) eavesdropping
  3. C) disrespect
  4. D) public criticism of one’s boss

41) When an employee’s dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises, ________ has occurred.

  1. A) mutiny
  2. B) insubordination
  3. C) wrongful discharge
  4. D) emotional hardship

 

42) ________ is a systematic process by which some one who is terminated is trained and counseled in the techniques of conducting a self-appraisal and securing a job appropriate to his or her needs and talents.

  1. A) An exit interview
  2. B) Outplacement counseling
  3. C) A job counseling fair
  4. D) Downsizing

 

43) What law requires that employers of 100 or more employees receive 60 days’ notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more?

  1. A) COBRA
  2. B) ERISA
  3. C) Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act
  4. D) Electronic Communications Privacy Act

 

44) The plant closing law requires that employers ________.

  1. A) provide training for new jobs for employees affected by the plant closing
  2. B) offer employees of one year or more comparable jobs elsewhere
  3. C) provide a severance pay of two months or more
  4. D) notify employees 60 days in advance of the plant closing

4

 

45) The plant closing law requires employers with ________ or more employees to give advance notification prior to closing a facility.

  1. A) 25
  2. B) 50
  3. C) 100
  4. D) 150

 

46) All of the following are classified as non-disciplinary separations under the plant closing law except:

  1. A) reduced sales or profits or recession.
  2. B) termination for cause.
  3. C) to retire or to seek better jobs.
  4. D) employer or employee actions.

 

47) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act is also known as ________.

  1. A) COBRA
  2. B) the plant closing law
  3. C) ERISA
  4. D) the privacy law

4

 

48) James wants to get rid of an obnoxious subordinate. He makes life miserable for her so that she eventually quits. She can claim that she was ________.

  1. A) wrongfully discharged
  2. B) constructively discharged
  3. C) fired at will
  4. D) Both A and B .

 

49) To try to ensure that the termination interview will go smoothly all of the following must take place except:

  1. A) review the severance package.
  2. B) identify the next step.
  3. C) describe the situation.
  4. D) All of the above.

50) What is the first step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?

  1. A) plan the interview carefully
  2. B) get to the point
  3. C) describe the situation
  4. D) listen

 

51) What is the second step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?

  1. A) plan the interview carefully
  2. B) get to the point
  3. C) describe the situation
  4. D) listen

52) What is the third step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?

  1. A) plan the interview carefully
  2. B) get to the point
  3. C) describe the situation
  4. D) listen

4

 

53) What is the fourth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?

  1. A) plan the interview carefully
  2. B) get to the point
  3. C) describe the situation
  4. D) listen

 

 

54) What is the fifth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?

  1. A) review the severance package
  2. B) get to the point
  3. C) describe the situation
  4. D) listen

55) What is the sixth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?

  1. A) identify the next step
  2. B) get to the point
  3. C) describe the situation
  4. D) listen

 

56) Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process by which a decision is made.

1

 

57) Managers can do a lot to influence employee ethics by carefully cultivating the right norms, leadership, reward systems, and culture.

 

58) The principal cause of ethical compromises is based on organizational pressure to meet a schedule or some other objective.

 

59) Employees who believe they were treated fairly tend to have higher employee commitment, enhanced satisfaction with the organization and their jobs, and exhibit organizational citizenship behaviors.

 

60) The purpose of discipline is to encourage employees to behave sensibly at work.

61) Bullying means singling out someone to harass and mistreat them.

1

62) Incidents of bullying involve repetition.

63) Using the Internet, mobile phones, or other digital technologies to harm others is a form of verbal bullying.

 

64) Ethical decisions always involve normative judgments about what is right or wrong.

 

65) Distributive justice refers to the manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees.

66) Punitive discipline focuses on gaining employee ongoing cooperation.

67) Nonpunitive discipline is discipline involving oral warnings and paid “decision-making leaves of absence.”

68) If an employee conducts a personal phone call at work, the employer can legally eavesdrop and monitor the phone call.

3

 

69) Employers may be held liable for illegal acts their employees commit via email.

70) Wrongful discharge occurs when an employee’s dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises.

71) In a constructive discharge claim, the former employee argues that he or she quit, but had no choice because the employer made the situation intolerable.

 

72) Poor          attendance, voluntary turnover, and psychological withdrawal also reflect diminished employee engagement.

73) Open         door policies and anonymous “hotlines” help management identify and remedy morale problems before they get out of hand.

 

74) What is ethical is always legal.

 

75) Engagement is fostered when employees understand how their departments contribute to the company’s success.

 

76) Employees should be engaged by providing them with reasons and methods to satisfy customers and then rewarded for appropriate behavior.

 

77) Only about 21% of the global workforce is engaged, and almost 40% is disengaged.

 

78) Engagement refers to being psychologically involved in, connected to, and committed to getting one’s jobs done.

79) Offering rewards for ethical behavior is a foolproof way to ensure ethicality.

80) One survey indicated that companies with highly engaged employees have no higher revenue per employee.

81) Actions that can foster employee engagement include getting a sense of accomplishment from working at the firm

 

 

82) The severity of a penalty is usually a function of the type of offense and the number of times the offense has occurred.

83) Discipline without punishment aims to avoid a residue of ill will and promote ongoing cooperation.

84) Outplacement counseling is a systematic process by which a former employee is trained and counseled in the techniques of securing a new job appropriate to his or her needs and talents.

85) The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days’ notice before closing a facility.

 

86) What are the things that shape ethical behavior at work? Name four.

 

87) Discuss the ways an employer can manage dismissals effectively.

88) Why treat employees fairly?

 

89) A research team analyzed the tangible and intangible costs of turnover in a call center with 31 agents and four supervisors. List three examples of tangible and three examples of intangible costs associate with the functioning of the department.

 

90) Name the three pillars of a fair and just discipline process.

 

91) Define non-punitive discipline and outline the process for applying nonpunitive discipline to gain employees’ acceptance of company rules.

 

92) Explain the meaning of the “terminate at will” rule that has guided the employee/employer relationship in the United States.

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 9   Managing Labor Relations and Collective Bargaining

 

1) About ________% of people working in the United States belong to unions.

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 12
  3. C) 20
  4. D) 45

 

2) The decision to unionize may be based on ________.

  1. A) fear of job loss
  2. B) arbitrary management actions
  3. C) increasing workload
  4. D) All of the above.

3) The closed shop form of union security means that the ________.

  1. A) company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union
  2. B) company can hire only union members
  3. C) employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues
  4. D) employees can decide whether to join the union and only those who join pay dues

4) The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.

  1. A) closed shop
  2. B) union shop
  3. C) agency shop
  4. D) maintenance of agreement

5) The union shop form of union security means that the ________.

  1. A) company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union
  2. B) company can hire only union members
  3. C) employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues
  4. D) employees can decide whether to join the union and only those who join pay

6) The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire nonunion people but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time.

  1. A) closed shop
  2. B) union shop
  3. C) agency shop
  4. D) open shop

7) The agency shop form of union security means that the ________.

  1. A) company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union
  2. B) company can hire only union members
  3. C) employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues
  4. D) employees can decide whether to join the union and only those who join pay dues

 

8) The ________ form of union security means that the employees who do not belong to the union still must pay union dues because the union’s efforts benefit them all.

  1. A) closed shop
  2. B) union shop
  3. C) agency shop
  4. D) open shop

9) The ________ form of union security means that it is up to the workers whether or not they join the union and only those who join must pay dues.

  1. A) closed shop
  2. B) union shop
  3. C) agency shop
  4. D) maintenance of membership

10) The ________ form of union security means that union members have preference in hiring, but the employer can hire non-union members.

  1. A) closed shop
  2. B) union shop
  3. C) agency shop
  4. D) preferential shop

11) The term ________ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.

  1. A) termination at will
  2. B) right to work
  3. C) open shop
  4. D) free labor

1

 

12) Right to work laws inhibit union formation by ________.

  1. A) outlawing unions in right to work states
  2. B) prohibiting any form of union security
  3. C) leaving the question of union affiliation up to each company
  4. D) leaving the question of union security up to each company

13) In which human resource activity does a typical labor agreement give the union a role?

  1. A) recruitment
  2. B) selection
  3. C) dismissal
  4. D) All of the above.

 

14) The AFL-CIO is a ________.

  1. A) voluntary federation of about 56 national and international labor unions made up of many local unions
  2. B) local union for automobile workers in Detroit, Michigan
  3. C) federation of companies who fight unionization of their plants and facilities
  4. D) regional form of the National Labor Relations Board

15) The ________ guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference, restraint, or coercion.

  1. A) National Labor Relations Act
  2. B) Norris-LaGuardia Act
  3. C) National Labor Relations Board
  4. D) Taft-Hartley Act

16) A contract that allows management to require nonunion membership as a condition for employment is called a ________ contract.

  1. A) yellow dog
  2. B) scaredy cat
  3. C) yellow chicken
  4. D) black dog

17) Prior to 1930, employers attempted to limit the influence of unions using all of the following methods except:

  1. A) spies.
  2. B) collective bargaining.
  3. C) firing union agitator.
  4. D) blacklisting union members.

 

18) The ________ banned certain unfair labor practices and provided for majority rule by secret-ballot elections to determine whether a firm’s employees would unionize.

  1. A) National Labor Relations Act
  2. B) Norris-LaGuardia Act
  3. C) AFL-CIO
  4. D) Taft-Hartley Act

 

19) The ________ was established by the Wagner Act to enforce its provisions.

  1. A) National Labor Relations Committee
  2. B) Norris-LaGuardia Group
  3. C) National Labor Relations Board
  4. D) Knights of Labor

20) The Norris-LaGuardia Act ________.

  1. A) guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference, restraint, or coercion
  2. B) made yellow dog contracts unenforceable
  3. C) banned unions from restraining or coercing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights
  4. D) Both A and B.

21) The Wagner Act ________.

  1. A) guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference, restraint, or coercion
  2. B) made yellow dog contracts unenforceable
  3. C) provided for secret-ballot elections for determining whether a firm’s employees would unionize
  4. D) banned unions from restraining or coercing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights

 

22) The National Labor Relations Act was also known as the ________.

  1. A) Taft-Hartley Act
  2. B) Gompers Act
  3. C) Wagner Act
  4. D) Landrum-Griffin Act

 

23) Which of the following was not named an unfair labor practice by the Wagner Act?

  1. A) bribing employees
  2. B) yellow dog contracts
  3. C) company spy systems
  4. D) moving businesses to avoid unionization

 

24) In what year was the Wagner Act passed?

  1. A) 1886
  2. B) 1932
  3. C) 1935
  4. D) 1947

 

25) The Taft-Hartley Act limited unions in all of the following ways except:

  1. A) prohibiting unfair labor practices.
  2. B) establishing the National Labor Review board.
  3. C) enumerating the rights of employees as union members.
  4. D) enumerating the rights of employers.

26) Which law gave employers the right to express their views concerning union organization?

  1. A) Norris-LaGuardia Act
  2. B) Taft-Hartley Act
  3. C) Gompers Act
  4. D) Landrum-Griffin Act

 

27) Which law sought to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions?

  1. A) Norris-LaGuardia Act
  2. B) Taft-Hartley Act
  3. C) Wagner Act
  4. D) Landrum-Griffin Act

 

28) According to the Landrum-Griffin Act, national and international unions must elect officers at least once every ________ years.

  1. A) two
  2. B) four
  3. C) five
  4. D) ten

 

 

29) What is the first step in a union drive and election that seeks to be recognized as an employee representative?

  1. A) obtaining authorization cards
  2. B) making initial contact
  3. C) holding a hearing
  4. D) holding an election

 

30) ________ is an organizing tactic by which full-time undercover union organizers are hired unknowingly by employers in order to sway union elections.

  1. A) Union salting
  2. B) Featherbedding
  3. C) Espionage
  4. D) Infiltration

31) In which step of a union drive does the union seek employee signatures to cards that state the employee has applied to join the union?

  1. A) first
  2. B) second
  3. C) third
  4. D) fifth

 

32) How many steps does a drive to unionize a company have?

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 6

33) What is the first step in the union drive and election?

  1. A) initial contact
  2. B) signing authorization cards
  3. C) the hearing
  4. D) the campaign

34) What is the third step in the union drive and election?

  1. A) initial contact
  2. B) signing authorization cards
  3. C) the hearing
  4. D) the campaign

35) What is the fourth step in the union drive and election?

  1. A) initial contact
  2. B) signing authorization cards
  3. C) the hearing
  4. D) the campaign

2

36) What is the second step in the union drive and election?

  1. A) initial contact
  2. B) signing authorization cards
  3. C) the hearing
  4. D) the campaign

 

37) What is the fifth step in the union drive and election?

  1. A) the election
  2. B) signing authorization cards
  3. C) the hearing
  4. D) the campaign

 

38) What percentage of eligible employees in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards in order for the union to petition the NLRB for an election?

  1. A) 10
  2. B) 20
  3. C) 30
  4. D) 50

2

 

 

39) The typical union authorization card does all of the following except:

  1. A) lets the union state they will seek better working conditions.
  2. B) states that the union will seek to improve wages.
  3. C) states that the employee will get better deals.
  4. D) Authorization cards do all of the above.

 

40) A supervisor cannot do which of the following during a unionization drive?

  1. A) threaten
  2. B) bribe
  3. C) promise previously unplanned pay increases or special favors
  4. D) All of the above.

41) The ________ is the group of employees the union will be authorized to represent.

  1. A) bargaining unit
  2. B) collective unit
  3. C) unit
  4. D) unitary principle

 

42) Which of the following the supervisor can do during a unionization drive?

  1. A) presents facts to employees
  2. B) give opinions about whether unions will hurt
  3. C) share personal experiences he or she had with a union
  4. D) All of the above.

43) The union becomes the employees’ representative if it wins the election and winning means getting ________.

  1. A) a majority of votes cast
  2. B) a majority of the total workers in the bargaining unit
  3. C) 30% of the employees to sign authorization cards
  4. D) a majority of votes cast and a majority of electoral votes

 

 

44) ________ is the process of legally terminating a union’s right to represent employees.

  1. A) Union salting
  2. B) Featherbedding
  3. C) Certification
  4. D) Decertification

 

45) Which of the following is not a violation of the requirement for good faith bargaining stipulated in the National Labor Relations Act?

  1. A) surface bargaining
  2. B) willingness to compromise
  3. C) dilatory tactics
  4. D) bypassing the union representative

46) Which of the following is one of the categories set out by labor law as subject to bargaining?

  1. A) legal bargaining items
  2. B) permissible bargaining items
  3. C) non-mandatory bargaining items
  4. D) benefits-related bargaining items

 

47) Permissible bargaining items are ________.

  1. A) a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union
  2. B) forbidden by law
  3. C) items which must be negotiated according to law
  4. D) All of the above.

 

48) All of the following are examples of mandatory bargaining items except:

  1. A) wages.
  2. B) hours.
  3. C) severance pay.
  4. D) pension benefits of retired employees.

 

 

49) All of the following are examples of permissible bargaining items except:

  1. A) indemnity bonds.
  2. B) use of union label.
  3. C) overtime pay.
  4. D) cafeteria prices.

50) Illegal bargaining items are ________.

  1. A) a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union
  2. B) forbidden by law
  3. C) items which must be negotiated according to law
  4. D) All of the above.

51) Mandatory bargaining items are ________.

  1. A) a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union
  2. B) forbidden by law
  3. C) items which must be negotiated according to law
  4. D) All of the above.

 

52) In collective bargaining, a(n) ________ occurs when the parties are not able to move forward toward settlement.

  1. A) impasse
  2. B) agreement
  3. C) arbitration
  4. D) association

 

53) Negotiators use all of the following types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse except:

  1. A) binding arbitration.
  2. B) nonbinding arbitration.
  3. C) mediation.
  4. D) picketing.

54) Which third-party intervention uses a neutral third party to assist the principals in reaching agreement?

  1. A) fact finding
  2. B) mediation
  3. C) binding arbitration
  4. D) non-binding arbitration

 

55) Mediation to ________ is used by negotiators to end an impasse.

  1. A) assist the principals in reaching an agreement
  2. B) study the issue in a dispute
  3. C) determine and dictate the settlement terms
  4. D) interpret existing contract terms

56) All of the following are negotiating guidelines except:

  1. A) setting clear objectives
  2. B) respecting the importance of face-saving for the other party
  3. C) building a reputation for being fair but firm
  4. D) never giving in to any demands

 

57) Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?

  1. A) fact finding
  2. B) mediation
  3. C) binding arbitration
  4. D) interest arbitration

 

58) Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by ________.

  1. A) assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
  2. B) studying the issue in a dispute and making a public recommendation
  3. C) interpreting existing contract terms
  4. D) communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike

59) Which third-party intervention is commonly used in national emergency disputes?

  1. A) fact finding
  2. B) mediation
  3. C) binding arbitration
  4. D) non-binding arbitration

 

60) Arbitration means ending an impasse by ________.

  1. A) assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
  2. B) studying the issue in a dispute
  3. C) making a public recommendation
  4. D) giving a third-party the power to determine and dictate the settlement terms

61) Which form of arbitration means that both parties are committed to accepting the arbitrator’s decision?

  1. A) interest arbitration
  2. B) binding arbitration
  3. C) nonbinding arbitration
  4. D) compulsory arbitration

 

62) A(n) ________ strike results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract.

  1. A) unfair labor practice
  2. B) wildcat
  3. C) sympathy
  4. D) economic

 

63) The head of the United Auto Workers recently said the union planned a new campaign to organize foreign-owned car plants in the United States. This is an example of  ________ strike/campaign.

  1. A) unfair labor practice
  2. B) wildcat
  3. C) advocacy
  4. D) yellow dog

64) Which type of strike is unauthorized and occurs during the term of a contract?

  1. A) unfair labor practice
  2. B) wildcat
  3. C) sympathy
  4. D) economic

 

65) When employees picket their employer by carrying signs near the employer’s place of business they seek to ________.

  1. A) encourage other employees to strike
  2. B) inform the public of the labor dispute
  3. C) arbitrate the positions of the union and management
  4. D) All of the above.

66) Employers dealing with an unfair labor practice strike can use all of the following responses except:

  1. A) shut down the affected area until the strike ends.
  2. B) contract out work to other operations.
  3. C) continue operations with supervisors filling in.
  4. D) hire permanent replacement workers.

 

67) Under which scenario must an employer rehire strikers who wish to be reinstated?

  1. A) following economic strikes if the negotiations were resolved
  2. B) following sympathy strikes
  3. C) following unfair labor practice strikes
  4. D) following wildcat strikes when the contract is still in place

3

 

68) Employees who go on strike risk losing their jobs permanently in all of the following situations except:

  1. A) economic strikes.
  2. B) wildcat strikes.
  3. C) sympathy strikes.
  4. D) unfair labor practice strikes.

69) Union tactics designed to impede or disrupt production by encouraging employees to slow the pace of work, refuse to work overtime, and participate in sick-outs are called ________.

  1. A) espionage
  2. B) inside games
  3. C) lockouts
  4. D) strikes

 

70) A(n) ________ procedure provides an orderly system for both employer and union to determine whether some action violated the contract and allows both parties to interpret and give meaning to various clauses.

  1. A) negotiation
  2. B) collective bargaining
  3. C) intervention
  4. D) grievance

71) Which of the ways below describe how unions are changing?

  1. A) unions are trying to mobilize minorities
  2. B) unions are trying class action suits
  3. C) unions are coordinating their activities
  4. D) All of the above.

72) Union membership is declining.

73) Unions are only appropriate for blue-collar workers.

 

74) All states give unions the right to require union membership as a condition of employment.

 

75) Right to work is a term used to describe state statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.

 

76) Pay is always the issue as to why people unionize.

 

77) Unions are always bad for employers.

78) In a drive to certify a union all five steps must be completed.

 

79) Arbitration may not always be as impartial as thought.

80) Right to work laws outlaw unions and union membership.

81) Most unionized workers belong to unions affiliated with the AFL-CIO.

 

82) The Taft-Hartley Act amended the National Labor Relations Act by limiting unions in four ways.

 

83) The Landrum-Griffin Act made it lawful for employers to pay their own employees to entice them not to join the union.

 

84) It is legal for union organizers to solicit employees for membership as long as the effort does not endanger the performance or safety of the employees.

85) It is acceptable for an employer to refuse to hire a union member because as members of the union they might be union salts even if he or she is qualified for the position.

 

86) Most companies do contest the union’s right to represent their employees despite the authorization cards collected by the union.

 

87) The union wins the election if a majority of the total workers in a bargaining unit vote for it.

 

88) Decertification campaigns to end union representation are in principle very similar to the initial certification campaign that brought the union into power.

89) Ignoring bargaining items is a good strategy for negotiating with labor unions while staying within the limits of good faith bargaining.

 

90) One party can obligate the other party to negotiate over permissible items if the employees agree to it.

 

 

91) Mediation guarantees a solution to any impasse that may occur during collective bargaining negotiations.

92) Employers can replace strikers permanently unless the strike is based on unfair labor practices.

93) Generally, lockouts are not viewed by the NLRB as an unfair labor practice.

94) What is the meaning of union security and what are the five types of union security possible? Explain each type.

 

95) Identify the five labor practices used by employers that the Wagner Act deemed unfair and considered “statutory wrongs.”

 

96) List and describe the five steps involved in planning a union drive and election.

 

97) What does the typical union authorization card do?

Answer:  It lets the union seek a representative election if at least 30% of employees sign. It designates the union as a bargaining representative in all employment matters. It states that the employee has applied for membership in the union and that the employee will be subject to union rules and by-laws.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 253-254

Skill:  AACSB: Communication

Objective:  Chapter objective 2

98) In the case of an impasse during the collective bargaining negotiations, what can be done to overcome the impasse? Define each form of intervention.

Answer:  Negotiators use three types of third party interventions to overcome an impasse: mediation, fact-finding, and arbitration. With mediation, a neutral third party tries to assist the principals in reaching an agreement. This includes holding meeting with each party to determine their respective positions. The mediator serves as a go-between and does not have authority to dictate terms or make concessions. He or she can communicate his or her opinions as to the likelihood of a strike. A fact finder is a neutral party who studies the issues in a dispute and makes a public recommendation for a reasonable settlement. This is commonly used in national emergency disputes. Arbitration offers the arbitrator the power to determine and dictate the settlement terms. If the arbitration is binding, both parties are committed to accepting the decision of the arbitrator.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 261-263

Skill:  AACSB: Communication

Objective:  Chapter objective 3

 

99) List and define the four main types of strikes.

Answer:  The four main types of strikes are economic, wildcat, sympathy, and unfair labor practice strikes. Economic strikes result from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract. Unions call unfair labor practice strikes to protest illegal conduct by the employer. A wildcat strike is an unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract. A sympathy strike occurs when one union strikes in support of the strike of another union.

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 262

Objective:  Chapter objective 3

 

100) Name five sections covered by a typical contract agreement.

Answer:  The following sections are typically covered in a contract agreement: 1) management rights, 2) union security, 3) grievance procedures, 4) arbitration of grievances, 5) disciplinary procedures, 6) compensation rates, 7) hours of work and overtime, 8) benefits including vacations, holidays, insurance, and pensions, 9) health and safety provisions, 10) employee security seniority provisions, and 11) the contract expiration date.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 263

Objective:  Chapter objective 3

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 10   Protecting Safety and Health

 

1) Each year there are roughly ________ cases of workplace accidents per 100 full-time workers in the United States.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 9

2) The basic purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration is to ________.

  1. A) administer the act and to set and enforce the safety and health standards that apply to almost all workers in the S.
  2. B) assure every person safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve human resources
  3. C) provide safe and healthful working conditions to self-employed persons
  4. D) to prevent the occurrence of occupational illnesses among all employees

 

3) The basic purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act is to ________.

  1. A) administer the act and to set and enforce the safety and health standards that apply to almost all workers in the S.
  2. B) assure every person safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve human resources
  3. C) provide safe and healthful working conditions to self-employed persons
  4. D) to prevent the occurrence of occupational illnesses among public employees

 

4) All of the following types of organizations are covered by the Occupational Safety and Health Act except:

  1. A) federal agencies.
  2. B) hospitals.
  3. C) schools.
  4. D) self-employed persons.

5) Which department enforces the standards set out in the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

  1. A) Department of Health Services
  2. B) Department of Labor
  3. C) Department of Financial Services
  4. D) Economic Development Department

 

6) Under OSHA, employers with ________ or more employees must maintain records of and report occupational injuries and occupational illnesses.

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 11
  3. C) 25
  4. D) 100

 

7) What term is used to describe any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment?

  1. A) occupational injury
  2. B) workers’ compensation
  3. C) chronic illness
  4. D) occupational illness

 

8) Which of the following would be considered OSHA’s top priority for inspection?

  1. A) investigating the occurrence of a fatality
  2. B) inspecting a cite where there is an imminent danger situation
  3. C) conducting random inspections and re-inspections
  4. D) investigating employee complaints of alleged violations

 

9) Which of the following would be considered OSHA’s lowest priority for inspection?

  1. A) investigating the occurrence of a fatality
  2. B) inspecting a cite where there is an imminent danger situations
  3. C) conducting follow-up inspections
  4. D) conducting a special-emphasis inspection aimed at a high-hazard industry

10) When a complaint indicates the possibility of imminent danger, OSHA conducts an inspection within ________.

  1. A) 5 hours
  2. B) 24 hours
  3. C) 3 days
  4. D) 5 days

 

11) Penalties imposed by OSHA generally range from $5000 to ________ but can go higher in some cases.

  1. A) $20,000
  2. B) $35,000
  3. C) $50,000
  4. D) $70,000

1

 

12) Which of the following should you do when you have an OSHA inspection?

  1. A) accompany the inspector and take detailed notes
  2. B) establish the focus and scope of the planned inspection
  3. C) refer the inspector to your OSHA coordinator
  4. D) All of the above.

 

13) All of the following are basic causes of workplace accidents except:

  1. A) chance occurrences.
  2. B) unsafe conditions.
  3. C) unsafe behavior by employees.
  4. D) weather-related accidents.

14) Improperly guarded equipment, defective equipment, hazardous procedures, and improper ventilation are all examples of ________.

  1. A) chance occurrences
  2. B) unsafe conditions
  3. C) unsafe storage
  4. D) weather-related accidents

15) Which of the following factors contributes to accidents at work?

  1. A) unsafe conditions
  2. B) safety climate
  3. C) stress
  4. D) All of the above.

 

16) Which of the following is not a basis for reducing and preventing accidents at work?

  1. A) reducing unsafe conditions
  2. B) reducing unsafe acts
  3. C) training employees
  4. D) hiring non-accident-prone workers

 

17) Unsafe acts can be reduced through all of the following methods except:

  1. A) job rotation.
  2. B) screening.
  3. C) training.
  4. D) incentive programs.

 

18) When managers identify a trait associated with work-place accidents and then use this trait as part of the selection process for new hires, they are using ________ to reduce unsafe acts.

  1. A) job rotation
  2. B) screening
  3. C) training
  4. D) incentive programs

4

 

19) When managers reduce unsafe acts through selection, it means that they ________.

  1. A) identify a trait associated with work-place accidents and then screen candidates on this trait
  2. B) rotate employees through different positions
  3. C) offer incentives to employee teams with low accident rates
  4. D) respond to employee suggestions to improve possible problem areas

 

20) A safety oriented culture exhibits ________.

  1. A) teamwork involving safety
  2. B) communication and collaboration on safety matters
  3. C) assignment of critical functions to specific individuals
  4. D) All of the above.

 

21) Which of the following is a type of workplace exposure hazard?

  1. A) chemicals
  2. B) excessive noise
  3. C) temperature extremes
  4. D) All of the above.

 

22) Which of the following may require respirators?

  1. A) lead-based paint
  2. B) asbestos
  3. C) radon
  4. D) mold

 

23) Alcoholism among employees results in a(n) ________.

  1. A) increase in on-the-job accidents
  2. B) increase in job satisfaction
  3. C) increase in on-the-job absenteeism
  4. D) decrease in off-the-job accident rate

 

24) Which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of possible alcoholism in an employee?

  1. A) domestic problems
  2. B) avoidance of fellow employees
  3. C) lying
  4. D) tardiness

 

25) A drug-free workplace program includes how many components?

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 4

 

26) All of the following are components of a drug-free workplace program except:

  1. A) a drug-free workplace policy.
  2. B) supervisor training.
  3. C) employee education.
  4. D) all of the above

 

27) All of the following are symptoms of employees in the advanced stage of alcoholism except:

  1. A) drinking on the job
  2. B) blackouts and frequent forgetfulness
  3. C) resignation
  4. D) violent outbursts

28) All of the following are symptoms of employees in the middle stage of alcoholism except:

  1. A) frequent absences.
  2. B) anxiety.
  3. C) untrue statements.
  4. D) mood swings.

29) Missed deadlines are a possible alcoholism performance issue in which stage of alcoholism?

  1. A) advanced
  2. B) middle
  3. C) early
  4. D) lingering

30) Warnings from boss are a possible alcoholism performance issue in which stage of alcoholism?

  1. A) advanced
  2. B) middle
  3. C) early
  4. D) lingering

 

31) Noticeably reduced performance is a possible alcoholism performance issue in which stage of alcoholism?

  1. A) advanced
  2. B) middle
  3. C) early
  4. D) lingering

Answer:  B

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 289

Objective:  Chapter objective 5

 

32) Basically incompetent performance is a possible alcoholism performance issue in which stage of alcoholism?

  1. A) advanced
  2. B) middle
  3. C) early
  4. D) lingering

5

 

33) Accidents are a possible alcoholism performance issue in which stage of alcoholism?

  1. A) advanced
  2. B) middle
  3. C) early
  4. D) lingering

 

 

34) Reduced job efficiency is a possible alcoholism performance issue in which stage of alcoholism?

  1. A) advanced
  2. B) middle
  3. C) early
  4. D) lingering

35) Which of the following is a personal factor that can influence perceptions of stress?

  1. A) work schedule
  2. B) pace of work
  3. C) workaholic personality
  4. D) noise

 

36) Which of the following is an external factor that can lead to job stress?

  1. A) workaholic personality
  2. B) pessimism
  3. C) locus of control
  4. D) job security

 

37) Which of the following is a possible consequence suffered by an employee faced with serious levels of job stress?

  1. A) increased occurrence of headaches and other physical symptoms
  2. B) increased absenteeism
  3. C) increased grievances
  4. D) increased health care costs

 

38) Which of the following is not a consequence suffered by an employer when employees experience high levels of job stress?

  1. A) increased occurrence of headaches and other physical symptoms
  2. B) increased absenteeism
  3. C) increased grievances
  4. D) increased health care costs

 

39) Employees who wish to lower their job stress should follow all of the following suggestions except:

  1. A) building pleasant, cooperative relationships with as many of your colleagues as you ca
  2. B) putting off dealing with distasteful problems.

C finding time every day for detachment and relaxation.

  1. D) creating realistic goals and deadlines for yourself, and set regular progress revie

40) Research estimates that the cost of health care is nearly ________ higher for high-stress workers then for workers with less stress.

  1. A) 10%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) 100%

Answer:  C

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 290

Objective:  Chapter objective 5

 

41) ________ is defined as the total depletion of physical and mental resources caused by excessive striving to reach an unrealistic work-related goal.

  1. A) Depression
  2. B) Job stress
  3. C) An anxiety attack
  4. D) Burnout

 

42) Burnout occurs in employees with high-stress at work ________.

  1. A) spontaneously
  2. B) immediately
  3. C) gradually over time
  4. D) never for those employees who are not burnout-prone

43) Which of the following is not a symptom of burnout?

  1. A) displeasure
  2. B) irritability
  3. C) entrapment
  4. D) resentment

 

44) Burnout can be reduced by ________.

  1. A) hiring more employees
  2. B) removing the stressors that caused it initially
  3. C) thinking about your work
  4. D) Both B and C.

) Warning signs like sad moods, irritability, and loss of appetite are symptoms of ________.

  1. A) alcoholism
  2. B) depression
  3. C) stress
  4. D) None of the above.

46) Which of the following workplace concerns creates costs to the employer from higher health insurance, higher fire insurance, increased absenteeism, and reduced productivity?

  1. A) smoking
  2. B) alcoholism
  3. C) drug use
  4. D) AIDS

47) All of the following is true of smoking employees except:

  1. A) smokers are less healthy than non-smokers.
  2. B) smokers are absent more than non-smokers.
  3. C) smokers make less disability claims than non-smokers.
  4. D) smoker make more expensive health claims than non-smokers.

Answer:  C

48) Which of the following groups can employers legally discriminate against?

  1. A) women
  2. B) men over 50
  3. C) smokers
  4. D) people with AIDS

49) All of the following are recommendations regarding computer monitor health problems except:

  1. A) employees should take a 3-5 minute break every 20-40 minutes and use time for other tasks.
  2. B) reduce glare.
  3. C) give a preplacement vision exam to ensure properly corrected vision.
  4. D) all of the above

50) Most workplace violence by employees were ________.

  1. A) predictable
  2. B) avoidable
  3. C) homicides
  4. D) Both A and B.

51) Abusive behavior, threats, and intimidation are signs of ________.

  1. A) depression
  2. B) bullying
  3. C) stress
  4. D) impending disaster

5

 

52) Which of the following safety concerns only became a top priority of employers following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001?

  1. A) workplace violence
  2. B) physical asset security
  3. C) employee selection and screening
  4. D) internet security

 

 

53) Of all females who were murdered at work, what percentage were killed by someone who was known to the victim?

  1. A) 25
  2. B) 75
  3. C) 35
  4. D) 45

 

54) ________ means taking advantage of a facility’s natural or architectural features in order to minimize security problems.

  1. A) Mechanical security
  2. B) Organizational security
  3. C) Natural security
  4. D) Architectural security

5

55) Common clues for identifying potentially violent employees include ________.

  1. A) an act of violence off the job
  2. B) sexually aggressive behavior
  3. C) chronic complaining and the raising of frequent, unreasonable grievances
  4. D) All of the above.

 

56) Which of the following is not a step an employer can take to protect itself from terror attacks?

  1. A) check mail carefully
  2. B) prepare evacuation plans
  3. C) identify ahead of time a lean “crisis organization”
  4. D) all of the above

57) Many mailrooms now use special scanners to check the safety of incoming mail. This is an example of using ________ to minimize security problems.

  1. A) mechanical security
  2. B) organizational security
  3. C) natural security
  4. D) pre-existing security

 

58) OSHA’s standards are vague which has made them difficult to enforce.

59) An occupational illness is any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment.

 

60) Even if the employee was treated easily with first aid, employers must report the occupational injury.

1

 

61) Investigating employee complaints of alleged violation standards is

62) The OSHA inspection is usually unannounced.

63) People who are accident-prone will have more accidents no matter what the situation.

 

64) The main aim of safety training is to impart the knowledge and skills required to reduce accidents.

 

65) Safety posters may increase safe behavior at work by more than 20%.

 

66) Positive reinforcement programs identify the worker behaviors that lead to accidents and then train workers to avoid these behaviors.

67) Safety audits measure injury and illness statistics, workers’ compensation costs, and vehicle accident statistics.

 

68) One study conducted in three hotels concluded that pre-employment drug testing seemed to  have little or no effect on workplace accidents.

 

69) Tardiness is one of the earliest symptoms of alcoholism.

 

70) Job stress originates solely from external factors such as work schedule, job security, and noise.

71) High-stress workers have health care costs 75% higher than those of less-stress co-workers.

 

 

72) A nice vacation once a year can eliminate burnout.

 

73) Depressed people tend to have worse safety records.

 

74) OSHA recently has focused on “fair and effective enforcement.”

75) Many workplace accidents occur around forklift trucks.

76) Lockout/tagout involves affixing a disabled tag to the equipment.

77) Safety programs require a strong and obvious management commitment to safety.

 

78) Safety training is not as important with new trainees because they are more likely to pay attention and therefore avoid accidents.

79) When it comes to safety, habitual safe behavior is better than a thinking employee.

 

80) OSHA claims that safety incentive programs do not cut down on accidents but only on injury reporting.

81) A drug-free workplace policy should state at a minimum “The use, possession, transfer, or sale of illegal drugs by employees is prohibited.”

 

82) Contrary to popular belief, meditation does not reduce stress.

 

83) The problem of workplace smoking is becoming moot.

 

84) Bullying at work is not a serious problem.

 

85) What are the three basic causes of workplace accidents? Explain your choices.

Answer:  The three basic causes of workplace accidents are chance occurrences, unsafe conditions, and unsafe acts on the part of employees. Chance occurrences are not under the management’s control so safety programs focus on unsafe conditions and unsafe acts by employees.

 

86) List five actions that can help to reduce unsafe acts at work.

Answer:  Some possible actions include 1) emphasizing the commitment of top management to safety, 2) establishing a safety policy, 3) reducing unsafe acts through selection, 4) providing safety training, 5) using posters, 6) using positive reinforcement, 7) using behavior-based safety programs, 8) encourage worker participation, and 9) conducting safety and health inspections regularly.

 

87) What are the three stages of observable behaviors indicating possible alcohol-related problems for employees? Identify each stage and the type of behavior associated with the stage.

 

88) What are the factors leading to job stress? Identify five suggestions for reducing job stress.

89) Discuss how you can minimize accident-causing conditions.

90) Why is employee safety and health important?

91) How do you prevent accidents in the workplace? List and describe 5 ways.

 

92) Explain the difference between job stress and burnout.